GK MCQ (English)

GK Questions for UP Home Guards

Test Overview - GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

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GK Questions for UP Home Guards: New and Previous Year paper General Knowledge MCQs in Hindi & English for competitive Exam 2026.

उत्तर प्रदेश पुलिस होमगार्ड भर्ती परीक्षा 2026 के लिए सामान्य ज्ञान वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

Number of Questions : 100
Time Limit: 120 Minutes
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📌 Questions are shuffled automatically each time you attempt.


Preparing for the UP Police Home Guard Recruitment Exam 2026?
This post provides 100 important General Knowledge (GK) MCQ Questions in Hindi and English (Bilingual) based on the official syllabus.

These questions will help you practice topics like:

  • General Knowledge & General Science
  • Indian History, Geography, Constitution, Economy
  • UP Specific GK (Culture, Heritage, Rivers, Agriculture, Administration)
  • Current Affairs, Sports, Awards
  • International Relations, Organizations & Important Events
  • Environment, Social Media, Women Empowerment, Self-reliance schemes
  • Science & Technology, Discoveries, Important Days and Books


📚 Syllabus Covered (Based on Official Notification)

🔹 General Knowledge & General Science (सामान्य ज्ञान व सामान्य विज्ञान)
🔹 Indian History, Constitution & Economy (भारतीय इतिहास, संविधान व अर्थव्यवस्था)
🔹 Indian Culture, Agriculture & Trade (भारतीय संस्कृति, कृषि व वाणिज्य)
🔹 Geography of India & Uttar Pradesh (भारत एवं यूपी का भूगोल)
🔹 Population, Environment & Urbanization (जनसंख्या, पर्यावरण व नगरीकरण)
🔹 UP Education, Culture & Social Traditions (शिक्षा, संस्कृति व सामाजिक परंपराएं)
🔹 Important Fairs & Festivals of UP (उ.प्र. के प्रमुख मेले-त्योहार)
🔹 Sports Awards & Achievements (खेल पुरस्कार व उपलब्धियाँ)
🔹 UP Administration, Police System & Revenue (प्रशासनिक संरचना व राजस्व प्रणाली)
🔹 Human Rights, Internal Security & Terrorism (मानवाधिकार, आंतरिक सुरक्षा व आतंकवाद)
🔹 India’s Relations with Neighboring Countries (भारत-पड़ोसी देशों के संबंध)
🔹 National & International Affairs (राष्ट्रीय और अंतर्राष्ट्रीय समसामयिक घटनाएँ)
🔹 Important Organizations, Summits & Agreements (महत्वपूर्ण संगठन, सम्मेलन व समझौते)
🔹 Countries, Capitals & Currencies (देश, राजधानी व मुद्रा)
🔹 Important Days, Books & Authors (महत्वपूर्ण दिवस, पुस्तकें व लेखक)
🔹 Inventions & Discoveries (आविष्कार व खोजें)
🔹 Social Media Awareness (सोशल मीडिया जागरूकता)
🔹 Government Schemes of UP (उ.प्र. सरकार की कल्याणकारी योजनाएँ)
🔹 Women Empowerment & Entrepreneurship (महिला सशक्तिकरण एवं उद्यमिता)
🔹 Natural Phenomenon & Scientific Facts (प्राकृतिक घटनाएँ व सामान्य विज्ञान)


🎯 Who Can Use This Material?

✔ UP Police Home Guard Aspirants
✔ UPSSSC, SSC, RRB, NDA, CDS, Army, Police, Navy Candidates
✔ General Knowledge Practice for Competitive Exams


📍 Benefits of Using This Quiz:

  • 🔄 Unlimited Attempt with Random Questions
  • ⏱ Timer Based (Real Examination Practice)
  • 📊 Improve Speed & Accuracy
  • 🎓 Covers Complete Syllabus

📝 More Study Material Coming Soon

  • Previous Year Papers
  • PDF Notes (Hindi + English)
  • Mock Tests and Daily Practice Quiz

Keep Learning. Keep Practicing. Success is just one step ahead.

(लगातार अभ्यास ही सफलता की कुंजी है।)

Indian Geography MCQ for Competitive Exams

Indian Geography MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams in English Medium. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free practice of upcoming exams.

Indian Geography MCQ

Q.1: Which hill station’s name means ‘place of the thunderbolt’?

(a) Gangtok
(b) Shillong
(c) Ootacamund
(d) Darjeeling

Q.2: To conserve coral reefs, the Government of India declared one of the following as a Marine Park:

(a) Andaman Islands
(b) Gulf of Kutch
(c) Lakshadweep Islands
(d) Gulf of Mannar

Q.3: The headquarters of the Survey of India Department is located in:

(a) Jaipur
(b) Dehradun
(c) Hyderabad
(d) New Delhi

Q.4: Which of the following states in India has the longest coastline?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat

Q.5: Which of the following is called a ‘young fold mountain’?

(a) Aravali
(b) Nilgiri
(c) Himalaya
(d) Vindhya

Q.6: The easternmost peak of the Himalayas is:

(a) Namcha Barwa
(b) Annapurna
(c) Kanchenjunga
(d) Mount Everest

Q.7: Metamorphic rocks change in:

(a) Structure
(b) Texture
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Original chemical composition

Q.8: What is the total area of India?

(a) 8,511,965 sq km
(b) 3,897,950 sq km
(c) 5,926,780 sq km
(d) 3,287,590 sq km

Q.9: The two richest eco-zones of India are:

(a) Himalayas and Vindhyas
(b) Himalayas and Eastern Ghats
(c) Himalayas and Western Ghats
(d) Himalayas and Aravalis

Q.10: How many islands are there in Lakshadweep?

(a) 17
(b) 27
(c) 36
(d) 47

Q.11: Niyamgiri hill is located in Kalahandi district of:

(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Punjab
(d) Kerala

Q.12: Indira Point is the southernmost tip of:

(a) Maldives
(b) Laccadive
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Dhanushkodi

Q.13: The highest peak of India is:

(a) Kamet Mountain
(b) Nandakot
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) K2 (Godwin Austen)

Q.14: Sabarimala is situated in which of the following states?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

Q.15: Which Himalayan peak is also known as ‘Sagarmatha’?

(a) Nanga Parbat
(b) Dhaulagiri
(c) Mt. Everest
(d) Kanchenjunga

Q.16: The highest mountain peak of peninsular India is:

(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Nilgiris

Q.17: The Greater Himalayas are otherwise called as:

(a) Himadri
(b) Sahyadri
(c) Assam Himalayas
(d) Siwalik

Q.18: The world’s largest river island, Majuli, is located in which state?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Tripura
(d) Mizoram

Q.19: Kanchenjunga is situated in:

(a) Nepal
(b) Sikkim
(c) West Bengal
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Q.20: Godwin Austen is a/an:

(a) Inventor of telescope
(b) Geologist
(c) Pass
(d) Peak

Q.21: Jog Falls is situated in which state?

(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu

Q.22: Which of the following is the highest peak of undisputed Indian territory?

(a) Mount Everest
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Nanga Parbat

Q.23: Palghat joins which of the following states?

(a) Sikkim and West Bengal
(b) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim1

Q.24: ‘Loktak’ is a:

(a) Valley
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) Mountain range

Q.25: Which of the following states has the longest coastline?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Q.26: The pass located in Himachal Pradesh is:

(a) Shipki La
(b) Zojila
(c) Nathula
(d) Jelepla

Q.27: The highest waterfall in India is:

(a) Hogenakkal Falls
(b) Kunchikal Falls
(c) Jog Falls
(d) Shimsha Falls

Q.28: The sea that was in place of the Himalayas was:

(a) Red Sea
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Tethys Sea
(d) Dead Sea

Q.29: Kullu Valley is situated between:

(a) Ladakh and Pir Panjal
(b) Ranjoti and Nag Tibba
(c) Lesser Himalayas and Shiwalik
(d) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal

Q.30: The mountains that are not a part of the Himalayan range are:

(a) Aravali
(b) Kunlun
(c) Karakoram
(d) Hindu Kush

Q.31: The length of the coastline of India is approximately:

(a) 4,900 kilometers
(b) 5,700 kilometers
(c) 7,500 kilometers
(d) 8,300 kilometers

Q.32: Which of the following is the second highest peak in the world?

(a) Dhaulagiri
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) K2
(d) Nanda Devi

Q.33: Badland topography is characteristic of:

(a) Chambal Valley
(b) Coastal region
(c) Sunderban Delta
(d) Gulf of Kutch

Q.34: The Indian desert is known as:

(a) Gobi
(b) Sahara
(c) Thar
(d) Atacama

Q.35: Which state of India has the largest coastline?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Odisha
(d) Tamil Nadu

Q.36: The coast related to Kerala is called:

(a) Konkan Coast
(b) Malabar Coast
(c) Coromandel Coast
(d) Canara Coast

Q.37: The coastline of India is ……… km.

(a) 5,500 kilometers
(b) 6,500 kilometers
(c) 7,500 kilometers
(d) 8,400 kilometers

Q.38: Baltora Glacier is situated in:

(a) Karakoram Ranges
(b) Pamir Plateau
(c) Shiwalik
(d) Alps

Q.39: Which of the following cities/towns is located on the northernmost latitude?

(a) Patna
(b) Allahabad
(c) Pachmarhi
(d) Ahmedabad

Q.40: The Andaman group and Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by:

(a) Ten Degree Channel
(b) Great Channel
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Andaman2 Sea

Q.41: The southern tip of India is:

(a) Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)
(b) Point Calimere
(c) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
(d) Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram3

Q.42: The Nallamala Hills are located in the state of:

(a) Odisha
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

Q.43: The coastal tract of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is called:

(a) Konkan
(b) Coromandel
(c) Eastern coast
(d) Malabar coast

Q.44: The highest Indian waterfall is:

(a) Gokak
(b) Gersoppa
(c) Shivanasamudra
(d) Yenna

Q.45: The fertile land between two rivers is called

(a) Water divide
(b) Water shed
(c) Doab
(d) Tarai

Q.46: Nathu La, the place where India-China border trade has resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in:

(a) Sikkim
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir4

Q.47: In terms of area, India is the largest country in the world.

(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh

Q.48: The approximate length of India’s coastline is:

(a) 5,500 km
(b) 6,000 km
(c) 6,500 km
(d) 7,000 km

Q.49: The standard time of a country differs from GMT in multiples of:

(a) Two hours
(b) One hour
(c) Half an hour
(d) Four minutes

Q.50: The Naga, Khasi and Garo hills are located in:

(a) Purvanchal Range
(b) Karakoram Range
(c) Zaskar Range
(d) Himalayan Range

Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ for Competitive Exams

Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

Neighbouring Countries of India MCQs

Question 1: With how many countries does India share its borders in total?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Question 2: What type of border exists between India and Sri Lanka?

A) Land border
B) Sea border
C) Border formed by rivers
D) Border formed by mountains

Question 3: Which neighboring country is located in the northwest of India?

A) Nepal
B) Bhutan
C) Pakistan
D) Myanmar

Question 4: In which direction is the border between India and Bangladesh located?

A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West

Question 5: Which country is located in the north of India?

A) Bhutan
B) Sri Lanka
C) Bangladesh
D) Myanmar

Question 6: What is the length of the border between India and Bhutan?

A) 699 kilometers
B) 500 kilometers
C) 400 kilometers
D) 700 kilometers

Question 7: What is the total length of India’s land border?

A) 15,200 kilometers
B) 14,800 kilometers
C) 15,700 kilometers
D) 16,000 kilometers

Question 8: What is the total length of the border between India and Bangladesh?

a) 4906 kilometers
b) 5096 kilometers
c) 7094 kilometers
d) 6096 kilometers

Question 9: What type of border exists between India and Nepal?

A) Sea border
B) International border
C) Provincial border
D) Border formed by rivers

Question 10: What is the name of the major border line between India and Pakistan?

A) Durand Line
B) Line of Actual Control (LoC)
C) Raja Line
D) Radcliffe Line

Question 11: The border of Afghanistan touches which one Union Territory of India?

a) Ladakh
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Uttarakhand

Question 12: Which state does not share a border with Nepal?

a) Bihar

b) Uttar Pradesh

c) Sikkim

d) Assam

Question 13: Which is the smallest neighboring country of India in terms of area?

a) Bhutan
b) China

c) Sikkim

d) Assam

Question 14: The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states of India?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Question 15: At which latitude is the Equator located?

A) 0°
B) 23.5° North
C) 23.5° South
D) 45°

Question 16: Which hemisphere is located to the north of the Equator?

a) Southern Hemisphere
b) Northern Hemisphere
c) Arctic Hemisphere
d) Antarctic Hemisphere

Question 17: At which latitude is the Tropic of Cancer located?

A) 20° North
B) 23.5° North
C) 25° North
D) 30° North

Question 18: Which countries are located to the east of India?

a) Nepal and Bhutan
b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
c) Bangladesh and Myanmar
d) Sri Lanka and Maldives

Question 19: Which state of India is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides?

a) Maharashtra
b) Kathmandu
c) Chennai
d) Tripura

Question 20: What was the old name of Myanmar?

a) Sri Lanka
b) Burma
c) Yavadvipa
d) Thailand

Question 21: By what name was Sri Lanka formerly known?

a) Siam
b) Salisbury
c) Ceylon
d) Sandwich Islands

Question 22: How many states of India are on the coast of the sea?

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

Question 23: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following states?

a) Odisha
b) Gujarat
c) Rajasthan
d) West Bengal

Question 24: Which state of India does the Tropic of Cancer pass through?

a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Bihar
d) Jharkhand

Question 25: Which place is located closest to the Equator?

a) Cape Comorin
b) Rameswaram
c) Indira Point
d) Indira Col

Question 26: Where is New Moore Island located?

a) Arabian Sea
b) Bay of Bengal
c) Gulf of Mannar
d) Andaman Sea

Question 27: Which water body separates India and Sri Lanka?

a) Great Channel
b) Palk Strait
c) 8 Degree Channel
d) 10 Degree Channel

Question 28: Which line forms the border between India and China?

a) Radcliffe Line
b) McMahon Line
c) Durand Line
d) Stateford Line

Question 29: India does not have a land international border with which country?

a) Pakistan
b) Bangladesh
c) Bhutan
d) Sri Lanka

Question 30: India has the shortest land border with which country?

a) Pakistan
b) Nepal
c) Myanmar
d) Bhutan

Question 31: Which place in India is currently known as ‘White Water’?

a) Leh
b) Ladakh
c) Kargil
d) Siachen

Question 32: What is the area of India?

a) 3,257,405 sq km
b) 3,268,276 sq km
c) 3,287,263 sq km
d) 3,287,679 sq km

Question 33: In which hemisphere is India located?

a) Northern and Eastern
b) Southern and Eastern
c) Northern and Western
d) Northern and Southern

Question 34: Which state was formerly known as NEFA?

a) Nagaland
b) Manipur
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Assam

Question 35: Port Blair is located in?

a) North Andaman
b) South Andaman
c) Middle Andaman
d) Little Andaman

Question 36: The McMahon Line, which demarcates the border between India and China, is drawn on the northern border of which of the following provinces?

a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 37: The only cold desert in India is?

a) Ladakh
b) East Kameng
c) Lachen
d) Chamba

Question 38: Adam’s Bridge is located between which two countries?

a) India and Pakistan
b) India and Bangladesh
c) India and Sri Lanka
d) India and Myanmar

Uttarakhand GK Questions for Competitive Exams

Uttarakhand General Knowledge (GK) Questions for Competitive Exams. Important questions from previous year exam question papers for practice.

Uttarakhand General Knowledge Questions

Question 1: In Uttarakhand, what is a ‘Doon’ called?

a) Structural valleys
b) River valleys
c) Alpine meadows
d) Narrow valleys

Question 2: On which river is the Tehri Dam located?

a) Ganga
b) Bhagirathi
c) Yamuna
d) Alaknanda

Question 3: Rishikesh is situated on the banks of which river?

a) Ganga
b) Yamuna
c) Nalanda
d) Saryu

Question 4: Which city in Uttarakhand is famous as the ‘City of Lakes’?

a) Nainital
b) Dehradun
c) Badrinath
d) Haridwar

Question 5: Which city is known as the ‘Queen of the Mountains’?

a) Mussoorie
b) Nainital
c) Almora
d) Yamunotri

Question 6: Where is Gangotri Dham located?

a) Yamunotri
b) Haridwar
c) Uttarkashi
d) Dehradun

Question 7: What is the state tree of Uttarakhand?

a) ‘Buransh’ (Rhododendron arboreum)
b) Peepal (Ficus religiosa)
c) Tulsi (Holy Basil)
d) Sal (Shorea robusta)

Question 8: What is the state flower of Uttarakhand?

a) Buransh (Rhododendron arboreum)

b) Lotus (Nelumbo nucifera)
c) Brahmakamal (Saussurea obvallata)
d) Rose (Rosa)

Question 9: The pedestrian journey for which religious pilgrimage begins from Gaurikund?

a) Badrinath
b) Kedarnath
c) Gangotri
d) Amarnath

Question 10: ‘Rajaji National Park’ is famous for which animal?

a) Elephant
b) Deer
c) Peacock
d) Snake

Question 11: What is the capital of Uttarakhand?

a) Nainital
b) Haridwar
c) Dehradun
d) Almora

Question 12: Where is the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly located?

a) Haridwar
b) Nainital
c) Gairsain
d) Dehradun

Question 13: Where is the summer session of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly held?

a) Pithoragarh

b) Almora

c) Gairsain

d) Rishikesh

Question 14: What is the total number of members in the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly?

a) 60

b) 70

c) 80

d) 90

Question 15: When was the first session of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly held?

a) 2000

b) 2002

c) 2004

d) 2006

Question 16: When was Gairsain declared the summer capital?

a) 2018

b) 2019

c) 2020

d) 2021

Question 18: In which year was Jim Corbett National Park established?

a) 1936

b) 1956

c) 1973

d) 1980

Question 19: In which year was the name of Uttarakhand changed from Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand?

a) January 2005

b) January 2007

c) July 2003

d) January 2008

Question 20: Lakhudiyar is located in which city of Uttarakhand?

a) Nainital

b) Almora

c) Pithoragarh

d) Champawat

Question 21: ‘Katar Mal Surya Mandir’ (Katar Mal Sun Temple) is located in which place in Uttarakhand?

a) Ranikhet

b) Almora

c) Haridwar

d) Rishikesh

Question 22: What was the ancient name of Jim Corbett National Park?

a) Hailey National Park

b) Rajaji National Park

c) Kaziranga National Park

d) Pench National Park

Question 23: Jim Corbett National Park is famous for the conservation of which animal?

a) Asiatic Lion

b) Bengal Tiger

c) Indian Elephant

d) Himalayan Black Bear

Question 24: In which district of Uttarakhand is Corbett National Park located?

a) Dehradun

b) Nainital

c) Haridwar

d) Uttarkashi

Question 25: In which year did the Chipko Movement start?

a) 1968

b) 1972

c) 1973

d) 1980

Question 26: What was the main objective of the Chipko Movement?

a) Promotion of women’s education

b) Environmental protection

c) Agricultural reform

d) Environmental protection

Question 27: Which city is situated at the confluence of the Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers?

a) Haridwar

b) Rishikesh

c) Rudraprayag

d) Devprayag

Question 28: Which is the highest mountain in Uttarakhand?

a) Kedarnath

b) Nanda Devi

c) Trishul

d) Uttar Karn

Question 29: Vigyan Dham (Science Center) is located in which city of Uttarakhand?

a) Haridwar

b) Nainital

c) Dehradun

d) Roorkee

Question 30: Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) is located in which city of Uttarakhand?

a) Haridwar

b) Dehradun

c) Nainital

d) Roorkee

Question 31: Dev Sanskriti Vishwavidyalaya (Dev Sanskriti University) is located in which city?

a) Haridwar

b) Dehradun

c) Rishikesh

d) Nainital

Question 32: Who established Shantikunj in Haridwar?

a) Swami Vivekananda

b) Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya

c) Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati

d) Swami Sachchidananda

Question 33: Who is known as the ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’?

a) Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya

b) Indramani Badoni

c) Maharshi Devprayag

d) Swami Vivekananda

Question 34: Where is Gauchar Airport located?

a) Chamoli

b) Himachal Pradesh

c) Uttar Pradesh

d) Nainital

Question 35: When are the gates of Badrinath Dham opened?

a) May

b) April

c) August

d) January

Question 36: Who is considered the first freedom fighter of Uttarakhand?

a) Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna

b) Kalu Mehra

c) Shridev Suman

d) Govind Ballabh Pant

Question 37: Who is the first poet of Kumaon literature?

a) Shivdutt Sati

b) Mohan Upreti

c) Gumani Pant

d) Lakshmi Datt Joshi

Question 38: Where is the Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy located?

a) Mussoorie

b) Dehradun

c) Nainital

d) Shimla

Question 39: Uttarakhand is which state of the country?

a) 27th

b) 15th

c) 18th

d) 23rd

Question 40: By what name is Uttarakhand described in Buddhist texts?

a) Kedarkhand

b) Himavant

c) Shivalik

d) Manaskhand

Question 41: Where is the Central Building Research Institute (CBRI) located?
a) New Delhi
b) Roorkee
c) Dehradun
d) Lucknow

Question 42: Where is the Herbal Research and Development Institute located?
a) Dehradun
b) Gopeshwar
c) Nainital
d) Haridwar

Question 43: What types of programs are run by the Herbal Research and Development Institute?
a) Training in the cultivation of medicinal plants
b) Medical education
c) Food security programs
d) Environmental protection

Question 44: How many total districts are there in the state of Uttarakhand?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 22
d) 13

Question 45: Which country/state borders the south of the state of Uttarakhand?
a) Nepal
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Bengal

Question 46: Which city of Uttarakhand is called the ‘Gateway of Kumaon’?
a) Nainital
b) Haldwani
c) Kashipur
d) Rudrapur

Question 47: Which city of Uttarakhand is famous by the name ‘Lychee City’?
a) Nainital
b) Dehradun
c) Haridwar
d) Rudrapur

Question 48: Which is the largest district in Uttarakhand in terms of area?
a) Dehradun
b) Nainital
c) Pithoragarh
d) Chamoli

Question 49: The ‘Ichari Dam Project’ is located on which river?
a) Ganga
b) Yamunotri
c) Tons
d) Bhagirathi

Question 50: Where is the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) located in Uttarakhand?
a) Dehradun
b) Haldwani
c) Rishikesh
d) Nainital

Question 51: Which British traveler discovered Nainital?
a) John Hay
b) Major Burton
c) Peter Barron
d) James Sutton

Question 52: In which year was the town of Ranikhet established?
a) 1884
b) 1869
c) 1875
d) 1859

Question 53: Who is known as the founder of Garhwali painting?
a) Devaki Nandan Kartikay
b) Shankar Dhwaj
c) Ramsingh Bhandari
d) Mola Ram

Awards and Honours MCQs for Competitive Exams

Awards and Honours MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important gk question with answer and explanation for free online practice.

Awards and Honours GK Questions


Question 1: The Grammy Award is given in which field?

A) Acting
B) Music
C) Singing
D) Boxing


Question 2: Who was the first woman to receive the Bharat Ratna award?

A) Mother Teresa
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Lata Mangeshkar
D) Sarojini Naidu


Question 3: The Moortidevi Award is given annually in which of the following fields?

A) Literature
B) Films
C) Journalism
D) Music


Question 4: The Oscar award has been won 26 times by whom?

A) Charlie Chaplin
B) Alfred Hitchcock
C) Walt Disney
D) Akira Kurosawa


Question 5: How many Nobel Prizes are awarded each year?

A) 6
B) 5
C) 7
D) 4

Question 6: Who was the first foreigner to receive the Bharat Ratna award?

A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
B) Nelson Mandela
C) Dalai Lama
D) Annie Besant

Question 7: In which year did Dadasaheb Phalke produce the first feature film?

A) 1911
B) 1913
C) 1910
D) 1912

Question 8: Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize of 2023?

A) Malala Yousafzai (Pakistan)
B) Kailash Satyarthi (India)
C) Both Malala Yousafzai (Pakistan) and Kailash Satyarthi (India)
D) Narges Mohammadi

Question 9: Who was awarded the first Nobel Prize in Economics?

A) Stiglitz
B) Paul A. Samuelson
C) Amartya Sen
D) Jan Tinbergen and Ragnar Frisch

Question 10: In which city is the Nobel Peace Prize awarded?

A) Brussels
B) Geneva
C) Oslo
D) Stockholm

Awards and Honours : Current Affairs

Question 11: Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize of 2023?

A) Malala Yousafzai
B) Kailash Satyarthi
C) Narges Mohammadi
D) Abiy Ahmed Ali

Question 12: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2023?

A) Annie Ernaux
B) Abdulrazak Gurnah
C) Jon Fosse
D) Olga Tokarczuk

Question 13: In which field was the Nobel Prize in Economics awarded in 2023?

A) Environmental Economics
B) Study of Global Poverty
C) Banking Crisis
D) Development Economics

Question 14: Which film won the Oscar Award for Best Picture in 2023?

A) Everything Everywhere All at Once
B) Top Gun: Maverick
C) The Banshees of Inisherin
D) Tár

Question 15: Who won the Oscar for Best Actress in 2023?

A) Cate Blanchett
B) Michelle Yeoh
C) Olivia Colman
D) Ana de Armas

Question 16: Who was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2023?

A) Barbara Kingsolver
B) Ernest Hemingway
C) Margaret Atwood
D) Jodi Picoult

Question 17: Who was awarded France’s highest civilian honor “Legion of Honour” on Bastille Day in 2023?

A) Narendra Modi
B) Shinzo Abe
C) Vladimir Putin
D) Joe Biden

Question 18: Who was chosen as “Person of the Year” by Time magazine in 2023?

A) Elon Musk
B) Joe Biden
C) Vladimir Zelenskyy
D) Taylor Swift

Question 19: Who won the Grammy Award for “Song of the Year” in 2023?

A) Beyoncé
B) Harry Styles
C) Bonnie Raitt
D) Taylor Swift

Question 20: Which award did the Indian film “RRR” win in 2024?

A) Oscar
B) Grammy
C) BAFTA
D) Golden Globe

Question 21: Who received the Booker Prize of 2023?

A) Shehan Karunatilaka
B) George Saunders
C) Jon Fosse
D) Ian McEwan

Question 22: Which Indian film director was honored at the Cannes Film Festival in 2023?

A) Anurag Kashyap
B) Sanjay Leela Bhansali
C) Mani Ratnam
D) S.S. Rajamouli

Question 23: Who received India’s highest military honor, the “Param Vir Chakra,” in 2023?

A) Captain Vikram Batra
B) Major Somnath Sharma
C) Subedar Sanjay Kumar
D) Captain Abhilash Mishra

Question 24: Who received the prestigious “Billboard Music Award” for music in 2023?

A) Harry Styles
B) Taylor Swift
C) Drake
D) Ed Sheeran

Question 25: Who was awarded the “Jnanpith Award” for literature in 2023?

A) Vasudevan Nair
B) Damodar Mauzo
C) Annamalai
D) Raghuveer Chaudhari

Question 26: In which field was the Rolex Award given in 2023?

A) Art
B) Science
C) Sports
D) Environmental Protection

Question 27: Who won the “FIFA Best Player Award” for 2023?

A) Lionel Messi
B) Cristiano Ronaldo
C) Neymar
D) Kylian Mbappé

Question 28: Who received the Grammy Award for “Best New Artist” in 2024?

A) Olivia Rodrigo
B) Billie Eilish
C) Samara Joy
D) Summer Walker

Question 29: Who was awarded the “Sahitya Akademi Award” in 2024?

A) Arundhati Roy
B) Jet Thakur
C) Giriraj Kishore
D) Vasudha Ravindran

Question 30: Who was awarded the “Padma Bhushan” in 2024?

A) Shah Rukh Khan
B) Ratan Tata
C) Sudha Murthy
D) Deepika Padukone

Haryana GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Haryana General Knowledge : GK MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important previous year exam questions are provided for free online practice of students preparing for Haryana State Government jobs.

Haryana General Knowledge questions

Question 1: When was the state of Haryana established?
a) 1 November 1966
b) 15 August 1947
c) 26 January 1950
d) 2 October 1965


Question 2: What is the capital of Haryana?
a) Rohtak
b) Faridabad
c) Chandigarh
d) Hisar


Question 3: Which is the largest district of Haryana in terms of area?
a) Sirsa
b) Bhiwani
c) Gurugram
d) Rohtak


Question 4: Which district of Haryana is known for the cotton textile industry?
a) Hisar
b) Panipat
c) Sonipat
d) Karnal


Question 5: Which river is considered the most important in Haryana?
a) Yamuna
b) Ghaggar
c) Sutlej
d) Ganga


Question 6: What is the state bird of Haryana?
a) House Sparrow
b) Black Francolin
c) Peacock
d) Parrot


Question 7: Which place in Haryana is famous for ‘Bhagat Phool Singh Mahila Vishwavidyalaya’?
a) Sonipat
b) Panipat
c) Rohtak
d) Hisar


Question 8: What is the state flower of Haryana?
a) Rose
b) Lotus
c) Sunflower
d) Marigold


Question 9: In which month is the ‘Surajkund Mela’ held in Haryana?
a) January
b) February
c) March
d) April


Question 10: Which is the oldest city in Haryana?
a) Jind
b) Panipat
c) Hisar
d) Rohtak


Question 11: What is the state sport of Haryana?
a) Football
b) Kabaddi
c) Hockey
d) Wrestling


Question 12: What is the state tree of Haryana?
a) Peepal
b) Neem
c) Banyan
d) Mango


Question 13: When was Kurukshetra University established in Haryana?
a) 1950
b) 1957
c) 1960
d) 1965


Question 14: When was the Panchayati Raj system implemented in Haryana?
a) 1950
b) 1956
c) 1994
d) 1965


Question 15: What is the official language of Haryana?
a) Hindi
b) Punjabi
c) Urdu
d) Haryanvi


Question 16: Which city in Haryana is known as the hub of boxing?
a) Bhiwani
b) Sonipat
c) Panchkula
d) Gurugram


Question 17: Which district of Haryana is known as “Science City”?
a) Faridabad
b) Gurugram
c) Karnal
d) Ambala


Question 18: What is Haryana’s rank in India by area?
a) 20th
b) 22nd
c) 24th
d) 25th


Question 19: Which is the largest district of Haryana in terms of area?
a) Faridabad
b) Rohtak
c) Panchkula
d) Sirsa


Question 20: In which district of Haryana is the Agricultural University located?
a) Kurukshetra
b) Hisar
c) Karnal
d) Faridabad


Question 21: In which city of Haryana is the ‘Surajkund International Crafts Mela’ organized?
a) Gurugram
b) Faridabad
c) Panchkula
d) Karnal


Question 22: In which city of Haryana is the ‘IT Park’ located?
a) Gurugram
b) Hisar
c) Karnal
d) Panchkula


Question 23: Where did Lord Krishna deliver the teachings of the Gita?
a) Jyotisar
b) Shahabad
c) Ladwa
d) Pehowa


Question 24: Where is the Markandeshwar Temple of Haryana located?
a) Kurukshetra
b) Ambala
c) Kaithal
d) Panipat


Question 25: What is the ancient epic of Haryana?

a) Mahabharata
b) Samaveda
c) Atharvaveda
d) Ramayana


Question 26: When was the Haryana State Agricultural Marketing Board established?

a) 1 August 1969
b) 1 September 1966
c) 1 September 1971
d) 1 August 1972


Question 27: Who is known as the Iron Man of Haryana?

a) Bansi Lal
b) Pt. Nekiram Sharma
c) Chaudhary Chhotu Ram
d) Pt. Bhagwat Dayal Sharma


Question 28: In which year was the Ambala Cantonment (military base) established in Haryana?

a) 1839
b) 1840
c) 1842
d) 1843


Question 29: Who was the longest-serving Chief Minister of Haryana?

a) Om Prakash Chautala
b) Bhupinder Singh Hooda
c) Bansi Lal
d) Bhajan Lal


Question 30: In which company’s petroleum complex is located in Panipat district of Haryana?

a) Bharat Petroleum
b) Essar Petroleum
c) Indian Oil Corporation
d) Reliance Petroleum


Question 31: Which city of Haryana was described in the book of the famous Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang for its grandeur and prosperity?

a) Panipat
b) Rohtak
c) Ambala
d) Thanesar


Question 32: What is the average height of the alluvial plains in Haryana?

a) Between 200–220 meters
b) Between 200–240 meters
c) Between 210–270 meters
d) Between 220–240 meters


Question 33: Who was the founder of Bhiwani?

a) Karampal
b) Maharaja Dandpati
c) Anangpal
d) Neem Singh


Question 34: Markanda is a major tributary of which river?

a) Yamuna
b) Saraswati
c) Indori
d) Ghaggar


Question 35: When was Gurgaon renamed Gurugram?

a) 10 April 2016
b) 11 April 2016
c) 12 April 2016
d) 13 April 2016


Question 36: Where is the Pandu Mela held?

a) Papahana Asandh
b) Amupur
c) Salwan
d) Indri


Question 37: Sakshi Malik, who won a medal in the Rio Olympics, belongs to which district of Haryana?

a) Sirsa
b) Panipat
c) Rohtak
d) Karnal


Question 38: What is the first novel written in Haryanvi?

a) Kayakalp
b) Harigandha
c) Jhaadu Phiri
d) Haryana Samvaad


Question 39: Who started the publication of ‘Haryana Sandesh’?

a) Brahmanand
b) Pyarelal
c) Atmaram Jain
d) Pt. Neki Ram Sharma


Question 40: Where is the tomb of Sheikh Chilli located?

a) Thanesar
b) Gharaunda
c) Ganaur
d) Jagadhri


Question 41: What is the highest literary award of Haryana?

a) Soor Samman
b) Vyas Puraskar
c) Arjun Puraskar
d) Bheem Puraskar


Question 42: Who led the 1857 revolt in Kharkhoda?

a) Naharsingh
b) Khemchand
c) Rao Tularam
d) Risaldar Bisarat Ali


Question 43: Where was the first horticulture university of Haryana established?

a) Karnal
b) Rohtak
c) Jind
d) Kurukshetra


Question 44: Where did the 1857 revolt begin in Haryana?

a) Ambala Cantonment
b) Sirsa Cantonment
c) Hansi Cantonment
d) Rewari Cantonment


Question 45: A large region of Haryana was once called ‘Shri Kanth Janpad’. Which dynasty’s ruler gave this name?

a) Naga
b) Pushyabhuti
c) Hun
d) Gupta


Question 46: Who wrote the famous book Prithviraj Raso?

a) Chand Bardai
b) Surdas
c) Babur
d) Kabirdas


Question 47: The majority of Haryana’s land is dominated by which type of soil?

a) Kachari soil
b) Desert soil
c) Sandy-loamy soil
d) Loamy soil


Question 48: In which district is the urea plant located?

a) Bhiwani
b) Rohtak
c) Sonipat
d) Panipat


Question 49: The village of Sihi near Faridabad is considered the birthplace of which famous devotional poet?

a) Ramdas
b) Raidas
c) Surdas
d) Tulsidas


Question 50: How many days did the Mahabharata war last?

a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18


Question 51: What was the ancient name of Panipat?

a) Thaneshwar
b) Sthanuvishwar
c) Panduprastha
d) Somnath


Question 52: Dr. Gopi Chand Bhargava, the first Chief Minister of Punjab, belonged to which district of Haryana?

a) Hisar
b) Sirsa
c) Bhiwani
d) Yamunanagar


Question 53: Where does the Saraswati River enter Haryana?

a) From Pinjore
b) From Kalesar
c) From Panchkula
d) From Adi Badri


Bihar GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Bihar GK MCQs Questions for preparation of Competitive Exams. Important Bihar General Knowledge previous year exam question answer with explanation are provided below.

Bihar General Knowledge MCQs

Question 1: Which is the largest city in Bihar?
a) Patna
b) Gaya
c) Muzaffarpur
d) Bhagalpur


Question 2: In which year did the Champaran Satyagraha start in Bihar?
a) 1915
b) 1917
c) 1920
d) 1930


Question 3: What is the official state animal of Bihar?
a) Elephant
b) Cow
c) Ox
d) Lion


Question 4: Which district of Bihar is famous as the ‘Silk City’?
a) Patna
b) Gaya
c) Bhagalpur
d) Munger


Question 5: How many divisions (Pramandal) are there in Bihar?
a) 7
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11


Question 6: Who is the current Chief Minister of Bihar? (As of August 2024)
a) Nitish Kumar
b) Tejashwi Yadav
c) Jitan Ram Manjhi
d) Sushil Modi


Question 7: Who was the first Chief Minister of Bihar?
a) Shri Krishna Singh
b) Jagannath Mishra
c) Lalu Prasad Yadav
d) Karpoori Thakur


Question 8: Which city in Bihar is considered the ‘center of education’?
a) Patna
b) Gaya
c) Nalanda
d) Darbhanga


Question 9: On which date is Bihar Day celebrated?
a) 15 January
b) 22 March
c) 1 April
d) 2 October


Question 10: What is the main language of Bihar?
a) Hindi
b) Bhojpuri
c) Maithili
d) Magahi


Question 11: Which is the largest district in Bihar?
a) Patna
b) West Champaran
c) Gaya
d) Bhagalpur


Question 12: In which district of Bihar is the ‘Mahabodhi Temple’ located?
a) Patna
b) Gaya
c) Muzaffarpur
d) Darbhanga


Question 13: Which city of Bihar is the birthplace of ‘Sher Shah Suri’?
a) Patna
b) Sasaram
c) Darbhanga
d) Nalanda


Question 14: At which place in Bihar did Lord Buddha deliver his first sermon?
a) Nalanda
b) Pawapuri
c) Bodh Gaya
d) Sarnath


Question 15: In which year did the reconstruction of Nalanda University begin?
a) 2010
b) 2014
c) 2005
d) 2012


Question 16: Which folk dance of Bihar is very famous?
a) Bihu
b) Jumari
c) Kathak
d) Chhau


Question 17: Which place in Bihar is known as the birthplace of Lord Mahavira?
a) Nalanda
b) Pawapuri
c) Vaishali
d) Bodh Gaya


Question 18: In which district is the Sonepur Mela organized?
a) Patna
b) Saran
c) Gaya
d) Nalanda


Question 19: Bihar shares its southern border with which state?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Jharkhand
c) West Bengal
d) Madhya Pradesh


Question 20: What was the ancient name of Patna?
a) Pataliputra
b) Vaishali
c) Magadh
d) Rajgir


Question 21: Which place is known as the ‘Education City’ of Bihar?
a) Nalanda
b) Patna
c) Gaya
d) Muzaffarpur


Question 22: Which place in Bihar is called the “Capital of Religion”?
a) Gaya
b) Rajgir
c) Bodh Gaya
d) Pawapuri


Question 23: Where are the remains of the Vikramshila University found?
a) Patna
b) Bhagalpur
c) Nalanda
d) Munger


Question 24: Which city in Bihar is known as the “City of Kabir”?
a) Patna
b) Sasaram
c) Motihari
d) Darbhanga


Question 25: Where is the Mahatma Gandhi Setu located?
a) Patna
b) Hajipur
c) Bhagalpur
d) Buxar


Question 26: What is the original meaning of the word “Bihar”?
a) Mountain
b) River
c) Buddhist Monastery
d) Fort


Question 27: When was the Patna High Court established?
a) 1912
b) 1916
c) 1919
d) 1935


Question 28: How many seats does Bihar have in the Rajya Sabha?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18


Question 29: For what was Nalanda University world-famous?
a) Advancement in Physics
b) Expertise in Ayurveda
c) Study of Buddhism and Philosophy
d) Excellence in Mathematics and Astronomy


Question 30: What was the main cause of the destruction of Nalanda University?
a) Turkish Invasion
b) Chinese Invasion
c) Muslim Invasion
d) Mongol Invasion


Question 31: In which district are the ruins of Nalanda University located?
a) Patna
b) Nalanda
c) Gaya
d) Saran


Question 32: What is the state tree of Bihar?
a) Peepal
b) Ashoka
c) Neem
d) Banyan


Question 33: When was Jharkhand separated from Bihar?
a) 15 August 1947
b) 1 January 2000
c) 15 November 2000
d) 26 January 1950


Question 34: In which year was the first Hindi newspaper “Bihar Bandhu” published in Bihar?
a) 1862
b) 1872
c) 1882
d) 1892


Question 35: Who was the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
a) Meira Kumar
b) Ranjit Kumari
c) Urmila Singh
d) Shobha Yadav


Question 36: Which great personality of Bihar is known for contributing to the historical development of “Magadh”?
a) Ashoka
b) Chandragupta Maurya
c) Emperor Akbar
d) Bimbisara


Question 37: In which district is the “Bihar Museum” located?
a) Patna
b) Darbhanga
c) Muzaffarpur
d) Gaya


Question 38: “Litti Chokha” is a dish of which state?
a) Bihar
b) Kerala
c) Goa
d) Punjab


Question 39: Which is the largest municipal corporation in Bihar?
a) Patna
b) Bhagalpur
c) Muzaffarpur
d) Gaya


Question 40: On which day is ‘Dr. Rajendra Prasad’s’ birth anniversary celebrated in Bihar?

a) January 3
b) January 26
c) August 15
d) December 3


Question 41: Who founded the ‘Nalanda’ University in Bihar?

a) Ashoka
b) Chandragupta Maurya
c) Kumaragupta
d) Vikramaditya I


Question 42: Which district of Bihar is famous for ‘Madhubani Painting’?

a) Patna
b) Madhubani
c) Gaya
d) Bhagalpur


Question 43: Which district of Bihar is famous for ‘Litchi’?

a) Darbhanga
b) Muzaffarpur
c) Patna
d) Gaya


Question 44: In which district of Bihar is ‘Tilka Manjhi’ University located?

a) Patna
b) Bhagalpur
c) Muzaffarpur
d) Gaya


Question 45: What is the western border state of Bihar?

a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Rajasthan
d) West Bengal


Question 46: Which is the smallest district in Bihar in terms of area?

a) Patna
b) Sheohar
c) Gopalganj
d) Bhagalpur


Question 47: Which district of Bihar has the lowest population?

a) Sheikhpura
b) Kishanganj
c) Darbhanga
d) Gaya


Question 48: Where is the oil refinery located in Bihar?

a) Patna
b) Barauni
c) Muzaffarpur
d) Bhagalpur


Question 49: By whose hands was the glory of Nalanda University destroyed?

a) Ashoka
b) Mahmud of Ghazni
c) Bakhtiyar Khilji
d) Qutb-ud-din Aibak


Question 50: In which state is the Chanakya National Law University (CNLU) located?

a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Bihar
c) Jharkhand
d) West Bengal


Question 51: What is the main monsoon season in Bihar?

a) April-May
b) June-September
c) October-November
d) December-January


Question 52: How many districts are there in Bihar?

a) 35
b) 38
c) 40
d) 42


Question 53: Who constructed the ‘Golghar’ located in Patna?

a) Lord Cornwallis
b) John Garstin
c) Sher Shah Suri
d) Emperor Ashoka


Question 54: In which district of Bihar is the Kanwar Lake Bird Sanctuary located?

a) Munger
b) West Champaran
c) Begusarai
d) Gaya


Question 55: In whose court did the Greek ambassador Megasthenes come to Pataliputra?

a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Ashoka
c) Vikramaditya
d) Sultan Tipu


Question 56: In which year was cow slaughter banned by law in Bihar?

a) 1963
b) 1955
c) 1959
d) 1960

Game and Sports MCQs for Competitive Exams

Game and Sports MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important questions from previous year General Knowledge question paper.

Medium: English

Game and Sports Questions

Question 1: In which year did the Olympic Games begin?

(A) 1896
(B) 1900
(C) 1920
(D) 1936


Question 2: How often is the FIFA World Cup Football Tournament held?

(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years


Question 3: “Uber Cup” is associated with which sport?

(A) Cricket
(B) Tennis
(C) Badminton
(D) Football


Question 4: In which year did India win its first Cricket World Cup?

(A) 1975
(B) 1983
(C) 1987
(D) 1996


Question 5: Which tournament is NOT included in the Grand Slam of tennis?

(A) Wimbledon
(B) Australian Open
(C) French Open
(D) Davis Cup


Question 6: The “Arjuna Award” is given for excellence in which field?

(A) Literature
(B) Sports
(C) Music
(D) Science


Question 7: In which sport did India win its first Olympic gold medal?

(A) Hockey
(B) Wrestling
(C) Boxing
(D) Athletics


Question 8: Who is a famous Indian racer in Formula 1 racing?

(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Viswanathan Anand
(C) Narain Karthikeyan
(D) Leander Paes


Question 9: “Thomas Cup” is associated with which sport?

(A) Table Tennis
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Hockey


Question 10: Viswanathan Anand is associated with which sport?

(A) Tennis
(B) Football
(C) Chess
(D) Badminton

Question-11: “Roland Garros” is associated with which sport?

(A) Cricket
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Tennis


Question-12: In which year did the Asian Games begin?

(A) 1948
(B) 1951
(C) 1960
(D) 1965


Question-13: Which Indian batsman scored the first triple century in Test cricket?

(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Sourav Ganguly
(C) Virender Sehwag
(D) Rahul Dravid


Question-14: Which country has won the FIFA World Cup the most times?

(A) Argentina
(B) Germany
(C) Italy
(D) Brazil


Question-15: How many balls are bowled in an over in cricket?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7


Question-16: How many players are there in a football team?

(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12


Question-17: How many categories is wrestling divided into in the Olympic Games?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7


Question-18: The ‘Davis Cup’ in tennis is awarded for?

(A) Individual male players
(B) Men’s team championship
(C) Women’s team championship
(D) Mixed doubles


Question-19: In which country is ‘Wimbledon’ held?

(A) USA
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Australia


Question-20: ‘Ranji Trophy’ in India is associated with which sport?

(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Football
(D) Badminton

Question 31: “Team India” is associated with which sport?

(A) Football
(B) Badminton
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey


Question 32: Rafael Nadal is associated with which sport?

(A) Football
(B) Tennis
(C) Golf
(D) Hockey


Question 33: What does ‘hat-trick’ mean in football?

(A) Scoring three goals
(B) Scoring two goals
(C) Scoring one goal
(D) Scoring four goals


Question 34: The ‘Yellow Jersey’ for the winner is associated with which sport?

(A) Football
(B) Cycling
(C) Tennis
(D) Hockey


Question 35: Who was the captain of the Indian women’s cricket team in the 2022 Women’s World Cup?

(A) Mithali Raj
(B) Harmanpreet Kaur
(C) Smriti Mandhana
(D) Jhulan Goswami


Question 36: Which Indian athlete won the first gold medal at the Tokyo Olympics 2021?

(A) P. V. Sindhu
(B) Neeraj Chopra
(C) Bajrang Punia
(D) Mirabai Chanu


Question 37: When is National Sports Day celebrated in India?

(A) 15th August
(B) 29th August
(C) 2nd October
(D) 26th January


Question 39: In which year was the first season of IPL (Indian Premier League) played?

(A) 2007
(B) 2008
(C) 2010
(D) 2011


Question 40: Who won India’s first Olympic medal in boxing?

(A) Vijender Singh
(B) Mary Kom
(C) Shiva Thapa
(D) Akhil Kumar

Question 41: What is the highest award given in the field of sports?

(A) Jnanpith Award
(B) Padma Shri Award
(C) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
(D) Bharat Bhushan Award


Question 42: Which sport is Navjot Singh Sidhu associated with?

(A) Football
(B) Tennis
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey


Question 43: What does ‘Albatross’ mean in golf?

(A) Scoring three strokes under par
(B) Scoring more than two strokes over par
(C) Scoring exactly par
(D) Scoring more than four strokes over par


Question 44: Federer, Nadal, and Djokovic are associated with which sport?

(A) Football
(B) Golf
(C) Badminton
(D) Tennis


Question 45: Who was India’s first Grand Slam winner?

(A) Leander Paes
(B) Mahesh Bhupathi
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Ramanathan Krishnan


Question 46: In which sport is the ‘Bulgarian Bag’ used?

(A) Wrestling
(B) Weightlifting
(C) Boxing
(D) Badminton


Question 47: In which sport has P.V. Sindhu won an Olympic medal?

(A) Tennis
(B) Badminton
(C) Hockey
(D) Athletics


Question 48: In which country was the FIFA World Cup 2022 held?

(A) Qatar
(B) Brazil
(C) Russia
(D) South Africa


Question 49: Who is known as the “Little Master” in Indian cricket?

(A) Kapil Dev
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Sunil Gavaskar
(D) Rahul Dravid


Question 50: Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the highest runs scored in a single Test match innings?

(A) Virat Kohli
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sunil Gavaskar


Question-51: Who was the captain of the Indian team that won the first World Cup in 1983?

A) Sunil Gavaskar
B) Kapil Dev
C) Mohammad Azharuddin
D) Sourav Ganguly


Question-52: Which Indian cricketer is known by the nickname “Dada”?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Sourav Ganguly
C) Rahul Dravid
D) Anil Kumble


Question-53: In which year did India win its first T20 World Cup?

A) 2005
B) 2007
C) 2011
D) 2013


Question-54: Who was the highest run-scorer for India in the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Virat Kohli
C) Gautam Gambhir
D) Kumar Sangakkara


Question-55: Who was the first Indian cricketer to score a double century in a One-Day International (ODI) match?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Virat Kohli
C) Rohit Sharma
D) Shikhar Dhawan


Question-56: Which Indian cricketer was the first to take 10 wickets in a single Test innings?

A) Bishan Singh Bedi
B) Anil Kumble
C) Erapalli Prasanna
D) Ravi Shastri


Question-57: Which Indian cricketer is known as “The Wall”?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Rahul Dravid
C) Virender Sehwag
D) Sunil Gavaskar


Question-58: Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the highest individual score in an ODI match?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Virat Kohli
C) Rohit Sharma
D) Shikhar Dhawan


Question-59: Which Indian bowler holds the record for the most wickets in T20 International cricket?

A) Harbhajan Singh
B) Yuvraj Singh
C) Ravi Ashwin
D) Jasprit Bumrah


Question-60: Who was the first Indian cricketer to score a century in T20 International cricket?

A) Virat Kohli
B) Suresh Raina
C) Yuvraj Singh
D) Rohit Sharma


Question-61: Who was the captain of the Indian team in the 2003 Cricket World Cup final?

A) Sourav Ganguly
B) Rahul Dravid
C) MS Dhoni
D) Sachin Tendulkar


Question-62: Who was the first Indian cricketer to win the ICC Cricketer of the Year award?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Rahul Dravid
C) MS Dhoni
D) Virat Kohli


Question-63: Which Indian cricketer is famous for hitting six sixes in an over in T20 cricket?

A) MS Dhoni
B) Yuvraj Singh
C) Virender Sehwag
D) Rohit Sharma


World History MCQs for Competitive Exams

World History MCQs Questions with answer and explanation for Competitive Exams. Important previous year questions.

Medium: English

World History Questions

Question 1: Which part of India did Alexander the Great invade?
a) Punjab
b) Bengal
c) Kashmir
d) Tamil Nadu


Question 2: Who was the first emperor of the Maurya Empire?
a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Ashoka
c) Bindusara
d) Emperor Vikramaditya


Question 3: When did World War I end?
a) 1914
b) 1918
c) 1920
d) 1939


Question 4: Which country conducted the first nuclear bomb test?
a) USA
b) Russia
c) England
d) Japan


Question 5: Which empire developed the ‘Code of Laws’ in Mesopotamia?
a) Babylonian
b) Assyrian
c) Maurya
d) Greek


Question 6: What was the role of the ‘Senate’ in ancient Rome?
a) Function as a court
b) Make laws and provide advice
c) Expand the empire
d) Control trade deals


Question 7: What does “Drops of John” refer to?
a) A political plan
b) A war name
c) A social movement in the USA
d) A scientific discovery


Question 8: Which action led to the October Revolution in Russia?
a) Economic crisis
b) War defeat
c) Political dissatisfaction
d) Foreign invasion


Question 9: Who was the prominent ruler of the Babylonian Empire?
a) Hammurabi
b) Nebuchadnezzar II
c) Alexander
d) Ramses II


Question 10: Which ancient civilization built the pyramids?
a) Mesopotamia
b) Egypt
c) Greece
d) India

Question 11: In which year did the French Revolution begin?
(A) 1787
(B) 1789
(C) 1792
(D) 1794


Question 12: Which emperor commissioned the construction of the Taj Mahal, famous for its tomb and architecture?
(A) Akbar
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Aurangzeb
(D) Babur


Question 13: In which year did Columbus first discover America?
(A) 1492
(B) 1498
(C) 1500
(D) 1520


Question 14: Which empire led to the unification of modern Germany?
(A) Roman Empire
(B) Frankish Empire
(C) Prussian Empire
(D) Ottoman Empire


Question 15: Which king achieved major victories to gain control over the Indian Ocean?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Ashoka
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Shivaji


Question 16: Which emperor adopted Islam as the state religion?
(A) Akbar
(B) Aurangzeb
(C) Babur
(D) Shah Jahan


Question 17: When was the United Nations established after World War II?
(A) 1945
(B) 1947
(C) 1949
(D) 1950


Question 18: Which prominent scholar and writer in Akbar’s court wrote “Akbarnama”?
(A) Zahir-ud-din Babur
(B) Abul Fazl
(C) Akbar
(D) Ibrahim Lodi


Question 19: Who gave the slogan “Liberty, Equality, Fraternity” during the French Revolution?
(A) Louis XVI
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Georges Danton
(D) Maximilien Robespierre


Question 20: In which year did the American War of Independence begin?
(A) 1776
(B) 1783
(C) 1800
(D) 1790

Question 21: Which empire was founded by Alexander the Great?
A) Roman Empire
B) Mongol Empire
C) Macedonian Empire
D) Sassanian Empire


Question 22: Which country was most affected by the Seven Years’ War?
A) Britain
B) France
C) Russia
D) Germany


Question 23: In which famous battle did Napoleon Bonaparte face defeat?
A) Battle of Waterloo
B) Battle of Trafalgar
C) Battle of Austerlitz
D) Battle of Lützen


Question 24: Which major book was written during Akbar’s reign?
A) Baburnama
B) Akbarnama
C) Ain-i-Akbari
D) Mughalnama


Question 25: Which revolution in China was a major outcome under Mao Zedong’s leadership?
A) Taiping Rebellion
B) Summer Uprising
C) Communist Revolution of China
D) Xinhai Revolution


Question 26: In which year did Japan surrender after World War II?
A) 1945
B) 1946
C) 1944
D) 1947


Question 27: What was the primary goal of the Bolshevik Revolution?
A) End of imperialism
B) Establishment of communism
C) Establishment of democracy
D) End of colonialism


Question 28: Which great empire played a major role in Europe after the Roman Empire?
A) Byzantine Empire
B) Ottoman Empire
C) Frankish Empire
D) British Empire


Question 29: The “Napoleonic Code” was implemented in which country?
A) Britain
B) France
C) Spain
D) Italy


Question 30: When was the World Trade Organization (WTO) established?
A) 1995
B) 1990
C) 1985
D) 2000

Question 31: When did the ancient Egyptian empire begin?
A) 3100 BCE
B) 3000 BCE
C) 2500 BCE
D) 2000 BCE


Question 32: In which country is the “Great Wall” located?
A) India
B) China
C) Japan
D) Vietnam


Question 33: Where was Genghis Khan born?
A) China
B) Mongolia
C) India
D) Russia


Question 34: Which U.S. president played a crucial role in the construction of the Panama Canal?
A) Theodore Roosevelt
B) Woodrow Wilson
C) Franklin D. Roosevelt
D) Abraham Lincoln


Question 35: In which decade did colonialism come to an end?
A) 1940s
B) 1950s
C) 1960s
D) 1970s


Question 36: In which country was the center of the Renaissance?
A) France
B) England
C) Italy
D) Spain


Question 37: Who was one of the main revolutionary leaders during the French Revolution?
A) Maximilien Robespierre
B) Louis XVI
C) Napoleon Bonaparte
D) Georges Danton


Question 38: When was the World Trade Organization (WTO) established?
A) 1995
B) 1990
C) 2000
D) 1985


Question 39: Which war established the modern European balance of power?
A) Seven Years’ War
B) Thirty Years’ War
C) Napoleonic Wars
D) French Revolution


Question 40: What was the first constitution of France after the French Revolution?
A) Constitution of 1791
B) Constitution of 1789
C) Constitution of 1804
D) Constitution of 1795

Question 41: Who became the first President of Russia after the dissolution of the Soviet Union?

A) Mikhail Gorbachev
B) Boris Yeltsin
C) Vladimir Putin
D) Nikita Khrushchev


Question 42: The “Cold War” was fought between which two countries?

A) USA and Japan
B) USA and Soviet Union
C) Britain and France
D) Germany and Italy


Question 43: In which year was the Berlin Wall brought down?

A) 1987
B) 1989
C) 1991
D) 1993


Question 44: When did the “D-Day” operation take place during World War II?

A) 1941
B) 1942
C) 1944
D) 1945


Question 45: Where did the “Renaissance” begin?

A) England
B) France
C) Italy
D) Germany


Question 46: Who established democracy in Athens?

A) Solon
B) Pericles
C) Aristotle
D) Plato


Question 47: In which battle was the great French leader Napoleon Bonaparte defeated?

A) Battle of Waterloo
B) Battle of Trafalgar
C) Battle of Leipzig
D) Battle of Austerlitz


Question 48: Who was the first Emperor of Rome?

A) Nero
B) Julius Caesar
C) Augustus
D) Caligula


Question 49: In which country did the “Industrial Revolution” first begin?

A) Germany
B) France
C) Britain
D) United States


Question 50: In which country did the Bolshevik Revolution take place?

A) China
B) Russia
C) Cuba
D) Vietnam


Question 51: In which year did the American War of Independence end?

A) 1776
B) 1781
C) 1783
D) 1791


Question 52: Along which river did the ancient Egyptian civilization develop?

A) Tigris
B) Yangtze
C) Nile
D) Indus


Question 53: Who led the Allied Powers during World War II?

A) Winston Churchill
B) Adolf Hitler
C) Joseph Stalin
D) Franklin D. Roosevelt


Question 54: Who is known as the “Founder of Revolutionary China”?

A) Chiang Kai-shek
B) Mao Zedong
C) Sun Yat-sen
D) Deng Xiaoping


Question 55: In which year did the Glorious Revolution of England take place?

A) 1642
B) 1688
C) 1701
D) 1789


Question 56: From which country did the European Renaissance begin?

A) England
B) France
C) Italy
D) Greece


Question 57: Who was the Mughal emperor during the Revolt of 1857?

A) Akbar
B) Shah Alam
C) Bahadur Shah Zafar
D) Shah Jahan


Question 58: When did Alexander invade India?

A) 326 BCE
B) 356 BCE
C) 300 BCE
D) 250 BCE


Question 59: When was Bangladesh established?

A) 1972
B) 1971
C) 1970
D) 1975


Question 60: Who discovered the Harappan civilization?

A) Alexander Cunningham
B) Robert Bruce Foote
C) Dayaram Sahni
D) John Marshall


UP GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Uttar Pradesh General Knowledge MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important questions practice set from previous year papers of UPSSSC exams in English.

Question 1: On which of the following dates is Uttar Pradesh Foundation Day celebrated?

A) March 10
B) January 24
C) December 21
D) June 23


Question 2: Which is the largest city in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Meerut
B) Agra
C) Kanpur
D) Varanasi


Question 3: What is the state bird of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Peacock
B) Sarus Crane
C) Crow
D) Pigeon


Question 4: Through which of the following districts does the Ganga River flow in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Ballia
B) Prayagraj
C) Gorakhpur
D) Agra


Question 5: What is the state animal of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Elephant
B) Barasingha (Swamp Deer)
C) Chital (Spotted Deer)
D) Ganges Dolphin


Question 6: Which is the major river of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Yamuna
B) Gomti
C) Ganga
D) Saraswati


Question 7: Which is the major festival of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Diwali
B) Holi
C) Makar Sankranti
D) All of the above


Question 8: Who is the current Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Akhilesh Yadav
B) Mayawati
C) Yogi Adityanath
D) Rahul Gandhi


Question 9: Where is the famous “Buland Darwaza” located in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Agra
B) Lucknow
C) Fatehpur Sikri
D) Varanasi


Question 10: In which district of Uttar Pradesh is diamond found?

A) Banda
B) Lalitpur
C) Varanasi
D) Jaunpur


Question 11: Which of the following universities is located in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Indraprastha University
B) Banaras Hindu University
C) Takshashila University
D) Ambedkar University


Question 12: Where is Chaukhandi Stupa located in Uttar Pradesh?

a) Agra
b) Varanasi
c) Lucknow
d) Sarnath


Question 13: Which state borders Uttar Pradesh in the north?

A) Haryana
B) Bihar
C) Uttarakhand
D) Rajasthan


Question 14: Which is the largest district in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Lucknow
B) Allahabad
C) Lakhimpur Kheri
D) Saharanpur


Question 15: Which major fair is held in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Kumbh Mela
B) Surajkund Mela
C) Kite Festival
D) Dussehra Fair


Question 16: Who founded the city of Agra?

A) Bahlol Lodi
B) Firoz Tughlaq
C) Khizr Khan
D) Sikandar Lodi


Question 17: What is the main language of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Hindi
B) Urdu
C) English
D) Punjabi


Question 18: What are the major industries in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Textile
B) Information Technology
C) Agriculture
D) Automobile


Question 19: In which region of Uttar Pradesh is gold found?

A) Gomti – Ghaghra Rivers
B) Gomti – Sharda Rivers
C) Sharda – Ramganga Rivers
D) Sharda – Ghaghra Rivers


Question 20: What is the area of Uttar Pradesh?

a) 2,40,928 sq. km
b) 3,00,000 sq. km
c) 1,94,024 sq. km
d) 2,10,000 sq. km


Question 21: Where is the ‘Sangam’ located in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Ganga and Yamuna
B) Ganga and Yamunashar
C) Yamuna and Saraswati
D) Ganga and Gomti


Question 22: During which festival is the Kumbh Mela held in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Diwali
B) Holi
C) Magh Mela
D) Dussehra


Question 23: Which district in Uttar Pradesh is called the ‘Land of Saints’?

A) Mathura
B) Kanpur
C) Varanasi
D) Agra


Question 24: Which city in Uttar Pradesh is famous for the leather industry?

A) Saharanpur
B) Varanasi
C) Kanpur
D) Jhansi


Question 25: Where is Shri Kashi Vishwanath Temple located?

A) Ayodhya
B) Allahabad
C) Varanasi
D) Lucknow


Question 26: Which country shares a border with Uttar Pradesh?

A) Pakistan
B) Nepal
C) China
D) Bangladesh


Question 27: Through which major city does the Gomti River flow in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Lucknow
B) Varanasi
C) Kanpur
D) Allahabad


Question 28: Which district in Uttar Pradesh is famous for its ‘Tiger Reserve’?

A) Lakhimpur
B) Gorakhpur
C) Dudhwa
D) Sultanpur


Question 29: What is the state tree of Uttar Pradesh?

a) Peepal
b) Ashoka
c) Neem
d) Bael


Question 30: Which part of Uttar Pradesh is known as the ‘Sugarcane Belt’?

A) Purvanchal
B) Bundelkhand
C) Western Uttar Pradesh
D) Central Uttar Pradesh


Question 31: Which famous ‘bathing’ site is located in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Haridwar
B) Prayagraj
C) Rishikesh
D) Shirdi


Question 32: Which is the major commercial center of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Noida
B) Ghaziabad
C) Lucknow
D) Kanpur


Question 33: With which state does Uttar Pradesh share its southern border?

A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Bihar
C) Rajasthan
D) Uttarakhand


Question 34: In which place of Uttar Pradesh is the memory of ‘Rani Lakshmibai’ preserved?

A) Kanpur
B) Jhansi
C) Lucknow
D) Agra


Question 35: ‘Bodh Gaya’ in Uttar Pradesh is famous for which great personality?

A) Buddha
B) Mahavira
C) Ram
D) Krishna


Question 36: Which is a major ‘cultural site’ in Uttar Pradesh?

A) New Delhi
B) Banaras
C) Shimla
D) Kashmir


Question 37: In which city of Uttar Pradesh is ‘Hazratganj’ located?

A) Kanpur
B) Lucknow
C) Varanasi
D) Agra


Question 38: ‘Kaiserbagh’ in Uttar Pradesh is famous for which major landmark?

A) Historical Palace
B) Religious Site
C) Industrial Area
D) Museum


Question 39: What is the birthplace of ‘Sant Ravidas’ in Uttar Pradesh?

A) Varanasi
B) Lucknow
C) Allahabad
D) Agra


Question 40: The ‘Kannauj’ district of Uttar Pradesh is famous for which product?

A) Tea
B) Perfume
C) Knives
D) Cottage Industry


Question 41: Where is the Buland Darwaza located in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Kanpur
B) Delhi
C) Lucknow
D) Fatehpur Sikri


Question 42: The ‘Satavahana’ in Uttar Pradesh is related to which field?
A) Pandavas
B) Maurya
C) Buddhist
D) Rajput


Question 43: What is ‘Saharanpur’ in Uttar Pradesh famous for?
A) Tea
B) Wooden handicrafts
C) Cottage industries
D) Herbal medicines


Question 44: Vrindavan in Uttar Pradesh is famous for which religious site?
A) Krishna
B) Ram
C) Shiva
D) Ganesha


Question 45: What is ‘Hardoi’ in Uttar Pradesh famous for?
A) Tea
B) Flower cultivation
C) Religious sites
D) Cottage industries


Question 46: Uttar Pradesh’s ‘Mathura’ is famous for which major religious site?
A) Ganga
B) Krishna Janmabhoomi
C) Maheshwari
D) Ram Janmabhoomi


Question 47: Where is the ‘Secretariat’ in Uttar Pradesh located?
A) Allahabad
B) Lucknow
C) Varanasi
D) Agra


Question 48: Where is the High Court of Uttar Pradesh located?
A) Lucknow
B) Prayagraj
C) Agra
D) Meerut


Question 49: What is the main folk dance of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Dhobiya
B) Nautanki
C) Shayara
D) Neelam


Question 50: What is the headquarters of Gautam Buddha Nagar district?
A) Greater Noida
B) Ghaziabad
C) Ramabai Nagar
D) Noida


Question 51: Which is the highest dam in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Matatila
B) Meja
C) Rihand
D) Ramganga


Question 52: Where is the first open university of Uttar Pradesh located?
A) Agra
B) Jhansi
C) Prayagraj
D) Delhi


Important Days GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Important National and International Days GK MCQs Questions for Competitive Exams.
Medium: English

Important Days and Dates GK MCQs

Question 1: When is Republic Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 2nd October
C) 26th January
D) 14th November


Question 2: When is Independence Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 26th January
C) 2nd October
D) 5th September


Question 3: When is Gandhi Jayanti celebrated?

A) 5th September
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 1st May


Question 4: When is Teacher’s Day celebrated?

A) 5th September
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 26th January


Question 5: When is Children’s Day celebrated?

A) 2nd October
B) 14th November
C) 26th January
D) 1st May


Question 6: When is National Unity Day celebrated?

A) 31st October
B) 8th March
C) 5th September
D) 1st July


Question 7: When is Constitution Day celebrated?

A) 26th November
B) 15th August
C) 26th January
D) 14th April


Question 8: When is Doctor’s Day celebrated?

A) 1st July
B) 5th September
C) 14th November
D) 21st June


Question 9: When is International Women’s Day celebrated?

A) 8th March
B) 14th November
C) 31st October
D) 1st May


Question 10: When is World Environment Day celebrated?

A) 22nd April
B) 5th June
C) 1st July
D) 14th November

Question 11: When is International Workers’ Day celebrated?

A) 1 May
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 2 October

Question 12: When is National Science Day celebrated?

A) 28 February
B) 14 March
C) 5 June
D) 12 January

Question 13: When is International Yoga Day celebrated?

A) 21 June
B) 1 July
C) 15 August
D) 5 September

Question 14: When is National Youth Day celebrated?

A) 12 January
B) 5 September
C) 2 October
D) 26 January

Question 15: When is World AIDS Day celebrated?

A) 1 December
B) 14 November
C) 5 June
D) 31 March

Question 16: When is World Water Day celebrated?

A) 22 March
B) 5 June
C) 1 May
D) 8 March

Question 17: When is National Sports Day celebrated?

A) 29 August
B) 24 September
C) 15 August
D) 5 July

Question 18: When is World Population Day celebrated?

A) 11 July
B) 1 May
C) 14 November
D) 2 October

Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?

A) 22 April
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 July

Question 20: When is International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women celebrated?

A) 25 November
B) 8 March
C) 10 December
D) 5 June

Question 21: When is World Book Day celebrated?

A) 23 April
B) 22 March
C) 1 May
D) 14 November

Question 22: When is World Mother’s Day celebrated?

A) Second Sunday of May
B) 21 June
C) 14 November
D) 31 October

Question 23: When is World Peace Day celebrated?

A) 21 September
B) 1 May
C) 8 March
D) 31 December

Question 24: When is World Human Rights Day celebrated?

A) 10 December
B) 1 May
C) 5 June
D) 14 November

Question 25: When is International Labour Organization Day celebrated?

A) 28 April
B) 1 May
C) 8 March
D) 22 March

Question 26: When is World Food Day celebrated?

A) 16 October
B) 1 July
C) 22 April
D) 5 September

Question 27: When is National Safety Day celebrated?

A) 4 March
B) 15 August
C) 26 January
D) 5 September

Question 28: When is World Red Cross Day celebrated?

A) 8 May
B) 14 June
C) 1 December
D) 16 October

Question 29: When is World Blood Donor Day celebrated?

A) 14 June
B) 1 July
C) 5 June
D) 8 March

Question 30: When is International Nurses Day celebrated?

A) 12 May
B) 5 July
C) 14 November
D) 31 August

Question 31: When is World TB (Tuberculosis) Day celebrated?

A) 24 March
B) 5 June
C) 14 November
D) 1 July


Question 32: When is World Tiger Day celebrated?

A) 29 July
B) 5 June
C) 1 May
D) 21 June


Question 33: When is World Consumer Rights Day celebrated?

A) 15 March
B) 1 May
C) 2 October
D) 24 January


Question 34: When is International Literacy Day celebrated?

A) 8 September
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 July


Question 35: When is World Health Day celebrated?

A) 7 April
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 December


Question 36: When is World Hepatitis Day celebrated?

A) 28 July
B) 5 June
C) 14 November
D) 21 June


Question 37: When is World Malaria Day celebrated?

A) 25 April
B) 7 April
C) 1 May
D) 5 June


Question 38: When is International Family Day celebrated?

A) 15 May
B) 5 June
C) 14 April
D) 8 March


Question 39: When is World Cancer Day celebrated?

A) 4 February
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 8 March


Question 40: When is National Space Day celebrated in India?

A) 20 July
B) 23 August
C) 15 September
D) 4 October

Question 41: When is National Voters’ Day celebrated?

A) 25th January
B) 1st July
C) 14th November
D) 31st May

Question 42: When is World Sight Day celebrated?

A) Second Thursday of October
B) 5th June
C) 14th November
D) 1st May

Question 43: When is International Day of the Girl Child celebrated?

A) 11th October
B) 14th November
C) 8th March
D) 21st June

Question 44: When is Constitution Maker Day celebrated?

A) 26th November
B) 14th April
C) 15th August
D) 2nd October

Question 45: When is Universal Children’s Day celebrated?

A) 20th November
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 1st May

Question 46: When is International Day of Older Persons celebrated?

A) 1st October
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 5th September

Question 47: When is International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction celebrated?

A) Second Wednesday of October
B) 5th June
C) 31st May
D) 1st July

Question 48: When is Human Rights Day celebrated?

A) 10th December
B) 1st July
C) 14th November
D) 22nd March

Question 49: When is World Heart Day celebrated?

A) 29th September
B) 5th June
C) 31st May
D) 14th November

Question 50: When is World Hearing Day celebrated?

A) 3rd March
B) 5th June
C) 8th March
D) 14th November

Question 51: When is World Tourism Day celebrated?

A) 27th September
B) 1st May
C) 5th June
D) 14th November


Question 52: When is World Wildlife Day celebrated?

A) 3rd March
B) 5th June
C) 1st May
D) 21st June


Question 53: When is Hindi Day celebrated?

A) 14th September
B) 15th August
C) 26th January
D) 2nd October


Question 54: When is Partition Horrors Remembrance Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 14th August
C) 26th January
D) 2nd October


Question 55: When is Kargil Vijay Diwas celebrated?

A) 26th June
B) 26th July
C) 26th August
D) 26th September


Question 56: When is National Navy Day celebrated in India?

A) 26th January
B) 15th August
C) 4th December
D) 10th November


Question 57: When is International Ozone Day celebrated?

A) 5th June
B) 16th September
C) 22nd April
D) 10th December


Question 58: When is Farmer’s Day celebrated in India?

A) 26th January
B) 15th August
C) 23rd December
D) 5th June


Question 59: When is Biodiversity Day celebrated?

A) 22nd May
B) 5th July
C) 12th March
D) 28th February


Question 60: When is “Constitution Murder Day” observed?

A) 26th January
B) 25th June
C) 15th August
D) 2nd October

Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams for free online practice. Collection of Important previous year questions for preparation of upcoming SSC,RRB examinations.

Chemistry GK MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following dietary components provides the maximum energy per gram to humans?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Fats
C) Fibers
D) Proteins


Question 2: Which of the following is a noble gas?

A) Ozone
B) Nitrogen
C) Hydrogen
D) Helium


Question 3: Which of the following elements belongs to the d-block of the modern periodic table?

A) Na
B) Fe
C) Ca
D) Mg


Question 4: According to the modern periodic table, which element has the atomic number 30?

A) Co
B) Ni
C) Zn
D) Fe


Question 5: Which iron ore contains the highest amount of iron?

A) Magnetite
B) Hematite
C) Limonite
D) Siderite


Question 6: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the neutron?

A) Chadwick
B) Rutherford
C) Niels Bohr
D) Roentgen


Question 7: What is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris?

A) Calcium hypochlorite
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Calcium oxide
D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate


Question 8: What is the chemical formula of washing soda?

A) Na2SO4
B) Ca(OH)2
C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O
D) NaHCO3


Question 9: In a water molecule, what is the ratio of the masses of hydrogen and oxygen?

A) 1:4
B) 1:8
C) 1:16
D) 1:2


Question 10: α particles are doubly charged ions of ____________.

A) Beryllium
B) Hydrogen
C) Helium
D) Lithium

Question 11: What is the atomic number of Copper?

A) 29
B) 26
C) 30
D) 32


Question 12: What is the most common isotope of Oxygen?

A) O-16
B) O-17
C) O-18
D) O-19


Question 13: What is the chemical name of NH₃ (Ammonia)?

A) Nitrogen Trihydride
B) Hydrogen Nitride
C) Nitrogen Hydride
D) Hydrogen Trinitride


Question 14: What is the chemical symbol for Mercury?

A) Hg
B) Pb
C) Au
D) Ag


Question 15: Which acid is a harmful enzyme?

A) Hydrochloric Acid
B) Sulfuric Acid
C) Nitric Acid
D) Hydrofluoric Acid


Question 16: What is the approximate pH value of water?

A) 1
B) 7
C) 14
D) 9


Question 17: Which element exhibits metallic properties?

A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Calcium
D) Sulfur


Question 18: Which chemical is a strong acid?

A) Ethanol
B) Acetic Acid
C) Sulfuric Acid
D) Ammonia


Question 19: What is formed when carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in water?

A) Carbonic Acid
B) Hydrochloric Acid
C) Sulfuric Acid
D) Nitric Acid


Question 20: Which element has the highest relative atomic mass?

A) Hydrogen
B) Helium
C) Lithium
D) Uranium

Question 21: Which element remains in a gaseous state at room temperature?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Nitrogen
D) Gold


Question 22: Which metal is the lightest?

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium


Question 23: What is formed when hydrochloric acid and ammonia react?

A) Ammonium Chloride
B) Ammonium Hydroxide
C) Hydrogen Chloride
D) Hydrochloric Acid


Question 24: In chemistry, what does ‘pH’ stand for?

A) Measurement of acidity
B) Measurement of basicity
C) Measurement of gaseous state
D) Measurement of solid state


Question 25: Which acid is a natural acid found in fruits?

A) Sulfuric Acid
B) Acetic Acid
C) Citric Acid
D) Hydrochloric Acid


Question 26: Which element has only one electron in its outer shell?

A) Helium
B) Hydrogen
C) Lithium
D) Boron


Question 27: What is the atomic number of Iron (Fe)?

A) 20
B) 26
C) 29
D) 32


Question 28: What is the chemical symbol for Silver?

A) Ag
B) Au
C) Pb
D) Hg


Question 29: Which element is commonly found as a diatomic molecule?

A) Hydrogen
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Iron


Question 30: Which gas is produced during the oxidation and burning of water?

A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Carbon Dioxide

Question 31: Which acid is predominant in acid rain?

A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Sulfuric acid
C) Citric acid
D) Acetic acid


Question 32: Which chemical is used as a pesticide?

A) Cysteine
B) Chloroform
C) DDT
D) Aniline


Question 33: Which is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Argon


Question 34: Which element is most commonly used as a salt?

A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Iron


Question 35: What compound is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen?

A) Methane
B) Ammonia
C) Water
D) Carbon dioxide


Question 36: Which element is used in the production of atomic bombs?

A) Plutonium
B) Sodium
C) Boron
D) Magnesium


Question 37: Which substance is used to clean teeth?

A) Calcium carbonate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Silica
D) Glycerine


Question 38: Which substance is called ‘white poison’ in the diet?

A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Calcium


Question 39: Which chemical is used to preserve food?

A) Acetic acid
B) Sulfur dioxide
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Nitric acid


Question 40: Which substance is a good conductor of electricity?

A) Wood
B) Plastic
C) Copper
D) Rubber

Question 41: Which compound is found in oily color?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Potassium permanganate
C) Water
D) Sodium chloride


Question 42: What is the chemical symbol of Helium?

A) He
B) H
C) Hg
D) H₂


Question 43: Which chemical is used to extinguish fire?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Hydrogen
C) Ammonia
D) Sulfur


Question 44: Which element plays a significant role in DNA as an important biomolecule?

A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen


Question 45: Which element is used in radiotherapy?

A) Iodine
B) Sodium
C) Boron
D) Calcium


Question 46: Which chemical is used in burning and also found in fireworks?

A) Nitrogen
B) Potassium nitrate
C) Sodium chloride
D) Hydrochloric acid


Question 47: Which color indicator is used to identify acidic properties?

A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow


Question 48: Which substance dissolves in water but not in oil?

A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Flour
D) Fat


Question 49: What is the most common example of a hydrogen bond?

A) Ammonia
B) Water
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Methane


Question 50: Which element is used in batteries?

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Potassium


Question 51: Which element is used in making steel?

A) Carbon
B) Silicon
C) Zinc
D) Platinum


Question 52: Which element plays an important role in biological instruments?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Gold


Question 53: Which metal is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust?

A) Chromium
B) Zinc
C) Rhodium
D) Tin


Question 54: Bronze is an alloy of which of the following?

A) Copper and Zinc
B) Tin and Zinc
C) Copper and Tin
D) Iron and Zinc


Question 55: What is the bond called when electrons are shared between two elements?

A) Covalent bond
B) Hydrogen bond
C) Ionic bond
D) Dative bond


Question 56: The isotope of which element is used in cancer treatment?

A) Cobalt
B) Nickel
C) Aluminum
D) Iron


Question 57: A naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO is?

A) Acetophenone
B) Benzophenone
C) Propiophenone
D) Methcathinone


Question 58: What is the atomic mass of sodium?

A) 13
B) 23
C) 40
D) 12


Question 59: Which gas is produced when lead nitrate is heated?

A) Nitrogen dioxide
B) Lead dioxide
C) Lead oxide
D) Nitrogen oxide


Question 60: Which chemical element from group 18 of the periodic table is produced in soil and rocks due to the natural radioactive decay of uranium?

A) Radon
B) Neon
C) Krypton
D) Oganesson

Biology GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Biology – General Science MCQs for GK paper in competitive exams. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free online practice.

Biology GK MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following is commonly known as a blood thinner?

A) Coagulation inhibitor
B) Antibiotic
C) Immunosuppressant
D) Anticoagulant


Question 2: Bile is stored in a sac called __________.

A) Gallbladder
B) Urinary bladder
C) Pancreas
D) Liver


Question 3: What is the pH of human blood?

A) 7.4
B) 10
C) 6.5
D) 5.8


Question 4: Which of the following plant kingdom groups is known as algae?

A) Bryophyta
B) Thallophyta
C) Angiosperm
D) Pteridophyta


Question 5: Deficiency of which vitamin causes swollen neck glands?

A) Vitamin C
B) Iodine
C) Calcium
D) Vitamin D


Question 6: Which of the following belongs to the Platyhelminthes classification under the kingdom Animalia?

A) Tapeworm
B) Leech
C) Wuchereria
D) Sycon


Question 7: In the cytoplasm, ribosomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus are examples of __________.

A) Organs
B) Cells
C) Organelles
D) Tissues


Question 8: What is the normal body temperature of humans?

A) 98.6°C
B) 98.6°F
C) 37°F
D) 40°C


Question 9: In which part of the plant does the process of respiration occur?

A) Roots
B) Stem
C) Leaves
D) Flowers


Question 10: How many major systems are there in the human body?

A) 7
B) 10
C) 12
D) 5

Question 11: What is the full form of DNA?

A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
B) Deoxyribonucleotide Acid
C) Deoxyribonuclear Acid
D) Deoxynucleic Acid


Question 12: By which process do herbivorous plants prepare food?

A) Respiration
B) Photosynthesis
C) Maturation
D) Regeneration


Question 13: Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Pituitary Gland
D) Thyroid


Question 14: What is an enzyme?

A) A type of vitamin
B) A type of acid
C) A type of protein
D) A type of mineral


Question 15: What is the function of papillae?

A) Digesting food
B) Regulating body temperature
C) Detoxifying the body
D) Solidifying blood


Question 16: Which cell has a cell membrane?

A) Animal cell
B) Plant cell
C) Bacterial cell
D) All cells


Question 17: Which organ is not part of the central nervous system?

A) Brain
B) Spinal cord
C) Nerve
D) Brain and spinal cord


Question 18: Where is energy produced in a cell?

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Chloroplast
D) Ribosome


Question 19: Where is cartilage found?

A) In bones
B) In the skin
C) In the blood
D) In the nails


Question 20: Which enzyme aids in chemical digestion?

A) Pancreatic lipase
B) Lactase
C) Amylase
D) All

Question 21: Which gas is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Hydrogen

Question 22: Where is a virus found?

A) Microorganisms
B) Plants
C) Animals
D) Bacteria

Question 23: In which organ does the first digestion of food occur?

A) Stomach
B) Mouth
C) Intestine
D) Esophagus

Question 24: What is the study of microorganisms called?

A) Biology
B) Microbiology
C) Physiology
D) Ecology

Question 25: Which organ purifies the blood?

A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Lungs

Question 26: Which part of the papillary helps in digestion?

A) Gastric juice
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Pepsin
D) All of the above

Question 27: What is not present in living cells?

A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Lysosomes
D) Volcans

Question 28: What condition arises due to a lack of oxygen?

A) Hypoxia
B) Hyperthermia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypothermia

Question 29: What is the main organ for food transportation in plants?

A) Roots
B) Leaves
C) Stem
D) Flowers

Question 30: How many major types of cells are there in human blood?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 31: What controls cognitive functions?

A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Kidneys
D) Liver

Question 32: What is the function of genes?

A) Digestion of food
B) Production of energy
C) Storage of genetic information
D) Formation of blood

Question 33: What is the function of mitochondria?

A) Production of energy
B) Protein synthesis
C) Cell division
D) Cell structure

Question 34: What type of organism are bacteria?

A) Unicellular
B) Multicellular
C) Viruses
D) Fungi

Question 35: During which stage of the nutrition process is the most energy obtained?

A) Digestion of carbohydrates
B) Digestion of proteins
C) Digestion of fats
D) All equally

Question 36: Which gland plays a major role in body growth?

A) Thyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Pancreas
D) Liver

Question 37: Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin C

Question 38: What type of antibodies are found in blood group A?

A) B antibodies
B) A antibodies
C) AB antibodies
D) O antibodies

Question 39: What studies the ecosystem?

A) Zoology
B) Botany
C) Ecology
D) Microbiology

Question 40: What is a neuron?

A) Blood cell
B) Nerve cell
C) Digestive cell
D) Liver cell

Question 41: Which organ produces hormones?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Kidneys


Question 42: Which organ plays a major role in the process of respiration?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys


Question 43: In the digestive system, which organ produces digestive enzymes?

A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Stomach
D) Intestine


Question 44: Which organ in plant cells assists in photosynthesis?

A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Ribosome
D) Nucleus


Question 45: What is the largest organ in the human body?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Skin
D) Kidneys


Question 46: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease?

A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Pellagra
D) Burkitt’s


Question 47: What is the largest cell in the human body?

A) Human Egg
B) Red Blood Cell
C) Liver Cell
D) Nerve Cell


Question 48: What is considered the best sensory organ?

A) Eye
B) Ear
C) Skin
D) Nose


Question 49: Which nutrient is most essential for nutrition?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
C) Fats
D) Vitamins


Question 50: What is the name of the plant hormone that regulates growth?

A) Ethylene
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Gibberellin


Question 51: Which organ regulates blood pressure?

A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Lungs

Question 52: What is the study of the remains of organisms called?

A) Paleontology
B) Genetics
C) Ecology
D) Microbiology


Question 53: What part is included in the structure of a virus?

A) Nucleus
B) Protein coat
C) Mitochondria
D) Chloroplast


Question 54: Which part of the plant absorbs water?

A) Leaves
B) Stem
C) Roots
D) Flowers


Question 55: What does Maltase digest?

A) Proteins
B) Fats
C) Carbohydrates
D) Vitamins


Question 56: In which part of the body does fat digestion occur?

A) Stomach
B) Intestine
C) Liver
D) Kidneys


Question 57: Which organ plays a major role in drug absorption?

A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Intestine
D) Liver


Question 58: Where are RBCs produced in the body?

A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Bone marrow
D) Liver


Question 59: What is the most important organ in the process of respiration?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys


Question 59: Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

A) Louis Pasteur
B) Charles Darwin
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Robert Hooke


Question 60: Which organ is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

A) Bone marrow
B) Heart
C) Brain
D) Lungs

Environment GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

Environment General Knowledge (GK) MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams.
Medium: English
Important Questions from previous year exam papers.

Question 1: What is the biotic component of the environment and ecology?

A) Soil
B) Water
C) Air
D) Vegetation


Question 2: What is an example of a natural ecosystem?

A) Farmland
B) Dam
C) Lake
D) Park


Question 3: What are herbivores called?

A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Tertiary consumers


Question 4: What is the primary source of energy in an ecosystem?

A) Geothermal energy
B) Sun
C) Greenhouse gases
D) Moon


Question 5: Which plant species is classified as endangered in India?

A) Mango
B) Sheesham
C) Teak
D) Sandalwood


Question 6: Where is Kaziranga National Park located?

A) Uttarakhand
B) Assam
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Nagaland


Question 7: What is the major source of carbon dioxide emissions?

A) Fossil fuel combustion
B) Animal respiration
C) Volcanic activity
D) Marshlands


Question 8: What is the major impact of deforestation?

A) Soil erosion
B) Weed control
C) Reduction in sunlight
D) Increase in grazing land


Question 9: What is a natural source of nitrous oxide gas?

A) Desert soils
B) Polar soils
C) Temperate soils
D) Tropical soils


Question 10: How do forests help control drought?

A) Forests prevent soil erosion.
B) Forests contribute to rainfall.
C) Forests contain many aquatic plants.
D) Forests act as water reservoirs.

Question 11: Which is the only carbon-neutral country in the world?

A) Sweden
B) New Zealand
C) Finland
D) Canada


Question 12: The cause of global warming is:

A) Decrease in carbon dioxide
B) Increase in carbon dioxide
C) Increase in forests
D) None of these


Question 13: Which greenhouse gas is produced by ruminant animals?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water vapor
C) Methane (CH4)
D) Nitrous oxide


Question 14: Which pollutant gas is emitted by vehicles?

A) Hydrocarbons
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Nitrogen oxides


Question 15: Air pollution can be reduced by:

A) Sunlight
B) Trees
C) Restricting loudspeakers
D) None of these


Question 16: The “Harela Festival” celebrated in Uttarakhand is related to:

A) Water conservation
B) Tree plantation
C) Ozone protection
D) None of these


Question 17: Which country experiences the most acid rain?

A) Japan
B) China
C) Norway
D) United States of America


Question 18: The ozone layer absorbs harmful rays known as:

A) Gamma rays
B) Ultraviolet rays
C) X-rays
D) None of these


Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?

A) March 22
B) April 22
C) June 5
D) August 15


Question 20: When was the Environmental Protection Act implemented?

A) 1972
B) 1986
C) 1992
D) 2000

Question 21: Which pollutant causes damage to the ozone layer?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
D) Sulfur dioxide


Question 22: Which gas is not considered a greenhouse gas?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrous oxide


Question 23: What is the largest source of plant life?

A) Desert
B) Ocean
C) Forest
D) Grassland


Question 24: What is natural vegetation?

A) Plants planted by humans
B) Naturally growing plants
C) Agricultural plants
D) Decorative plants


Question 25: What does the Red Data Book provide information about?

A) New species of plants
B) Endangered and extinct species
C) Medicinal plants
D) Food plants


Question 26: Which process is not a part of the water cycle?

A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Nitrification
D) Precipitation


Question 27: Which instrument is not used for environmental studies?

A) Barometer
B) Seismograph
C) Hygrometer
D) Galvanometer


Question 28: What is the most important role of biodiversity?

A) Energy production
B) Ecological balance
C) Industrial development
D) Urbanization


Question 29: Which gas is most responsible for the greenhouse effect?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium


Question 30: By which process does water vapor reach the atmosphere?

A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Nitrification

Question 31: Which fuel is less polluting?

A) Coal
B) Diesel
C) Natural Gas
D) Petrol


Question 32: What does the term “carbon footprint” mean?

A) Carbon accumulation
B) Carbon production
C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization
D) Carbon usage


Question 33: Which element is most essential for life on Earth?

A) Carbon
B) Nitrogen
C) Water
D) Oxygen


Question 34: Which process affects vegetation and drainage?

A) Erosion
B) Reforestation
C) Degradation
D) Afforestation


Question 35: Which factor is not involved in natural disasters?

A) Earthquake
B) Flood
C) Cyclone
D) Afforestation


Question 36: Which gas is found in the highest amount in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Helium


Question 37: Which gas is present in the smallest percentage in Earth’s atmosphere?

A) Nitrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Argon


Question 38: Which environmental pollutant causes acid rain?

A) Carbon Monoxide
B) Sulfur Dioxide
C) Methane
D) Nitrogen


Question 39: Which process helps maintain environmental balance?

A) Urbanization
B) Industrialization
C) Reforestation
D) Afforestation


Question 40: What is the main cause of climate change?

A) Solar activities
B) Natural disasters
C) Greenhouse gas emissions
D) The position of the moon

Question 41: Which process produces oxygen?

A) Respiration
B) Evaporation
C) Photosynthesis
D) Nitrification


Question 42: Which natural resource is not renewable?

A) Solar energy
B) Water energy
C) Coal
D) Wind energy


Question 43: Which organization works on issues related to climate change?

A) WHO
B) IMF
C) IPCC
D) UNESCO


Question 44: Which process is not a part of the carbon cycle?

A) Respiration
B) Weathering
C) Combustion
D) Condensation


Question 45: Which process causes water pollution?

A) Erosion
B) Excessive use of fertilizers
C) Condensation
D) Afforestation


Question 46: Which waste is not recyclable?

A) Plastic
B) Paper
C) Glass
D) Organic waste


Question 47: Which process helps in preventing global warming?

A) Combustion
B) Industrialization
C) Afforestation
D) Urbanization


Question 48: Which gas causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium


Question 49: Which is a key component of the ecosystem?

A) Water
B) Atmosphere
C) Soil
D) All of the above


Question 50: Which process harms the environment?

A) Afforestation
B) Reforestation
C) Combustion
D) Water conservation

Question 51: What is the main cause of climate change?

A) Natural disasters
B) Emission of greenhouse gases
C) Solar activities
D) Moon’s position


Question 52: Which process helps in purifying the environment?

A) Urbanization
B) Industrialization
C) Reclamation
D) Afforestation


Question 53: What is the primary function of the ozone layer?

A) To heat the Earth
B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun
C) To promote rainfall
D) To cool the atmosphere


Question 54: Which gas damages the ozone layer?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)


Question 55: What is the full form of CNG?

A) Compound Natural Gas
B) Compressed Natural Gas
C) Complete Natural Gas
D) Natural Gas


Question 56: Where is the National Environmental Research Institute located?

A) Bhopal
B) Lucknow
C) Nagpur (Maharashtra)
D) Delhi


Question 57: In which category do various types of fungi fall?

A) Producers
B) Consumers
C) Decomposers
D) Abiotic


Question 58: Which country has the highest biodiversity?

A) Germany
B) India
C) China
D) South Africa


Question 59: Which disease has increased due to ozone layer depletion and ozone holes?

A) Malaria
B) AIDS
C) Cholera
D) Skin cancer


Question 60: Sound pollution is measured in:

A) Fathom
B) Decibels
C) Tons
D) Kilograms

Question 61: The specific cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called _______.

A) Agriculture
B) Horticulture
C) Sericulture
D) Fish farming

Indian Polity and Constitution MCQ for Competitive Exams

Indian Polity and Constitution GK MCQ questions answers in English for Competitive exams. Important MCQs on Political Science from previous year exam papers of SSC, UPSC examinations.

Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs

Q.1: Which of the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Alladi Krishnaswamy
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Gopalachari Ayyngar


Q.2: Constitutional monarchy means:
(A) The king writes the constitution
(B) The king interprets the constitution
(C) The king exercises powers granted by the constitution
(D) The king is elected by the people


Q.3: When was the first Central Legislative Assembly formed?
(A) 1922
(B) 1923
(C) 1921
(D) 1920


Q.4: The Constitution of India describes India as:
(A) A federation
(B) Semi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Union of States


Q.5: The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ is a characteristic of the constitutional system of:
(A) Britain
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Switzerland


Q.6: The method of amending the constitution through a popular veto is found in:
(A) Britain
(B) Switzerland
(C) Russia
(D) India


Q.7: Which of the following is an essential feature of the parliamentary system of government?
(A) Flexibility of the constitution
(B) Fusion of executive and legislature
(C) Judicial supremacy
(D) Parliamentary sovereignty


Q.8: Grassroots democracy relates to:
(A) Devolution of powers
(B) Decentralization of powers
(C) Panchayati Raj system
(D) All of the above


Q.9: The objective of democratic socialism is to:
(A) Bring socialism through peaceful means
(B) Bring socialism through both violent and peaceful means
(C) Bring socialism through violent means
(D) Bring socialism through democratic means


Q.10: Which judge declared that ‘secularism’ and ‘federalism’ are basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati case
(B) S.R. Bommai case
(C) Indira Sawhney case
(D) Minerva Mills case


Q.11: Universal adult suffrage reflects that India is a country that is:
(A) Secular
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Sovereign


Q.12: The Constitution of India came into force in:
(A) 1951
(B) 1956
(C) 1950
(D) 1949


Q.13: The Government of India Act, 1935, was based on:
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Lord Curzon Commission
(C) Dimitrov Thesis
(D) Lord Clive’s Report


Q.14: Who called the Government of India Act, 1935, the new charter of bondage?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) B.R. Ambedkar


Q.15: Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Q.16: Which of the following is an essential element of the state?
(A) Sovereignty
(B) Government
(C) Territory
(D) All of these

Q.17: Which is the most important system in a democracy?
(A) Social
(B) Political
(C) Economic
(D) Governmental

Q.18: Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution?
(A) Preamble
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part I

Q.19: The phrase ‘equality before law’ in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Greece

Q.20: The thinking and ideals of the Constitution makers are reflected in:
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy

Q.21: Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary form of government
(B) Independence of judiciary
(C) Presidential form of government
(D) Federal government

Q.22: What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right against Exploitation
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Religious Freedom

Q.23: The concept of single citizenship in India is adopted from:
(A) England
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) France

Q.24: The method of impeachment of the President of India is adopted from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) France

Q.25: What was the basis for the formation of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A) Mountbatten Plan
B) Cabinet Mission Plan
C) Indian National Congress
D) Simla Agreement

Q.26: Which of the following can be called a ‘secular’ state?
(A) A state that follows a particular religion
(B) A state that is anti-religion
(C) A state that does not discriminate between religions
(D) A state that accepts all religions as the state religion


Q.27: Initially, how many Fundamental Rights were provided?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Four
(D) Five


Q.28: Which type of equality is not in line with the ideals of a liberal state?
(A) Legal equality
(B) Political equality
(C) Social equality
(D) Economic equality


Q.29: What does political freedom mean?
(A) People’s control over the government
(B) Free political activities of the people
(C) Cooperation between politics and democracy
(D) Voters can form and dismiss their government


Q.30: Which of the following is included in the list of fundamental duties of Indian citizens in the Constitution?
(A) Practicing secularism
(B) Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(C) Regularly and correctly paying all taxes to the government
(D) Not attacking any public servant while performing their duties


Q.31: When were Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
(A) 1975
(B) 1976
(C) 1977
(D) 1979


Q.32: The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country’s constitution?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) USSR
(D) None of these


Q.33: Which of the following is a political right?
(A) Right to work
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to freedom of expression
(D) Right to vote


Q.34: The provisions of citizenship in the Indian Constitution came into force in: (A) 1950
(B) 1949
(C) 1951
(D) 1952


Q.35: What does social justice mean?
(A) Everyone should have equal economic rights.
(B) Everyone should have equal political rights.
(C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated.
(D) Everyone should be given the right to religious freedom.


Q.36: The right to vote falls under which category?
(A) Human rights
(B) Civil rights
(C) Natural rights
(D) Political rights


Q.37: Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(A) Justice
(B) Fraternity
(C) Equality of status
(D) Adult suffrage


Q.38: At what age can Indian citizens vote?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 22 years
(D) 25 years


Q.39: According to the Preamble, ultimate power lies in the hands of:
(A) Parliament
(B) Constitution
(C) President
(D) People


Q.40: Dual citizenship is a key feature of which type of government?
(A) Parliamentary
(B) Federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Authoritarian


Q.41: ‘Dual citizenship’ is a feature of:
(A) Unitary government
(B) Federal government
(C) Parliamentary government
(D) Presidential government


Q.42: Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?
(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
(B) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
(C) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
(D) State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)


Q.43: According to the Indian Constitution, the right to property is a:
(A) Fundamental right
(B) Natural right
(C) Legal right
(D) Moral right


Q.44: The success of democracy depends on:
(A) Right to criticize
(B) Right of association
(C) Right to personal liberty
(D) Right to property


Q.45: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the constitution of:
(A) Britain
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada


Q.46: How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 1
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 8


Q.47: The Directive Principles of State Policy were adopted from:
(A) British Constitution
(B) Swiss Constitution
(C) American Constitution
(D) Irish Constitution


Q.48: When were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens included in the Constitution?
(A) 1952
(B) 1976
(C) 1979
(D) 1981


Q.49: The Directive Principles included in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the constitution of:
(A) Australia
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada


Q.50: During whose rule was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Indira Gandhi government
(B) Morarji Desai government
(C) Narasimha Rao government
(D) Vajpayee government

World Geography GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

World Geography GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for Competitive Exams. Important questions selected from previous year exam questions papers of SSC, UPSC and other examinations.

World Geography MCQ

Q.1: Which of the following countries has the longest underground tunnel?
(A) Germany
(B) Switzerland
(C) Spain
(D) France

Q.2: Which of the following holds over 50% of the world’s coal reserves?
(A) USA, Russia, and China
(B) China, India, and Russia
(C) India, Russia, and the USA
(D) China, India, and the USA

Q.3: The Panama Canal was constructed in
(A) 1869 AD
(B) 1980 AD
(C) 1905 AD
(D) 1914 AD

Q.4: Which is the hottest place on Earth?
(A) Death Valley-California
(B) El Azizia-Libya
(C) Jacobabad-Pakistan
(D) Atacama-Peru

Q.5: What was the name of the cyclone that caused devastation in Bangladesh?
(A) Shary
(B) Sidr
(C) Wendy
(D) Erin

Q.6: What is the longest mountain range on Earth?
(A) Andes Mountains
(B) Mid-Atlantic Ridge
(C) Western Cordillera
(D) Himalayan Range

Q.7: The Sunda Trench is located in:
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Gulf of Mexico

Q.8: Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
(A) Mites
(B) Humidity
(C) Insects
(D) Rodents

Q.9: The lake created by the Aswan Dam in Africa is:
(A) Chad
(B) Victoria
(C) Nasser
(D) Tanganyika

Q.10: The temperate grasslands of North America are called
(A) Pampas
(B) Downs
(C) Steppes
(D) Prairies

Q.11: The Panama Canal differs from the Suez Canal as it has:
(A) A lock system
(B) A shorter route
(C) A busier route
(D) A less busy route

Q.12: Llanos grasslands are found in:
(A) Guiana Highlands
(B) Brazilian Highlands
(C) Argentina
(D) Chile

Q.13: Approximately what percentage of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest?
(A) 2 percent
(B) 7 percent
(C) 10 percent
(D) 15 percent

Q.14: Which continent is located in both the Northern-Southern and Eastern-Western hemispheres?
(A) Australia
(B) Africa
(C) Europe
(D) South America

Q.15: The Sahara is located in which part of Africa?
(A) Eastern
(B) Western
(C) Northern
(D) Southern

Q.16: The longest river in the world is:
(A) Ganges
(B) Nile
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Amazon

Q.17: Which city is the capital of the desert country Mali?
(A) Damascus
(B) Bamako
(C) Adrar
(D) Ankara

Q.18: Peshawar is near:
(A) Karakoram Pass
(B) Zoji La Pass
(C) Namika-La Pass
(D) Khyber Pass

Q.19: The highest airport (4411 meters above sea level) is:
(A) Daocheng Yading Airport
(B) Heathrow Airport
(C) Kathmandu Airport
(D) Bangda Airport

Q.20: ‘Yosemite’ is:
(A) A river
(B) A peak
(C) A waterfall
(D) A dam

Q.21: Which strait separates Australia and Tasmania?
(A) Bass
(B) Bab-el-Mandeb
(C) Palk
(D) Bering

Q.22: The world’s largest coral reef is found off the coast of:
(A) Brazil
(B) Australia
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Cuba

Q.23: The longest river in Europe is:
(A) Rhine
(B) Rhone
(C) Danube
(D) Volga

Q.24: Asia and North America are separated by:
(A) Bass Strait
(B) Dover Strait
(C) Bering Strait
(D) Cook Strait

Q.25: The Grand Canyon is located on which river?
(A) Colorado
(B) Columbia
(C) Ohio
(D) Mississippi

Q.26: On September 23, when day and night are of equal length worldwide, it is called:
(A) Autumnal Equinox
(B) Celestial Equinox
(C) Winter Equinox
(D) Spring Equinox

Q.27: The region famous for various types of wine and champagne is:
(A) Eastern Europe
(B) Western Europe
(C) Mediterranean
(D) Grasslands

Q.28: The river with the largest water flow in the world is:
(A) Huang-Ho
(B) Amazon
(C) Zaire
(D) Nile

Q.29: The world’s largest delta is:
(A) Sundarbans
(B) Amazon Basin
(C) Greenland
(D) Congo Basin

Q.30: The canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is:
(A) Suez
(B) Malacca
(C) Panama
(D) Gibraltar

Q.31: The strait connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea is:
(A) Panama Strait
(B) Suez Strait
(C) Palk Strait
(D) Bering Strait

Q.32: The temperate grasslands of South America are called:
(A) Prairies
(B) Pampas
(C) Downs
(D) Steppes

Q.33: Volcanic activity is most common in:
(A) Hawaii
(B) Japan
(C) Columbia
(D) New Zealand

Q.34: The world’s largest freshwater lake is:
(A) Lake Victoria
(B) Lake Michigan
(C) Lake Balkhash
(D) Lake Superior

Q.35: Which of the following volcanoes is located in Mexico?
(A) Colima
(B) Purace
(C) Semeru
(D) Etna

Q.36: In July 2007, the highest peak of Halmahera Island, Mount Gamkonora Volcano, erupted in which country?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

Q.37: The Black Forest is found in:
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Czechoslovakia
(D) Romania

Q.38: Greenland, the world’s largest island, is an integral part of:
(A) Norway
(B) North America
(C) Denmark
(D) Canada

Q.39: Kangaroos, platypuses, and koala bears are wildlife native to:
(A) Australia
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Africa

Q.40: Which of the following regions has no rainfall at any time of the year?
(A) Central Europe
(B) Central North America
(C) Polar region
(D) Sub-Saharan region

Q.41: The world’s tallest gravity dam is:
(A) Beas Dam
(B) Nangal Dam
(C) Bhakra Dam
(D) Hirakud Dam

Q.42: “The climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic herders.” This statement is true for which region?
(A) African Savannah
(B) Central Asian Steppes
(C) Siberian Tundra
(D) North American Prairies

Q.43: The world’s largest desert is:
(A) Arabian
(B) Kalahari
(C) Sahara
(D) Thar

Q.44: Which two countries are connected by an underwater tunnel?
(A) England and Spain
(B) Malaysia and Singapore
(C) England and Belgium
(D) France and England

Q.45: The world’s largest archipelago country is:
(A) Philippines
(B) Indonesia
(C) Sweden
(D) Greenland

Q.46: Which of the following is a landlocked sea?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea


Q.47: Where is the Normandy beach located?
(A) France
(B) Netherlands
(C) Spain
(D) Belgium


Q.48: ‘Dykes’ are specifically constructed in:
(A) Norway
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) United Kingdom


Q.49: Colorado in America is famous for this landform _______________
(A) Grand Canyon
(B) Grand Craters
(C) Great Valleys
(D) Great Basin


Q.50: The largest island in the world is:
(A) New Guinea
(B) Madagascar
(C) Greenland
(D) Iceland

Physics GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

Physics (General Physics science) GK MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs selected from the previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.

Physics GK MCQ Questions in English

Q.1: If the velocity of a moving object increases by 1.5 times, its kinetic energy will:
A) Increase by 1.5 times.
B) Increase by 3 times.
C) Increase by 2.25 times.
D) Increase by 6 times.


Q.2: Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquakes?
A) Richter Scale
B) Metric Scale
C) Centigrade Scale
D) Newton Scale


Q.3: When a bottle of scent is opened in a corner of a room, its fragrance spreads to all parts of the room due to?
A) Evaporation
B) Absorption
C) Diffusion
D) Sublimation


Q.4: When a ray of light passes from one medium to another, its?
A) Wavelength remains constant
B) Frequency remains constant
C) Frequency increases
D) None of these


Q.5: The unit of resistance is?
A) Ampere
B) Coulomb
C) Henry
D) Ohm


Q.6: What is the unit of a light-year?
A) Intensity of light
B) Time
C) Distance
D) Speed of light


Q.7: Who invented the telescope?
A) Galileo
B) Gutenberg
C) Edison
D) Graham Bell


Q.8: What type of mirror is used by a dentist to examine a patient’s teeth?
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) Cylindrical


Q.9: Which of the following is not a unit of heat?
A) Calorie
B) Kilocalorie
C) Kilojoule
D) Watt


Q.10: What is used to correct farsightedness?
A) Concave lens
B) Convex lens
C) Convex mirror
D) Concave mirror

Q.11: Which instrument is used to measure the humidity of the air?
A) Hygrometer
B) Hydrometer
C) Manometer
D) Odometer


Q.12: Why is red color used as an emergency or danger signal?
A) It is an attractive color
B) It has the longest wavelength
C) It is scattered
D) It has the highest energy


Q.13: What is the velocity of the fastest object?
A) Speed of sound
B) Speed of light
C) Speed of an electron
D) Speed of an atom


Q.14: What is the unit of speed?
A) Newton
B) Watt
C) Meter/second
D) Joule


Q.15: What is the standard unit of volume?
A) Kilogram
B) Second
C) Liter
D) Meter


Q.16: What is the difference between displacement and distance?
A) Displacement is always greater than distance
B) Displacement is a scalar quantity, while distance is a vector quantity
C) Displacement is a vector, while distance is a scalar
D) Both are the same


Q.17: Who gave the laws of motion?
A) Newton
B) Galileo
C) Einstein
D) Darwin


Q.18: What is Newton’s third law of motion?
A) An object will maintain its state unless acted upon by an external force
B) The direction and magnitude of force are always the same
C) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
D) The magnitude of force is proportional to the mass of an object


Q.19: What form of energy is converted in solar panels?
A) Mechanical energy
B) Kinetic energy
C) Electrical energy
D) Thermal energy


Q.20: What does the speed of sound depend on?
A) Air pressure
B) Air temperature
C) Air humidity
D) All of the above

Q.21: What causes gravitational force?
A) Mass
B) Friction
C) Reflection
D) Motion


Q. 22: What is thermal energy related to?
A) Temperature
B) Motion
C) Velocity
D) Force


Q.23: What is the unit of electric current?
A) Watt
B) Ohm
C) Ampere
D) Volt


Q.24: How is electrical resistance calculated?
A) Ohm’s Law
B) Newton’s Law
C) Galileo’s Law
D) Hooke’s Law


Q.25: In which state is the speed of sound the greatest?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) All of the above


Q.26: What is the unit of magnetic force?
A) Newton
B) Kilogram
C) Tesla
D) Watt


Q.27: What travels at the same speed as light?
A) Electron
B) Proton
C) Neutron
D) Photon


Q.28: Who gave the principle of induction?
A) Michael Faraday
B) James Clerk Maxwell
C) Luigi Galvani
D) Albert Einstein


Q.29: What is the unit of energy conversion?
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Volt
D) Meter


Q.30: What does ‘molecular motion’ refer to in physics?
A) Overall motion of particles
B) Intrinsic motion of molecules
C) Mechanical motion of an object
D) Motion of force

Q.31: What is the difference between speed and velocity?
A) Speed is only magnitude, while velocity has direction.
B) Speed and velocity are the same.
C) Velocity is only magnitude, while speed has direction.
D) Speed has direction, while velocity is only magnitude.


Q.32: What is the unit for measuring mass?
A) Kilogram
B) Meter
C) Joule
D) Watt


Q.33: What is the unit of speed?
A) Meter/second
B) Kilogram/meter
C) Newton
D) Watt


Q.34: What is the unit of frequency for sound waves?
A) Hertz
B) Newton
C) Watt
D) Joule


Q.35: Which property of light is responsible for polarization?
A) Wave nature
B) Particle nature
C) Motion
D) Sound


Q.36: In which state of matter is the speed of sound the greatest?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) All of the above


Q.37: What is the definition of gravitational force?
A) The attractive force between two objects
B) The repulsive force between two objects
C) The sustainability of an object
D) The motion of an object


Q.38: How many laws are there in thermodynamics?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five


Q.39: What is the formula for electric current?
A) Voltage/Resistance
B) Voltage × Resistance
C) Voltage/Current
D) Resistance × Current


Q.40: In which field is resonance used?
A) Radio
B) Chemistry
C) Biology
D) Mathematics

Q. 41: What is the property of vibration known as?
A) Frequency
B) Voltage
C) Resistance
D) Temperature


Q.42: What is the fundamental principle of the table theory?
A) The relationship between the frequency of a wave and its speed
B) The relationship between force and motion of an object
C) The relationship between electric current and resistance
D) The relationship between the speed of sound and temperature


Q.43: What are the two main types of mechanical energy?
A) Kinetic and Potential
B) Thermal and Electrical
C) Sound and Light
D) Mass and Force


Q.44: What is the formula for electrical power?
A) Voltage × Current
B) Current × Resistance
C) Voltage / Current
D) Voltage / Resistance


Q.45: Traditionally, what type of waves are sound waves?
A) Three-dimensional
B) Two-dimensional
C) One-dimensional
D) All


Q.46: What is the mathematical formula for displacement?
A) Final position – Initial position
B) Final position + Initial position
C) Distance × Time
D) Time / Distance


Q.47: Which type of energy is lost during the cooling process?
A) Mechanical energy
B) Thermal energy
C) Electrical energy
D) Chemical energy


Q.48: What determines the direction of displacement?
A) Direction of motion
B) Direction of force
C) Initial and final position
D) All


Q.49: Which law of thermodynamics states the principle of energy conservation?
A) First law
B) Second law
C) Third law
D) Fourth law


Question 50: Who proposed the theory of emission?
A) Herschel
B) Planck
C) Henry
D) Newton


Q.51: What happens when force is applied in the direction of motion?
A) Speed increases
B) Speed decreases
C) Speed remains constant
D) No effect


Q.52: What is the definition of electrical resistance?
A) The ability to resist current
B) The ability to conduct current
C) Voltage capacity
D) Energy capacity


Q.53: At what frequency do sound waves have the most energy?
A) High frequency
B) Low frequency
C) Medium frequency
D) All the same


Q.54: Which law of Newton is used to calculate motion?
A) First law
B) Second law
C) Third law
D) All


Q.55: Which law describes the relationship between mass and force?
A) Newton’s first law
B) Newton’s second law
C) Newton’s third law
D) Newton’s fourth law

Q.56: What is involved in the maximum displacement of an object?
A) Work
B) Force
C) Energy
D) Speed

Q.57: What does the speed of sound not depend on?
A) Type of medium
B) Temperature
C) Frequency of sound
D) Amplitude of sound

Q.58: What is the Table Theory related to?
A) Properties of waves
B) Properties of sound
C) Properties of electricity
D) Properties of light

Q.59: What type of laws are the laws of motion?
A) Static
B) Diffraction
C) Mechanical
D) Electrical

Q.60: What is the unit of sound intensity?
A) Decibel
B) Hertz
C) Watt
D) Joule

Q.61: What type of energy is electricity?
A) Thermal
B) Mechanical
C) Chemical
D) Electrical

Indian Economy GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

Indian Economy GK MCQ Question answer for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs on Economics of India from previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.

Medium : English

Indian Economy MCQ in English

Q.1: Which Five-Year Plan’s objectives were influenced by the Gadgil Formula in India?
(A) Second Five-Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five-Year Plan
(C) Third Five-Year Plan
(D) Seventh Five-Year Plan


Q.2: When was the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) established?
(A) 1934
(B) 1935
(C) 1936
(D) 1949


Q.3: Name the Indian state with the highest tax revenue.
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra


Q.4: Which of the following public sector banks will receive a loan from the BRICS New Development Bank?
(A) Canara Bank
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) ICICI
(D) State Bank of India


Q.5: Which of the following countries recently overtook Thailand as the world’s largest rice exporter in 2015?
(A) India
(B) Myanmar
(C) China
(D) Vietnam


Q.6: The Government of India has recently decided to integrate the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana with:
(A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) National Rural Livelihood Mission
(C) Hariyali
(D) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program


Q.7: The PURA scheme, which envisages the provision of urban amenities in rural areas, was first advocated by:
(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(B) Shri A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Dr. Arvind Subramanian
(D) Prof. Dinshaw Mistry


Q.8: National income can be calculated by all of the following methods except:
(A) Sum of all expenditures
(B) Sum of all outputs
(C) Sum of all savings
(D) Sum of all incomes


Q.9: In a national context, which of the following indicates a macroeconomic perspective?
(A) Inflation in India
(B) Sales of Bata Shoe Company
(C) Mango exports to the UK
(D) Income from Railways

Q.10: State Bank of India was previously known by this name:
(A) Imperial Bank of India
(B) Canara Bank
(C) Syndicate Bank
(D) Indian Cooperative Bank

Q.11: Whose signature appears on a one-rupee note?
(A) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(D) None of the above

Q.12: The full form of NABARD is:
(A) National Business for Accounting and Review
(B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(C) National Bank for Aeronautics and Radar Development
(D) National Bureau for Air and Road Transport

Q.13: When was the Reserve Bank of India nationalized?
(A) 1949
(B) 1951
(C) 1947
(D) 1935

Q.14: Which of the following indicates a microeconomic perspective in national terms?
(A) Per capita income in India
(B) Study of TISCO’s sales
(C) Inflation in India
(D) Educated unemployment in India

Q.15: How does agriculture promote industrial development in India?
(A) By opening markets for industrial products
(B) By providing food and clothing to workers
(C) By supplying raw materials
(D) All of the above

Q.16: The Industrial Development Bank of India was established in:
(A) July 1968
(B) July 1966
(C) July 1964
(D) July 1962

Q.17: The slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was included in:
(A) Second Plan
(B) First Plan
(C) Fifth Plan
(D) Fourth Plan

Q.18: Which bank is limited to the needs of agricultural and rural finance?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) IFC
(D) NABARD

Q.19: The Indian economy is a/an:
(A) Free economy
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Capitalist economy
(D) Communist economy

Q.20: The P. Rama Rao Committee is related to:
(A) Taxation
(B) Defense
(C) Industry
(D) Agriculture

Q.21: The lender of last resort is:
(A) SBI
(B) IDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI


Q.22: The period of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan is:
(A) January 1, 2012 to December 31, 2017
(B) April 1, 2011 to March 31, 2016
(C) January 1, 2011 to December 31, 2016
(D) April 1, 2012 to March 31, 2017


Q.23: In which year was the Imperial Bank established?
(A) 1930
(B) 1935
(C) 1955
(D) 1921


Q.24: Which Five-Year Plan had a duration of only four years?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Seventh


Q.25: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for food grains was introduced in which year? (A) 1944
(B) 1964
(C) 1974
(D) 1954


Q.26: In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all nationalized commercial banks is determined by:
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Central Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks’ Association
(D) Reserve Bank of India


Q.27: Which of the following provides long-term loans to private industries in India? (A) Food Corporation of India
(B) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(C) Primary Credit Society
(D) Land Development Bank


Q.28: “Agriculture should serve as a means of income, livelihood, and opportunities for local communities” – This statement was made by:
(A) Dr. Madhavan Nair
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Dr. Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan


Q.29: Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs was the focus of the Brundtland Commission. It is called:
(A) Sustainable Development
(B) Mitigation
(C) Disaster Management
(D) Capacity Building


Q.30: SEBI was established in:
(A) 1992
(B) 1980
(C) 1984
(D) 1988

Q.31: India exports electricity to:
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bhutan

Q.32: The largest single item of current government expenditure in India is:
(A) Defense expenditure
(B) Interest payment on loans
(C) Subsidy payment
(D) Investment in social overheads

Q.33: The ‘More Mega Store’ retail chain is related to which Indian industry?
(A) Reliance Industries
(B) Bharti Enterprises
(C) Aditya Birla Group
(D) None of these

Q.34: Which spice tops in value as an export commodity of India?
(A) Black Pepper
(B) Chili
(C) Turmeric
(D) Cardamom

Q.35: In which year was the nationalization of fourteen major banks in India?
(A) 1967
(B) 1968
(C) 1969
(D) 1971

Q.36: One rupee notes are issued by:
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) President of India
(D) Government of India

Q.37: India adopted the decimal currency system in:
(A) 1955
(B) 1956
(C) 1957
(D) 1958

Q.38: The number of nationalized banks in India is:
(A) 14
(B) 21
(C) 20
(D) 22

Q.39: Maruti cars are mainly based on:
(A) Japanese technology
(B) Korean technology
(C) Russian technology
(D) German technology

Q.40: Which measure has not been undertaken by the government to curb inflation? (A) Increase in consumption
(B) Increase in production
(C) Reduction in deficit financing
(D) Taxation measures

Q.41: In the Indian economy, the ‘slack season’ refers to:
(A) March-April
(B) September-December
(C) January-June
(D) February-April

Q.42: Which of the following is not a qualitative credit control by a country’s central bank?
(A) Rationing of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Variation in margin requirements
(D) Regulation of margin requirements

Q.43: The market where funds can be borrowed is called:
(A) Reserved market
(B) Institutional market
(C) Money market
(D) Exchange market

Q.44: If the marginal return increases at a decreasing rate, then the total return:
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) Becomes income

Q.45: According to newspaper reports, the government plans to disinvest what percentage of its stake in Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL)?
(A) 5%
(B) 50%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%

Q.46: Ownership of RRB (Regional Rural Bank) is held by:
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Sponsor Bank
(D) Jointly by all of the above

Q.47: Which of the following methods is not used to determine the national income of a country?
(A) Income method
(B) Output method
(C) Input method
(D) Investment method

Q.48: Which scheme of the Government of India makes Indian cities slum-free?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Central Rural Sanitation Program MME
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Antyodaya

Q.49: The current fiscal deficit percentage in the GDP is:
(A) 7
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 1

Q.50: The term ‘Tragedy of the Commons’ related to the overuse of resources was propounded by:
(A) Garrett Hardin
(B) Seligman
(C) Adolf Wagner
(D) A.P. Lemierre

Books and Authors GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

Books and Authors GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for preparation of Competitive exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

Books and Authors MCQs in English

Q.1: Who is the author of the novel ‘When the River Sleeps’?
(A) Easterine Kire
(B) Anuradha Roy
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Shobha De


Q.2: Which of the following books is written by Sachin Tendulkar?
(A) Playing It My Way
(B) Untold Story
(C) Train to Pakistan
(D) India of My Dreams


Q.3: The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ is related to whom?
(A) William Wordsworth
(B) John Keats
(C) Dr. Charles Dickens
(D) Dr. Jonathan Swift


Q.4: Who is the author of the book ‘Zest for Life’?
(A) Emile Zola
(B) H.G. Wells
(C) Virginia Woolf
(D) Mark Twain


Q.5: Who wrote the famous novel The Guide?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Satyajit Ray


Q.6: Who is the author of the book Magic Seeds?
(A) Cyrus Mistry
(B) V.S. Naipaul
(C) Jhumpa Lahiri
(D) Vikram Seth


Q.7: Who is the author of the book Romancing with Life?
(A) Kapil Dev
(B) Dev Anand
(C) Shashi Tharoor
(D) Bill Clinton


Q.8: Who is the author of Indica?
(A) Megasthenes
(B) Fa-Hien
(C) Seleucus
(D) Hiuen Tsang


Q.9: Who wrote The Discovery of India?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak


Q.10: Who wrote the book The Kingdom of God is Within You?
(A) Leo Tolstoy
(B) Henry David
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) John Ruskin

Q.11: In which year was the book ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ published?
(A) 1930
(B) 1932
(C) 1934
(D) 1936

Q.12: Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom from Fear’?
(A) Benazir Bhutto
(B) Corazon Aquino
(C) Aung San Suu Kyi
(D) Nayantara Sahgal

Q.13: Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty-Four’?
(A) J.M. Barrie
(B) Walter Scott
(C) George Orwell
(D) Thomas Hardy

Q.14: Who wrote ‘Mein Kampf’?
(A) Hitler
(B) Mussolini
(C) Bismarck
(D) Mazzini

Q.15: Who is the author of the book ‘The Life Divine’?
(A) M.K. Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Sri Aurobindo

Q.16: Who wrote ‘Das Kapital’?
(A) Asian Drama
(B) Emma
(C) Das Kapital
(D) The Good Earth

Q.17: Who wrote ‘Meghaduta’?
(A) Humayun Kabir
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Banabhatta
(D) Kalidasa

Q.18: Which of the following is a famous English author?
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Mahadevi Verma
(C) Ashapoorna Devi
(D) Mulk Raj Anand

Q.19: Who wrote ‘Indica’?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Aryabhata
(D) Seleucus

Q.20: In which author’s book is the character ‘Rusty’ found?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Ruskin Bond
(C) R.K. Laxman
(D) Rabindranath Tagore

Q.21: Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’?
(A) Lamarck
(B) Buffon
(C) Darwin
(D) Linnaeus

Q.22: Who wrote the book ‘Narendra Modi: A Political Biography’?
(A) Andy Marino
(B) David Irving
(C) Jeffrey Dale
(D) Kingsley Amis

Q.23: Who is the author of ‘A Suitable Boy’?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) None of these

Q.24: Which of the following books was not written by Jawaharlal Nehru?
(A) Discovery of India
(B) My Experiments with Truth
(C) An Autobiography
(D) Glimpses of World History

Q.25: Who wrote the book ‘The Hindus: An Alternative History’?
(A) Shobhaa De
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Wendy Doniger
(D) Salman Rushdie

Q.26: Who wrote ‘The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian’?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
(C) R.K. Laxman
(D) Rajmohan Gandhi

Q.27: Who is the author of ‘India of My Dreams’?
(A) J.B. Kripalani
(B) M.K. Gandhi
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.28: Who is the author of ‘Arthashastra’?
(A) Chandragupta
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Chanakya
(D) Seleucus Nicator

Q.29: Who wrote the book ‘Beyond the Lines: An Autobiography’?
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) General J.J. Singh
(C) Kuldip Nayar
(D) Ray Bradbury

Q.30: Who is the author of ‘Harsha Charitra’?
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Amarasimha
(C) Kalidasa
(D) Harisena

Q.31: Who wrote the book ‘Employment, Interest, and Money’?
(A) J.M. Keynes
(B) A. Marshall
(C) D. Patinkin
(D) A. Smith

Q.32: Who wrote the famous play ‘Nil Darpan’, depicting the atrocities of British indigo planters?
(A) Premchand
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Dinabandhu Mitra
(D) Subramania Bharati

Q.33: Who wrote ‘One Straw Revolution’?
(A) Rachel Carson
(B) M.S. Swaminathan
(C) Norman Borlaug
(D) Masanobu Fukuoka

Q.34: Who wrote ‘Natyashastra’?
(A) Bharat Muni
(B) Narad Muni
(C) Jandu Muni
(D) Vyas Muni

Q.35: Who is the author of the book ‘A Cricketing Life’?

(A) Christopher Martin Jenkins
(B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Tony Greig

Q.36: Which of the following works was Salman Rushdie’s first novel?
(A) Shame
(B) Midnight’s Children
(C) The Satanic Verses
(D) The Moor’s Last Sigh

Q.37: Which film directed by Satyajit Ray is based on Rabindranath Tagore’s story ‘Nastanirh’?
(A) Aparajito
(B) Charulata
(C) Pather Panchali
(D) Apur Sansar

Q.38: Which of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan?
(A) Malgudi Days
(B) Swami and Friends
(C) The Guide
(D) The Gardener

Q.39: Which literary work was written by Krishna Devaraya?
(A) Kavirajamarga
(B) Ushaparinayam
(C) Amuktamalyada
(D) Kathasaritsagara

Q.40: Who is the author of the book ‘The State of the Nation’?
(A) Mark Tully
(B) Vinod Mehta
(C) Kuldip Nayar
(D) Fali S. Nariman

Q.41: Who wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’?
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Rajmohan Gandhi
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) R.K. Karanjia

Q.42: Who is the author of the famous book ‘A Better India: A Better World’?
(A) Azim Premji
(B) Rajiv Sikri
(C) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(D) Prema Mahajan

Q.43: Who wrote the book ‘The Satanic Verses’?
(A) Agatha Christie
(B) Gunnar Myrdal
(C) Gabriela Sabatini
(D) Salman Rushdie

Q.44: Which of the following books was written by Atiq Rahimi?
(A) Earth and Ashes
(B) This Savage Rite
(C) The Red Devil
(D) Witness the Night

Q.45: ‘Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India’ was recently in the news and banned in some Indian states including Gujarat. Who is the author of this book?
(A) Joseph Lelyveld
(B) Michael Ondaatje
(C) Jack Welch
(D) Duncan Green

Q.46: Who is the author of the book ‘The Zigzag Way’?
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Salman Sodhi
(C) Jahnavi Barua
(D) Lisa Genova

Q.47: Who wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence’?

(A) Krishna Varma
(B) Madam Cama
(C) B.G. Tilak
(D) V.D. Savarkar

Q.48: Who wrote the Sanskrit grammar?
(A) Kalidasa
(B) Charaka
(C) Panini
(D) Aryabhata

Q.49: Which of the following famous books is related to Austin?
(A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
(B) Leviathan
(C) The Social Contract
(D) The Problem of Sovereignty

Q.50: Who is the author of the book ‘India Wins Freedom’?
(A) Kuldip Nayar
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Indira Gandhi

Art and Culture MCQ for Competitive Exams

Important Indian Art and Culture MCQ Questions for competitive exams. General Knowledge MCQs in English for the preparation of UPSC, SSC and all Govt jobs competitive exams.

Art and Culture MCQs

Q.1: Papeti is a festival of which religion?
(a) Parsi
(b) Jain
(c) Sikh
(d) Buddhist

Q.2: Which of the following is a famous Assamese festival?
(a) Makar Sankranti
(b) Yugadi
(c) Onam
(d) Rongali Bihu

Q.3: The most popular festival in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Gudi Padwa
(b) Onam
(c) Bihu
(d) Pongal

Q.4: Which of the following languages has been granted the status of a classical language by the Central Government?
(a) Gujarati
(b) Tamil
(c) Marathi
(d) Malayalam

Q.5: Who initiated the famous Persian festival Nowruz?
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Firoz Tughlaq
(d) Balban

Q.6: Ganesh Chaturthi is celebrated with great enthusiasm in which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Q.7: Where is the ‘Pushkar Fair’ held?
(a) Jodhpur
(b) Ajmer
(c) Jaipur
(d) Udaipur

Q.8: What language is spoken by the people of Lakshadweep?
(a) Malayalam
(b) Tamil
(c) Kannada
(d) Telugu

Q.9: The folk painting style ‘Madhubani’ is popular in which of the following states of India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

Q.10: The Lalit Kala Akademi is dedicated to promoting:
(a) Fine Arts
(b) Literature
(c) Music
(d) Dance and Drama

Q.11: Who was the painter of the famous painting ‘Bharat Mata’?
(a) Gaganendranath Tagore
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Nandalal Bose
(d) Jamini Roy

Q.12: The birthplace of the distinguished personality Amrita Sher-Gil is:
(a) Hungary
(b) India
(c) Austria
(d) Poland

Q.13: Raja Ravi Varma from Kerala was a distinguished:
(a) Dancer
(b) Painter
(c) Poet
(d) Singer

Q.14: Jamini Roy made a name for himself in which field?
(a) Badminton
(b) Painting
(c) Theater
(d) Sculpture

Q.15: Who painted the masterpiece ‘Hamsa Damayanti’?
(a) Anjolie Ela Menon
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Amrita Sher-Gil
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.16: In which field did Prodosh Dasgupta distinguish himself?
(a) Sculpture
(b) Painting
(c) Instrumental Music
(d) Hindustani Vocal Music

Q.17: Who was the founder of the Bengal School of Art?
(a) Nandalal Bose
(b) B.C. Sanyal
(c) Jamini Roy
(d) Abanindranath Tagore

Q.18: Rajasthani and Pahari art styles are famous for:
(a) Music
(b) Dance
(c) Sculpture
(d) Painting

Q.19: In which state is the folk painting ‘Madhubani’ popular?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
(c) Bihar
(d) Assam

Q.20: During which period did the Gandhara art develop?
(a) Gupta
(b) Maurya
(c) Satavahana
(d) Kushan

Q.21: What do the paintings of Ajanta depict?
(a) Ramayana
(b) Mahabharata
(c) Jataka
(d) Panchatantra

Q.22: Where did the miniature painting of Indian heritage develop?
(a) Guler
(b) Mewar
(c) Bundi
(d) Kishangarh

Q.23: In which field did Jamini Roy earn fame?
(a) Sculpture
(b) Music
(c) Painting
(d) Drama

Q.24: Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh, was a citizen of which country?
(a) Netherlands
(b) Portugal
(c) UK
(d) France

Q.25: Who among the following is famous in the field of painting?
(a) Parveen Sultana
(b) Prof. T.N. Krishnan
(c) Ramkinkar
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.26: Who among the following is famous in the field of sculpture?
(a) Manjit Bawa
(b) Saroja Vaidyanathan
(c) Ramkinkar
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.27: Who among the following is a renowned painter?
(a) Amrita Sher-Gil
(b) N Rajam
(c) Kamla Dasgupta
(d) U Srinivas

Q.28: Which of the following Sikh heritage sites is not in India?
(a) Nanded
(b) Kesgarh Sahib
(c) Paonta Sahib
(d) Nankana Sahib

Q.29: The oldest form of Hindustani classical music composition is:
(a) Dhrupad
(b) Thumri
(c) Ghazal
(d) None of the above

Q.30: Raga Kameshwari was composed by:
(a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(b) None of the above
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar
(d) Uday Shankar

Q.31: The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is:
(a) Kuchipudi
(b) Odissi
(c) Bharatanatyam
(d) Kathakali

Q.32: Who directed the film based on the bandit queen Phoolan Devi?
(a) Abbas-Mustan
(b) Shashi Kapoor
(c) Shekhar Kapur
(d) Anil Kapoor

Q.33: Which of the following is a folk dance of India?
(a) Mohiniyattam
(b) Kathakali
(c) Manipuri
(d) Garba

Q.34: What was the first Indian talkie film?
(a) Kisan Kanya
(b) Raja Harishchandra
(c) Bharat Mata
(d) Alam Ara

Q.35: Hariprasad Chaurasia is a renowned player of:
(a) Shehnai
(b) Tabla
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.36: The Kathakali dance form is associated with which state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Manipur
(d) Kerala

Q.37: The religious text of the Jewish people is:
(a) Analects
(b) Torah
(c) Tripitaka
(d) Zend-Avesta

Q.38: Shiv Kumar Sharma is famous for playing which instrument?
(a) Santoor
(b) Sitar
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.39: The great Indian maestro Ustad Bismillah Khan is associated with:
(a) Shehnai
(b) Tabla
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.40: What is the name of the famous folk theatre of the Bhils?
(a) Gawarl
(b) Swang
(c) Tamasha
(d) Rammat

Q.41: Sanjukta Panigrahi was famous for which dance?
(a) Bharatanatyam
(b) Kathak
(c) Manipuri
(d) Odissi


Q.42: Kathakali classical dance originated from:
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka


Q.43: ‘Bhangra’ is a dance form of:
(a) Haryana
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Punjab


Q.44: ‘Dandiya’ is a popular dance of:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Assam
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Maharashtra


Q.45: ‘Sattriya Dance’ was recognized as a classical dance of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi only in 2000. It originated from:
(a) Assam
(b) Karnataka
(c) Gujarat
(d) Tripura


Q.46: In which of the following films did Pran act as a character artist instead of a villain?
(a) Ram Aur Shyam
(b) Zanjeer
(c) Madhumati
(d) Himalay Ki God Mein


Q.47: Which of the following films was not directed by Satyajit Ray?

(a) Aparajito
(b) Charulata
(c) Pather Panchali
(d) Salaam Bombay


Q.48: Nautanki is a folk dance of which state?
(a) Haryana
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat


Q.49: Guru Gopinath was a proponent of:
(a) Kathak
(b) Kathakali
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Bharatanatyam


Q.50: Satyajit Ray was associated with which of the following?
(a) Classical Dance
(b) Journalism
(c) Classical Music
(d) Film Direction

History of Modern India MCQ for Competitive Exams

History of Modern India MCQ questions for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from the previous year exam question paper of SSC, UPSSSC and other govt jobs examinations.

Modern Indian History MCQs

European Companies

Q.1 What is the name of the fort built by the British in Calcutta?
a) Fort St. David
b) Fort St. Andrew
c) Fort William
d) Fort Victoria

Q.2 Which was the first trading center established by the British?
a) Calcutta
b) Surat
c) Madras
d) Bombay

Q.3 Which of the following is not a French settlement in India?
a) Pondicherry
b) Mahe
c) Goa
d) Chandernagore

Q.4 In 1651, where did the Mughal rulers allow the East India Company to trade and build a factory in Bengal?
a) Calcutta
b) Kasim Bazar
c) Singur
d) Bardhaman

Q.5 Who introduced the cultivation of potatoes in India?
a) The British
b) The Dutch
c) The Portuguese
d) The French

Q.6 Which of the following was the main headquarters of the Portuguese in India?
a) Cochin
b) Goa
c) Calicut
d) Kannur

Q.7 When was the French East India Company founded?
a) 1600 AD
b) 1620 AD
c) 1664 AD
d) 1604 AD

Q.8 Which European nation was the first to establish and influence trade in India?
a) British
b) French
c) Dutch
d) Portuguese

Q.9 Who discovered the sea route to India via the Cape of Good Hope?
a) Vasco da Gama
b) Amundsen
c) Christopher Columbus
d) John Cabot

Q.10 Who was the greatest Portuguese governor who laid the real foundation of Portuguese power in India?
a) Almeida
b) Francis Drake
c) Albuquerque
d) Vasco da Gama

Regional State

Q.11 Which of the following treaties did Tipu Sultan sign with the British to end the Third Anglo-Mysore War?
a) Treaty of Mangalore
b) Treaty of Srirangapatnam
c) Treaty of Mysore
d) Treaty of Bidnur

Q.12 Who founded the ‘Khalsa’?
a) Guru Gobind Singh
b) Guru Ramdas
c) Guru Nanak
d) Arjun Dev

Q.13 The Baisakhi festival of 1999 holds special historical significance for Punjab because –
a) It marks the 300th anniversary of the founding of the Khalsa
b) It is the last festival of the 20th century
c) A large number of non-resident Indians are participating
d) None of the above

Q.14 Who initiated the military sect of Sikhs known as ‘Khalsa’?
a) Har Rai
b) Har Kishan
c) Gobind Singh
d) Tegh Bahadur

Q.15 Where was Guru Nanak born?
a) Gurdaspur
b) Amritsar
c) Lahore
d) Talwandi

Q.16 Lahore was Ranjit Singh’s political capital. Which city was known as his religious capital?
a) Amritsar
b) Anandpur Sahib
c) Gujranwala
d) Peshawar

Q.17 Which Governor-General greeted Ranjit Singh with great honor at Ropar?
a) Minto I
b) William Bentinck
c) Hastings
d) Auckland

Q.18 Which Mughal emperor among the following overthrew the Sayyid Brothers?
a) Bahadur Shah I
b) Rafi-ud-Daulah
c) Shah Jahan II
d) Muhammad Shah

Q.19 In which of the following battles did Nadir Shah defeat Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah?
a) Delhi
b) Karnal
c) Panipat
d) Kanpur

Q.20 Which Governor fought against Tipu Sultan in the Third Mysore War?
a) Lord Wellesley
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord Cornwallis
d) Lord Wellington

Q.21 In which year did the British annex Punjab?
a) 1828
b) 1831
c) 1849
d) 1856

Q.22 Who among the following was the Portuguese who captured Goa?
a) Francisco de Almeida
b) Afonso de Albuquerque
c) Vasco da Gama
d) Roberto de Nobili

Q.23 Which of the following countries was Indonesia a colony of?
a) Dutch
b) Spain
c) Portugal
d) Belgium

Q.24 In which of the following battles did the British completely defeat the French?
a) Battle of Wandiwash
b) Battle of Buxar
c) Battle of Plassey
d) Battle of Adyar

Cultural and Social Reform Movements

Q.25 Arya Samaj is against which of the following?
a) The existence of God
b) Religious rituals and idol worship
c) Hinduism
d) Islam

Q.26 Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission?
a) Vivekananda
b) Ramakrishna
c) M.G. Ranade
d) Keshavchandra Sen

Q.27 Who was the first to propose the concept of Basic Education?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Dayanand Saraswati

Q.28 Who founded the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh?
a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
b) Muhammad Ali
c) Shaukat Ali
d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

Q.29 Who is called the ‘Prophet of New India’?
a) Dayanand Saraswati
b) Sri Ramakrishna
c) Raja Rammohan Roy
d) Swami Vivekananda

Q.30 Who among the following was a pioneer in social reform movements in 19th century India?
a) Aurobindo Ghosh
b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Devendranath Tagore
d) Keshavchandra Sen

Q.31 Who was the founder of ‘Prarthana Samaj’?
a) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
b) Swami Vivekananda
c) Atmaram Pandurang
d) Dayanand Saraswati

Q.32 Whose main efforts led to the abolition of the Sati practice?
a) British Viceroy
b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Religious preachers
d) Maharshi Karve

Q.33 Raja Rammohan Roy organized a historic movement against which of the following?
a) Caste system
b) The evil practice of Sati
c) The degrading status of women in society
d) Following unnecessary religious rituals

Q.34 Why did Gandhi oppose the Communal Award, and what was the reason behind it?
a) Communal bias
b) It would create differences within Hindu society
c) Economic deterioration of India
d) Destruction of handicrafts

Q.35 Which among the following was the first commission to focus on primary and secondary education in India?
a) Macaulay Commission
b) Charles Commission
c) Hunter Commission
d) Bentinck Commission

Q.36 ‘Sarvodaya’ means:
a) Complete revolution
b) Non-cooperation
c) Upliftment of all
d) Non-violence

Q.37 Who was the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal (established in 1784)?
a) Warren Hastings
b) Sir William Jones
c) Sir James Mackintosh
d) James Prinsep

Q.38 The 19th-century Indian Renaissance was limited to which of the following classes?
a) Royal class
b) Upper middle class
c) Wealthy farmers
d) Urban landlords (landowners)

Q.39 The Indian Universities Act of 1904 was passed under the dominion of which Viceroy?
a) Lord Lytton
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Ripon
d) Lord Hardinge-I

Nicknames, Statements, and Books

Q.40 Who composed Gandhiji’s favorite song “Vaishnav Jan To…”?
a) Narsi Mehta
b) Premanand
c) Chunilal
d) Dharmik Lal

Q.41 Who is the author of the book “The Indian War of Independence”?
a) Krishna Varma
b) Madal Kamma
c) B.G. Tilak
d) V.D. Savarkar

Q.42 Who developed the idea that “means justify the ends”?
a) Kautilya
b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
d) Mahatma Gandhi

Q.43 Who is referred to as the ‘Nightingale of India’?
a) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
b) Sarojini Naidu
c) Aruna Asaf Ali
d) Sucheta Kriplani

Q.44 Who is known as the ‘Bismarck of India’?
a) Vallabhbhai Patel
b) Subhas Chandra Bose
c) Bhagat Singh
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.45 Who first estimated the national income of India?
a) Mahalanobis
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) V.K.R.V. Rao
d) Sardar Patel

Q.46 Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons?
a) Lord Sinha
b) S.N. Tagore
c) W.C. Banerjee
d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Q.47 Who propounded the theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ from India to Britain?
a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) Surendranath Banerjee
d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Q.48 Gandhi is considered as –
a) Philosophical Anarchist
b) Original Anarchist
c) Marxist
d) Fabian

Q.49 Who is the author of the book ‘Anandmath’?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
c) Sarojini Naidu
d) Sri Aurobindo

Q.50 Who referred to Mahatma Gandhi as the “Half-naked Fakir”?
a) Winston Churchill
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) Lord Wavell
d) Lord Linlithgow

Q.51 During which movement did Gandhi give the slogan “Do or Die” to the nation?
a) Rowlatt Satyagraha
b) Salt Satyagraha
c) Quit India Movement
d) Non-Cooperation Movement

Q.52 Who gave the famous slogan “Do or Die”?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Vallabhbhai Patel
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Rajiv Gandhi

Q.53 Who called for a return to the Vedas?
a) Swami Vivekananda
b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
c) Aurobindo Ghosh
d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Q.54 Who was the first European to translate the Bhagavad Gita into English?
a) Sir Alexander Cunningham
b) William Jones
c) Charles Wilkins
d) James Prinsep

Q.55 Who compiled the holy book of the Sikhs, the ‘Adi Granth’?
a) Guru Tegh Bahadur
b) Guru Nanak
c) Guru Arjun Dev
d) Guru Angad

Q.56 What was the main goal of Jyotiba Phule’s ‘Satyashodhak Samaj’ in the last century?
a) To protect lower castes from the exploitative Brahmins and their opportunistic religious texts
b) To attack the caste system
c) To lead the anti-landlord and anti-moneylender rebellion in Satara
d) To demand separate representation for untouchables

Q.57 After the Urdu weekly ‘Al-Hilal’ started by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad in 1912 was banned by the government, when did he establish ‘Al-Balagh’?
a) In 1913
b) In 1914
c) In 1915
d) In 1916

Q.58 Who is associated with the title ‘Deshbandhu’?
a) B.R. Ambedkar
b) C.R. Das
c) V.C. Pal
d) Rabindranath Tagore

Q.59 Whose famous statement is “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it”?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Bhagat Singh
c) Lokmanya Tilak
d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.60 Who was the editor of ‘Young India’ and ‘Harijan’?
a) Nehru
b) Ambedkar
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Subhas Chandra Bose

Q.61 Who composed the famous national song ‘Vande Mataram’?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
d) Surendranath Bandopadhyay

Q.62 Who is associated with the title “Frontier Gandhi”?
a) Mohandas K. Gandhi
b) Abdul Wali Khan
c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Q.63 Who is famously known as the “Lady with the Lamp”?
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Florence Nightingale
c) Indira Gandhi
d) Mayawati

Q.64 Who wrote the patriotic song “Sare Jahan Se Achha”?
a) Mohammad Iqbal
b) Bahadur Shah Zafar
c) Amir Khusro
d) Mirza Ghalib

Q.65 Which of the following works is not associated with Mahatma Gandhi?
a) My Experiments with Truth
b) Harijan
c) The Holy Family
d) Hind Swaraj

Q.66 What was the name of the first newspaper published in India?
a) The Calcutta Chronicle
b) The Calcutta Gazette
c) The Oriental Magazine of Calcutta
d) The Bengal Gazette

Q.67 Who said, “Give me blood, and I will give you freedom”?
a) Subhas Chandra Bose
b) Lala Lajpat Rai
c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q.68 Match the following:

(A) Abdul Ghaffar Khan1. Mahatma
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji2. Frontier Gandhi
(C) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi3. Grand Old Man of India
(D) Rabindranath Tagore4. Gurudev

a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Q.69 Under what name was the song ‘Jana Gana Mana,’ written by Rabindranath Tagore, first published in January 1912?
a) Rashtra Jagriti
b) Tatva Bodhini
c) Bharat Bhagya Vidhata
d) None of the above

Revolutionary Activities: History of Modern India MCQ

Q.70 Which of the following revolutionaries was sentenced to death by the British?
a) Jatin Das
b) Chandrashekhar Azad
c) Rajguru
d) Kalpana Dutt

Q.71 Who was the author of the play ‘Neel Darpan,’ which depicted the revolt of indigo farmers?
a) Dinabandhu Mitra
b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) Nabin Chandra Sen

Q.72 Which of the following novels became a source of inspiration for Indian freedom fighters?
a) Pariksha Guru
b) Anandamath
c) Rangbhoomi
d) Padmarag

Q.73 Who was the leader of the armed attack on the Chittagong government armory in 1930?
a) Chandrashekhar Azad
b) Bhagat Singh
c) Surya Sen
d) Sukhdev

Q.74 Which of the following British personalities acknowledged that the revolt of 1857 was a national uprising?
a) Lord Dalhousie
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Ellenborough
d) Disraeli

Q.75 Where is ‘India House’ located?
a) New Delhi
b) Kolkata
c) London
d) New York

Q.76 Against whom was the Lahore Conspiracy Case registered?
a) V.D. Savarkar
b) Bhagat Singh
c) Chandrashekhar Azad
d) Aurobindo Ghosh

Q.77 Who was a prominent leader of the Ghadar Party?
a) P. Mitra
b) Lala Har Dayal
c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d) Bipin Chandra Pal

Q.78 Har Dayal, a great intellectual, was associated with:
a) Home Rule Movement
b) Ghadar Movement
c) Swadeshi Movement
d) Non-Cooperation Movement

Q.79 Who founded the Indian National Party in Berlin in 1914?
a) Subhash Chandra Bose
b) W.C. Bonnerjee
c) Surendranath Banerjee
d) Champakaraman Pillai

Q.80 In which region was Birsa Munda’s movement against the British taking place?
a) Punjab
b) Chota Nagpur
c) Terai
d) Manipur

1857 Revolution

Q.81 Who among the following leaders was the first to sacrifice his life in 1857?
a) Kunwar Singh
b) Tatya Tope
c) Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi
d) Mangal Pandey

Q.82 When did the British government start directly ruling India?
a) After the Battle of Plassey
b) After the Battle of Panipat
c) After the Mysore Wars
d) After the Sepoy Mutiny

Q.83 The administrative outcome of the 1857 rebellion was the transfer of power from:
a) East India Company to the British Crown
b) British Crown to the East India Company
c) East India Company to the Governor-General
d) British Crown to the Board of Directors

Q.84 Who was the Governor-General of India during the 1857 rebellion?
a) Lord Dalhousie
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Mayo
d) Lord Ripon

Q.85 Arrange the following places where the 1857 rebellion took place in the correct order:
1)Jhansi
2)Meerut
3)Delhi
4)Barrackpore
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4, 3
c) 2, 3, 4, 1
d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Q.86 Who among the following advocated reconciliation between the British and Muslims while analyzing the causes of the 1857 revolt?
a) Syed Ahmad Barelvi
b) Shah Waliullah
c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
d) Syed Amir Ali

Q.87 Who led the 1857 rebellion in Lucknow?
a) Kunwar Singh
b) Tatya Tope
c) Rani Lakshmibai
d) Hazrat Mahal

Q.88 Where was the royal court held on 1st November 1858 to issue the Queen’s Proclamation?
a) Lucknow
b) Kanpur
c) Delhi
d) Allahabad

Q.89 What was Nana Sahib’s second name?
a) Ramchandra Panduranga
b) Dhondu Pant
c) Tatya Tope
d) Kunwar Singh

Q.90 Which of the following events inspired the British monarch to take control of Indian administration?
a) Battle of Plassey
b) Battle of Buxar
c) Violent War
d) Sepoy Mutiny

Governor General

Q.91 Who attended the Imperial Durbar of 1877 wearing hand-spun Khadi clothes?
a) M.K. Gandhi
b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c) Bipin Chandra Pal
d) G.V. Joshi

Q.92 Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal?
a) Clive
b) Hastings
c) Wellesley
d) Cornwallis

Q.93 Who introduced the ‘Ryotwari System’ in the then Madras Presidency during British rule?
a) Macartney
b) Elphinstone
c) Thomas Munro
d) John Lawrence

Q.94 Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal?
a) Lord Clive
b) Warren Hastings
c) Lord John Shore
d) Lord Cornwallis

Q.95 Why did the British introduce railways in India?
a) To promote heavy industries in India
b) To facilitate British commerce and administrative control
c) To transport food grains during famines
d) So that Indians could travel freely within the country

Q.96 In which year was the first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra opened?
a) 1852
b) 1853
c) 1854
d) 1855

Q.97 Which Indian state was not annexed by the “Doctrine of Lapse”?
a) Satara
b) Nagpur
c) Jhansi
d) Punjab

Q.98 Who was the first Indian selected for the Indian Civil Service?
a) Satyendranath Tagore
b) Sarojini Naidu
c) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) C.R. Das

Q.99 Which Governor introduced civil services in India for the first time?
a) Lord Cornwallis
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord Wellesley
d) Lord Hastings

Q.100 Match the following:

(A) Lord Clive1. Subsidiary Alliance
(B) Lord Wellesley2. Indian Universities Act
(C) Lord Dalhousie3. Doctrine of Lapse
(D) Lord Curzon4. Dual Government in Bengal
      A   B    C   D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 4 1 3 2
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 1 4 2 3

Q.101 Who was the first Viceroy of India?
a) Lord Cornwallis
b) Pitt
c) Lord Canning
d) Robert Clive

Q.103 Who was the last Viceroy of India?
a) Lord Linlithgow
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) Lord Wavell
d) Clement Attlee

Q.104 Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
a) Lord Attlee
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) C. Rajagopalachari
d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q.105 Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) S. Radhakrishnan
c) Lord Mountbatten
d) Lord Wavell

Q.106 During which Governor-General’s tenure was the Indian National Congress formed?
a) Lord Ripon
b) William Bentinck
c) Lord Dufferin
d) Lord Curzon

Q.107 Which of the following can be considered Lord Curzon’s most useful and important reform, especially concerning the people of undivided Punjab province?
a) Educational reforms
b) Police reforms
c) Industrial reforms
d) Agricultural reforms

Q.108 Which British Viceroy is associated with the partition of Bengal?
a) Lord Canning
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Lord Wellesley

Q.109 During Lord Curzon’s viceroyalty, which of the following events did not occur? a) Partition of Bengal
b) Establishment of the Archaeological Department
c) Second Delhi Durbar
d) Formation of the Indian National Congress

Q.110 Who is referred to as the “Father of Local Self-Government” in India?
a) Lord Ripon
b) Lord Hardinge
c) Lord Dalhousie
d) Lord Lytton

Constitutional Development

Q.111 Under the ‘Pitt’s India Act,’ which of the following was established?
a) Foreigners’ Court
b) Board of Control
c) Board of Revenue
d) Permanent Council

Q.112 Which Charter Act ended the East India Company’s trade monopoly with China? a) Charter Act, 1793
b) Charter Act, 1813
c) Charter Act, 1833
d) Charter Act, 1853

Q.113 In India, who introduced the system of communal electorates?
a) Indian Councils Act of 1892
b) Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909
c) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919
d) Government of India Act, 1935

Q.114 The popular name of the Indian Councils Act of 1909 is:
a) Parliament Act
b) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
c) Minto-Morley Reforms
d) Judiciary Act

Q.115 Which Act’s important feature was provincial autonomy?
a) 1935
b) 1919
c) 1909
d) 1858

Q.116 Who introduced the concept of ‘Dyarchy’ in the 1919 Act?
a) Montagu
b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
c) Lionel Curtis
d) Chelmsford

Q.117 Who inaugurated the Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal) in 1921?
a) Lord Curzon
b) Lord Wellesley
c) Duke of Connaught
d) Duke of Wellington

Q.118 During whose tenure was the Rowlatt Act of 1919 implemented? a) Lord Chelmsford
b) Lord William
c) Lord Minto
d) Lord Bentinck

Q.119 The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on:
a) Simon Commission
b) Lord Curzon Commission
c) Dimitrov Thesis
d) Lord Clive’s Report

Economic Condition

Q.120 Who was the President of the Indian National Congress during 1940-46?
a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Maulana Azad

Q.121 Which system relates to the Ryotwari system of land tenure?
a) The ryot is the landowner who pays land revenue directly to the government for the land he occupies.
b) The ryot is a tenant farmer who pays land revenue to the landlord.
c) The person cultivates the land leased by the landlord and pays rent to the landlord.
d) The land is collectively owned and cultivated on a cooperative basis.

Q.122 Who benefitted the most from the British land revenue system in India?
a) Sharecroppers
b) Farmers
c) Zamindars
d) Agricultural laborers

National Movement : History of Modern India MCQs

Q.123 What was the aim of Gandhiji’s movement to boycott foreign goods?
a) Complete independence
b) To create anti-British sentiment
c) To promote a welfare state
d) To encourage cottage industries

Q.124 What was meant by ‘Secretary of State for India’ during British rule?
a) The officer who worked like the secretary of the Viceroy of India
b) A secretary-level officer appointed for each presidency region of India
c) A British minister under whose control the Government of India worked
d) A senior officer appointed by the Viceroy to oversee the internal administration of India

Q.125 Which of the following are the most important teachings of Gandhiji?
1. Truth
2. Non-violence
3. Religion
4. Satyagraha
a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 2 and 4
c) Only 1 and 2
d) Only 1, 2, and 3

Q.126 Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party?
1. Motilal Nehru
2. Sardar Patel
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, and 3

Q.127 C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ after-
a) The Swadeshi Movement
b) The Non-cooperation Movement
c) The Civil Disobedience Movement
d) The Quit India Movement

Q.128 In which zodiac sign was Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru born?
a) Leo
b) Capricorn
c) Taurus
d) Scorpio

Q.129 Who represented the Indian National Congress at the Congress of Oppressed Nationalities in Brussels in 1927?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Dr. Ansari
d) Motilal Nehru

Q.130 Who was the first woman president of the Indian National Congress?
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Bhikaiji Cama
c) Annie Besant
d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit

Medieval History of India GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

Medieval History of India GK MCQ questions for Competitive Exams in English. Important General Knowledge MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

Medieval History of India MCQs

Early Medieval Period

Q.1: Which of the following Tomar rulers is credited with establishing the city of Delhi?
a) Anangpal
b) Wazat
c) Rudane
d) Devaraj

Q.2: In which of the following years did Muhammad-bin-Qasim conquer Sindh?
a) 712 CE
b) 812 CE
c) 912 CE
d) 1012 CE

Q.3: Which of the following famous temples did Mahmud of Ghazni attack?
a) Belur
b) Halebid
c) Somnath
d) Konark

Q.4: Who defeated Prithviraj in the second battle of Tarain?
a) Mahmud of Ghazni
b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
c) Muhammad Ghori
d) Alauddin Khilji

Q.5: Whom did Muhammad Ghori leave behind to take care of the conquered territories?
a) Nasiruddin
b) Iltutmish
c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
d) Malik Kafur

Q.6: Which of the following Rajput kings defeated Muhammad Ghori for the first time?
a) Prithviraj III
b) Baghel Bhim
c) Jaychandra
d) Kumarpal

Q.7: Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(A) Birth of Prophet Muhammad
(B) Rise of the Gupta dynasty in India
(C) Completion of the Roman Colosseum
(D) Peter the Great becomes Tsar of Russia
a) (C), (B), (A), (D)
b) (A), (C), (D), (B)
c) (B), (D), (C), (A)
d) (D), (A), (C), (B)

Sultanate Period: Medieval History MCQs

Q.8: Who among the following built the ‘Quwwat-ul-Islam’ Mosque (Delhi)?
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Iltutmish
d) Muhammad Adil Shah

Q.9: Which Sultan of Delhi died while playing polo?
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Q.10: Before becoming the Sultan of Delhi, Balban was the Prime Minister of which Sultan?
a) Nasiruddin
b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
c) Bahram Shah
d) Aram Shah

Q.11: During whose reign did Genghis Khan attack the borders of India while chasing Jalaluddin?
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Iltutmish
c) Balban
d) Nasiruddin Khusrau

Q.12: Who introduced the famous Persian festival of Nowruz?
a) Alauddin Khilji
b) Iltutmish
c) Firoz Tughlaq
d) Balban

Q.13: Who was the only queen among the following to rule over Delhi?
a) Razia Sultan
b) Chand Bibi
c) Mehrunnisa
d) Hazrat Mahal

Q.14: Which were the two dynasties that ruled immediately before and after the Khilji rulers?
a) Slave and Lodi
b) Sayyid and Lodi
c) Slave and Tughlaq
d) Tughlaq and Lodi

Q.15: Which Sultan of Delhi established a department of employment, a charity department, and a philanthropic hospital?
a) Firoz Tughlaq
b) Muhammad Tughlaq
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Balban

Q.16: During whose reign did the Mongols invade the most?
a) Balban
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
d) Firoz Tughlaq

Q.17: Malik Kafur was a general of
a) Sikandar Lodi
b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Humayun

Q.18: Which Khilji ruler killed his father-in-law to ascend the throne of Delhi?
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Jalaluddin Khilji
c) Ghiyasuddin
d) Alauddin Khilji

Q.19: The market regulation system was initiated by:
a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
b) Iltutmish
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Ghiyasuddin

Q.20: Which Sultan of Delhi has been described by historians as a “mixture of contradictions”?
a) Balban
b) Ibrahim Lodi
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

Q.21: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq excelled in –
a) Art
b) Music
c) Calligraphy
d) Philosophy

Q.22: The Qutub Minar, as we see it today, was ultimately rebuilt by?
a) Balban
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Sikandar Lodi
d) Firoz Tughlaq

Q.23: Arrange the dynasties of the Sultans of Delhi in chronological order:
1.Khilji
2.Tughlaq
3.Sayyid
4.Slave
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Q.24: During whose reign did Ibn Battuta visit India?
a) Iltutmish
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
d) Balban

Q.25: Who was the last ruler of the Lodi dynasty?
a) Bahlul Lodi
b) Ibrahim Lodi
c) Daulat Khan Lodi
d) Sikandar Lodi

Q.26: Who founded the Lodi dynasty?
a) Ibrahim Lodi
b) Sikandar Lodi
c) Bahlul Lodi
d) Khizr Khan

Sufi and Bhakti Movement: Medieval History MCQs

Q.27: Who established the Chishti order in India?
a) Nizamuddin Auliya
b) Salim Chishti
c) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti
d) Hamiduddin Nagori

Q.28: Who organized the first Bhakti movement?
a) Nanak
b) Meera
c) Ramdas
d) Ramanujacharya

Q.29: Which of the following Sufi saints believed that devotional music is the path to reaching God?
a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti
b) Baba Farid
c) Sayyid Muhammad
d) Shah Alam Bukhari

Q.30: The contribution of the saints of the Bhakti and Sufi movements was in
a) Religious harmony
b) National unity
c) Unity between Hindus and Muslims
d) Social harmony

Q.31: Match the founders (List-I) with the Bhakti sects (List-II) and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

List-IList-II
(A) Shankaradev1. Mahanubhav Panth
(B) Jagjivan2. Alakhnami
(C) Lalgin or Lalbeg3. Satnami
(D) Govind Prabhu4. Ek-Sharan-Dharma
Medieval History MCQ in English
     A    B    C   D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 2 1 3
c) 1 4 3 2
d) 1 2 4 3

Q.32: The Alvar saints originated from which of the following modern states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Karnataka
d) Maharashtra

Q.33: Bhakti preacher Shankaradev popularized which regional language through his teachings?
a) Assamese
b) Bengali
c) Braj Bhasha
d) Awadhi

Q.34: Who among the following is considered the creator of the sitar?
a) Miyan Tansen
b) Baiju Bawra
c) Amir Khusro
d) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan

Medieval Regional States: Medieval History MCQ

Q.35: Who founded the ‘Vijayanagar Kingdom’?
a) Tuluva dynasty
b) Sangama dynasty
c) Saluva dynasty
d) Devaraya dynasty

Q.36: The rulers of Vijayanagar encouraged –
a) Hindi, Marathi, and Sanskrit
b) Malayalam, Tamil, and Sanskrit
c) Tamil, Telugu, and Sanskrit
d) Telugu, Urdu, and Sanskrit

Q.37: Which book was written by Krishnadevaraya?
a) Mitakshara
b) Rajatarangini
c) Karpur Manjari
d) Amuktamalyada

Q.38: ‘Amuktamalyada’ is the work of
a) Allasani Peddana
b) Krishnadevaraya
c) Vaccharaja
d) Kharavela

Q.39: The medieval city of Vijayanagar is known today as –
a) Chandragiri
b) Halebidu
c) Hampi
d) Kondavidu

Q.40: Who constructed the ‘Raya Gopurams’ in front of the temples in Hampi, Tiruvannamalai, Chidambaram, Srirangam, Tirupati, etc.?
a) Vidyaranya
b) Krishnadevaraya
c) Harihara
d) Rajaraja

Q.41: When was the famous Battle of Talikota fought?
a) 1565 CE
b) 1575 CE
c) 1585 CE
d) 1570 CE

Q.42: Who built the ‘Gol Gumbaz’ in Bijapur, the second-largest dome in the world, famous for its whispering gallery?
a) Mahmud Gawan
b) Yusuf Adil Shah
c) Ismail Adil Shah
d) Muhammad Adil Shah

Q.43: Where is the Gol Gumbaz located?
a) Konark
b) Hyderabad
c) Puri
d) Bijapur

Q.44: Who built the ‘Kirti Stambh’ of Chittor?
a) Rana Pratap
b) Rana Kumbha
c) Rana Sanga
d) Bappa Rawal

Q.45: The capital of the Bahmani rulers was –
a) Gulbarga
b) Bijapur
c) Belgaum
d) Raichur

Q.46: The famous Muslim ruler Chand Bibi belonged to which state?
a) Bijapur
b) Golconda
c) Ahmadnagar
d) Berar

Q.47: The famous Kohinoor diamond was mined from which mine?
a) Odisha
b) Chota Nagpur
c) Bojapur
d) Golconda

Mughal Period

Q.48: From which of the following battles was the foundation of the Mughal Empire laid in India?
a) Battle of Plassey
b) Battle of Talikota
c) First Battle of Panipat
d) Battle of Haldighati


Q.49: After which battle was the Mughal rule established in India?
a) First Battle of Tarain
b) Second Battle of Tarain
c) First Battle of Panipat
d) Second Battle of Panipat


Q.50: Which Mughal ruler gave a detailed description of Indian flora, fauna, seasons, and fruits in his daily diary?
a) Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Babur
d) Aurangzeb


Q.51: The Rajput king defeated by Babur in the Battle of Khanwa was –
a) Rana Sanga
b) Rudra Dev
c) Uday Singh
d) Rana Pratap Singh


Q.52: Who wrote the “Humayun Nama”?
a) Humayun
b) Akbar
c) Abul Fazl
d) Gulbadan Begum


Q.53: After losing which battle did Humayun have to flee from India?
a) Khanwa
b) Kannauj
c) Panipat
d) Ghaghra


Q.54: Which Mughal emperor discouraged the practice of Sati?
a) Babur
b) Humayun
c) Akbar
d) Jahangir


Q.55: “Razmnama” is the Persian translation of which of the following?
a) Mahabharata
b) Ramayana
c) Panchatantra
d) Kathasaritsagara


Q.56: Where did Akbar build the Panch Mahal, known for its pillars?
a) Lahore
b) Fatehpur Sikri
c) Agra
d) Sikandra


Q.57: Famous musicians Tansen and Baiju Bawra were renowned during whose reign?
a) Jahangir
b) Bahadur Shah Zafar
c) Akbar
d) Shah Jahan


Q.58: Who was the famous Jain scholar highly respected by Akbar?
a) Hemchandra
b) Harivijaya
c) Vastupal
d) Bhadrabahu


Q.59: Who is the author of the book “Ain-i-Akbari”?
a) Akbar
b) Abul Fazl
c) Firdausi
d) Jahangir


Q.60: The Battle of Haldighati was fought between whom?
a) Akbar and Rana Sangram Singh
b) Akbar and Medini Rai
c) Akbar and Rana Pratap Singh
d) Akbar and Uday Singh


Q.61: The Buland Darwaza was constructed to commemorate Akbar’s victory over which region?
a) Malwa
b) Deccan
c) Bengal
d) Gujarat


Q.62: Who initiated the “Mansabdari System”?
a) Akbar
b) Shah Jahan
c) Jahangir
d) Babur


Q.63: Which of the following is not located in Fatehpur Sikri?
a) Panch Mahal
b) Moti Masjid
c) Tomb of Salim Chishti
d) Mariam Palace


Q.64: Who renamed the city of Prayag as Allahabad, meaning “City of Allah”?
a) Aurangzeb
b) Akbar
c) Shah Jahan
d) Bahadur Shah Zafar


Q.65: Who was responsible for land revenue reforms during Akbar’s reign?
a) Birbal
b) Todar Mal
c) Jai Singh
d) Bihari Mal


Q.66: Under the “Zabt System,” what portion of actual production was fixed as the state’s demand?
a) One-fourth
b) One-third
c) Half
d) One-fifth


Q.67: Who initiated the new religion “Din-i-Ilahi”?
a) Humayun
b) Jahangir
c) Akbar
d) Shah Jahan


Q.68: Which of the following was illiterate?
a) Jahangir
b) Shah Jahan
c) Akbar
d) Aurangzeb


Q.69: Which Mughal emperor is credited with composing Hindi songs?
a) Babur
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan


Q.70: Which of the following was not a reform measure adopted by Akbar?
a) Dagh
b) Mansabdari System
c) Iqta System
d) Zabt


Q.71: What is the meaning of “Jahangir”?
a) Lord of the Nation
b) Supreme Lord
c) World Conqueror
d) Hero of a Hundred Battles


Q.72: Painting reached its peak during whose reign?
a) Akbar
b) Aurangzeb
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan

Q.73: Which of the following was sent to the royal court of Jahangir as an ambassador by the then King of England, James I?
a) John Hawkins
b) William Todd
c) Sir Thomas Roe
d) Sir Walter Raleigh


Q.74: In which of the following Mughal buildings was the world-famous ‘Takht-e-Taus’ placed?
a) Diwan-e-Khas at Fatehpur Sikri
b) Agra’s new fort
c) Rang Mahal of Red Fort in Delhi
d) Diwan-e-Aam of Red Fort in Delhi


Q.75: In which of the following cities did Shah Jahan build the Moti Masjid?
a) Delhi
b) Jaipur
c) Agra
d) Amarkot


Q.76: Who among the following succeeded Aurangzeb?
a) Azam
b) Kam Bakhsh
c) Akbar II
d) Muazzam


Q.77: The ‘Mir Bakshi’ of Mughal emperors headed which department?
a) Intelligence (Secret Information)
b) Foreign Affairs
c) Military Organization
d) Finance


Q.78: To whom was ‘Inam land’ given?
a) Scholars and religious persons
b) Hereditary revenue collectors
c) Mansabdars
d) Nobles


Q.79: Which of the following Mughal buildings is said to be exactly equal in length and width?
a) Agra Fort
b) Red Fort
c) Taj Mahal
d) Buland Darwaza


Q.80: Which of the following facts about the Taj Mahal is not true?
a) It is a grand mausoleum.
b) It was built by Shah Jahan.
c) It is located outside Agra Fort.
d) The names of the artisans who built it are engraved on it.

Sher Shah

Q.81: During the reign of which of the following rulers was the 1 Rupee coin minted in India?
a) Babur
b) Sher Shah Suri
c) Akbar
d) Aurangzeb

Q.82: What symbolizes the greatness of Sher Shah?
a) His campaign of victory against Humayun
b) Excellent military leadership
c) Administrative reforms
d) Religious tolerance

Q.83: The Grand Trunk Road built by Sher Shah connected Punjab with which of the following?
a) Lahore
b) Multan
c) Agra
d) Eastern Bengal

Marathas: GK MCQs

Q.84: In Shiva ji’ s administration, the ‘Peshwa’ was referred to as
a) Minister of Religious Affairs
b) Defense Minister
c) Prime Minister
d) Minister of Justice

Q.85: Who was the guru (spiritual teacher) of Shiva ji?
a) Namdev
b) Ramdas
c) Eknath
d) Tukaram

Q.86: Who did Aurangzeb send to defeat Chhatrapati Shiva ji?
a) Raja Jaswant Singh
b) Raja Man Singh
c) Raja Bhagwan Das
d) Raja Jai Singh

Q.87: Through which treaty did Shiva ji transfer forts to the Mughals?
a) Chittor
b) Pune
c) Purandar
d) Torna

Q.88: Shiva ji’s coronation took place in-
a) 1627 AD
b) 1674 AD
c) 1680 AD
d) 1670 AD

Q.89: Where was the capital of Shivaji’s kingdom?
a) Pune
b) Karwar
c) Purandar
d) Raigad

Q.90: Arrange the following treaties in chronological order:
(1) Treaty of Amritsar
(2) Treaty of Bassein
(3) Treaty of Srirangapatnam
(4) Treaty of Salbai
a) 1, 3, 2, 4
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 3, 2, 1
d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Q.91: Which of the following European powers provided cannons to Shivaji?
a) Portuguese
b) Dutch
c) English
d) French

Ancient History of India MCQ for Competitive Exams

Important Ancient History of India GK MCQ questions for Competitive Exams. Topic wise practice set in English from previous year exam question papers of SSC, UPSSSC and other government jobs exams.

Prehistoric Era and Harappan Civilization

Q.1: The social system of the Harappan people was ……………?
a) Fairly egalitarian
b) Slave-labor based
c) Caste-based
d) Varna-based


Q.2: The houses in the Indus Valley were made of?
a) Bricks
b) Bamboo
c) Stone
d) Wood


Q.3: The inhabitants of Harappa were-
a) Rural
b) Urban
c) Nomadic
d) Tribal


Q.4: The Harappan people were the first to produce which of the following?
a) Coins
b) Bronze tools
c) Cotton
d) Barley


Q.5: The Harappan civilization belonged to which age?
a) Bronze Age
b) Neolithic Age
c) Paleolithic Age
d) Iron Age


Q.6: What was the script of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a) Tamil
b) Kharosthi
c) Unknown
d) Brahmi


Q.7: The first ancient city discovered in India was?
a) Harappa
b) Punjab
c) Mohenjo-daro
d) Sing


Q.8: Epigraphy refers to
a) Study of coins
b) Study of inscriptions
c) Study of epics
d) Study of geography


Q.9: The discovery of measuring scales proved that the Indus Valley people were familiar with measurement and weighing. Where was this discovery made?
a) Kalibangan
b) Harappa
c) Chanhudaro
d) Lothal


Q.10: One of the most significant sculptures of the Indus Valley Civilization was?
a) Nataraja
b) Dancing girl
c) Buddha
d) Narasimha


Q.11: Who among the following is NOT associated with the study of Harappan culture?
a) Charles Masson
b) Cunningham
c) M. Wheeler
d) P. S. Vats


Q.12: Who was the first to discover the Harappan Civilization?
a) Sir John Marshall
b) R. D. Banerjee
c) A. Cunningham
d) Daya Ram Sahni


Q.13: Which of the following was the port city of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a) Kalibangan
b) Lothal
c) Ropar
d) Mohenjo-daro


Q.14: Which of the following domesticated animals was NOT present in the terracotta figurines of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a) Buffalo
b) Sheep
c) Cow
d) Pig

Vedic Civilization: Ancient History GK MCQ

Q.15: Which of the following Vedas provides information about the civilization of the ancient Vedic era?

a) Rigveda
b) Yajurveda
c) Atharvaveda
d) Samaveda

Q.16: The primary food of the Vedic Aryans was?

a) Barley and Rice
b) Milk and its products
c) Rice and Pulses
d) Vegetables and Fruits

Q.17: Which metal was first used by the Vedic people?

a) Silver
b) Gold
c) Iron
d) Copper

Q.18: The Aryans were successful in their conflicts with pre-Aryans because –

a) They used elephants on a large scale
b) They were taller and stronger
c) They belonged to an advanced urban culture
d) They used chariots driven by horses

Q.19: In the Aryan civilization, the stages of life, in ascending order, were –

a) Brahmacharya-Grihastha-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa
b) Grihastha-Brahmacharya-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa
c) Brahmacharya-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa-Grihastha
d) Grihastha-Sannyasa-Vanaprastha-Brahmacharya

Q.20: In the early Vedic period, the Varna system was based on –

a) Education
b) Birth
c) Profession
d) Talent

Q.21: Who was the first European to call ‘Aryans’ a race?

a) Sir William Jones
b) H. H. Wilson
c) Max Muller
d) General Cunningham

Q.22: From where is the famous ‘Gayatri Mantra’ taken?

a) Yajurveda
b) Atharvaveda
c) Rigveda
d) Samaveda

Q.23: Which of the following crafts was not practiced by the Aryans?

a) Pottery
b) Jewelry
c) Carpentry
d) Blacksmithing

Q.24: Which of the following learned women challenged the invincible Yajnavalkya in a debate?

a) Ghosha
b) Apala
c) Maitreyi
d) Gargi

Buddhism and Jainism

Q.25: Where was Gautam Buddha born?

a) Kushinagar
b) Sarnath
c) Bodh Gaya
d) Lumbini

Q.26: To which clan did Buddha belong?

a) Jnatrika
b) Maurya
c) Shakya
d) Kuru

Q.27: Where was the First Buddhist Council held?

a) Vaishali
b) Kashmir
c) Rajgriha
d) Pataliputra

Q.28: What is the meaning of ‘Buddha’?

a) Enlightened
b) Preacher of religion
c) Talented
d) Powerful

Q.29: Identify the Buddhist literature from the following:

a) Tripitaka
b) Upanishads
c) Anga
d) Aranyakas

Q.30: Buddhism made a significant impact by connecting two sections of society. These sections were:

a) Merchants and Priests
b) Moneylenders and Slaves
c) Warriors and Traders
d) Women and Shudras

Q.31: Where did Buddha deliver his first sermon?

a) Gaya
b) Sarnath
c) Pataliputra
d) Vaishali

Q.32: The Gandhara art style of painting was initiated by which tradition?

a) Hinayana Sect
b) Mahayana Sect
c) Vaishnavism
d) Shaivism

Q.33: Metal coins first appeared during:

a) Harappan Civilization
b) Later Vedic Period
c) Buddha’s time
d) Mauryan Period

Q.34: Early Buddhist literature was composed in which language?

a) Pali
b) Sanskrit
c) Aramaic
d) Prakrit

Q.35: During whose reign was the engraving work in the famous Ajanta caves started?

a) Kadamba
b) Satavahana
c) Rashtrakuta
d) Maratha

Q.36: In Buddhism, the ‘Bull’ is associated with which event of Buddha’s life?

a) Birth
b) Great Renunciation
c) Enlightenment
d) Mahaparinirvana

Q.37: Where did Buddha attain Mahaparinirvana?

a) Kushinagar
b) Kapilavastu
c) Pava
d) Kundagrama

Q.38: Where did Buddha attain enlightenment?

a) Sarnath
b) Bodh Gaya
c) Kapilavastu
d) Rajgriha

Q.39: Which religion preaches that “Desire is the root cause of all suffering”?

a) Buddhism
b) Jainism
c) Sikhism
d) Hinduism

Q.40: The Tamil literary masterpiece ‘Jivaka Chintamani’ is associated with which religion?

a) Jain
b) Buddh
c) Hindu
d) Christian

Q.41: Who was Mahavira?

a) 21st Tirthankara
b) 24th Tirthankara
c) 23rd Tirthankara
d) 22nd Tirthankara

Q.42: Who was the mother of Mahavira?
a) Yashoda
b) Anojja
c) Trishala
d) Devnandi

Q.43: In which Kshatriya clan was Mahavira born?
a) Shakya
b) Jnatrika
c) Mallas
d) Licchavi

Q.44: Who was the famous ruler of ancient India who adopted Jainism in his later years?
a) Samudragupta
b) Bindusara
c) Chandragupta
d) Ashoka

Q.45: Which type of pottery is considered a symbol of the beginning of the second urbanization in India?

a) Painted Grey Ware
b) Northern Black Polished Ware
c) Ochre-colored Pottery
d) Black and Red Ware

Q.46: Which was the first ruler responsible for the rise of Magadha?

a) Bindusara
b) Ajatashatru
c) Bimbisara
d) Vasudeva

Q.47: Who was the teacher of Alexander the Great?

a) Darius
b) Cyrus
c) Socrates
d) Aristotle

Q.48: Alexander the Great died in 323 BCE in –

a) Persia
b) Babylon
c) Macedonia
d) Taxila

Q.49: In ancient times, which language was used to write source materials?

a) Sanskrit
b) Pali
c) Brahmi
d) Kharosthi

Q.50: Which of the following ancient Indian cities was home to the three learned sages Kapila, Gargi, and Maitreya?

a) Kashi
b) Mithila
c) Ujjayini
d) Pataliputra

Q.51: The ‘Mahabhashya’ was written by

a) Gargi
b) Manu
c) Bana
d) Patanjali

Maurya Period

Q.52: Who succeeded Chandragupta Maurya on the Mauryan throne?
a) Bimbisara
b) Ashoka
c) Bindusara
d) Vishnugupta

Q.53: Which of the following would best describe the Mauryan monarchy under Ashoka?

a) Enlightened despotism
b) Centralized autocracy
c) Oriental despotism
d) Guided democracy

Q.54: Which of the following was not a part of the Maurya dynasty?

a) Ajatashatru
b) Bindusara
c) Chandragupta Maurya
d) None of the above

Q.55: Who among the following was also known as ‘Devanam Priyadarshi’?

a) Maurya King Ashoka
b) Maurya King Chandragupta Maurya
c) Gautama Buddha
d) Lord Mahavira

Q.56: Which foreign traveler visited India first among the following?

a) Xuanzang (Hieun Tsang)
b) Megasthenes
c) I-Tsing
d) Fa-Hien

Q.57: Who wrote ‘Indica’?

a) I-Tsing
b) Megasthenes
c) Fa-Hien
d) Xuanzang (Hieun Tsang)

Q.58: Ashoka embraced Buddhism after being influenced by which Buddhist monk?

a) Vishnugupta
b) Upagupta
c) Brahmagupta
d) Brihadratha

Q.59: Chandragupta Maurya’s famous teacher, Chanakya, was associated with which educational center?

a) Taxila
b) Nalanda
c) Vikramshila
d) Vaishali

Q.60: The impact of the Kalinga War on Ashoka is most evident in

a) Edicts engraved on pillars
b) The 13th rock edict
c) Inscriptions
d) None of the above

Q.61: In all of his inscriptions, Ashoka consistently used which Prakrit language?

a) Ardha-Magadhi
b) Shuraseni
c) Magadhi
d) Angika

Q.62: Who was the first person to decipher Ashoka’s inscriptions, and when?

a) 1810 – Harry Smith
b) 1787 – John Tower
c) 1825 – Charles Metcalfe
d) 1837 – James Prinsep

Q.63: Who provided patronage to the Third Buddhist Council?

a) Kanishka
b) Ashoka
c) Mahakasyapa Upali
d) Sabakarni

Q.64: Which dynasty ruled Magadha after the Maurya dynasty?

a) Satavahana
b) Shunga
c) Nanda
d) Kanva

Post-Mauryan Period

Q.65: Who started the Shaka era, which is used by the Government of India?

a) Kanishka
b) Vikramaditya
c) Samudragupta
d) Ashoka

Q.66: Who initiated the famous ‘Silk Route’ for Indians?

a) Kanishka
b) Ashoka
c) Harsha
d) Fa-Hien

Q.67: Who introduced the ‘Yavanika’ (curtain) in Indian theatre?

a) Shakas
b) Parthians
c) Greeks
d) Kushans

Q.68: Charaka was the royal physician of which ruler?

a) Harsha
b) Chandragupta Maurya
c) Ashoka
d) Kanishka

Q.69: The school of art developed by the fusion of Indian and Greek styles during the Kushan period is known by which name?

a) Kushan Art
b) Persian Art
c) Gandhara Art
d) Mughal Art

Q.70: In which year did Kanishka ascend the throne?

a) 108 AD
b) 78 AD
c) 58 AD
d) 128 AD

Q.71: Which field saw the greatest development during the Kushan period?

a) Religion
b) Art
c) Literature
d) Architecture

Q.72: Which of the following pairs of authors and books is incorrect?

AuthorBook
(a) VishakhadattaMudrarakshasa
(b) KautilyaArthashastra
(c) MegasthenesIndica
(d) NagarjunaDhruvaswamini
Ancient History GK Questions in English

Q.73: In which museum is the collection of Kushan sculptures most prominently displayed?
a) Mathura Museum
b) Bombay Museum
c) Madras Museum
d) Delhi Museum

Q.74: Match the following:

(a) Vikram Samvat1. 248 A.D.
(b) Shaka Samvat2. 320 A.D.
(c) Kalachuri Samvat3. 58 B.C.
(d) Gupta Samvat4. 78 A.D.

a) A1, B2, C3, D4
b) A3, B4, C1, D2
c) A4, B3, C2, D1
d) A2, B1, C4, D3

Q.75: Who discovered the art of paper making in the 2nd century B.C.?

a) The Chinese
b) The Romans
c) The Greeks
d) The Mongols

Q.76: The Gandhara style of sculpture during the Kushan period is a mixture of which of the following?
a) Indian-Islamic style
b) Indian-Persian style
c) Indian-Chinese style
d) Indian-Greek (Hellenistic) style

Q.77: What is the name of the art style that combines characteristics of Indian and Greek art?
a) Shikhar
b) Varn
c) Nagan
d) Gandhara

Q.78: The literary figures during Kanishka’s reign were
a) Nagarjuna and Ashvaghosha
b) Vasumitra and Ashvaghosha
c) Charaka and Sushruta
d) Ashvaghosha and Kalidasa

Gupta Period

Q.79: Who was the first known Gupta ruler?
a) Shri Gupta
b) Chandragupta I
c) Ghatotkacha
d) Kumaragupta I

Q.80: Who was the founder of the Gupta era?
a) Ghatotkacha
b) Shri Gupta
c) Chandragupta
d) Samudragupta

Q.81: Which ‘Gupta’ king assumed the title of ‘Vikramaditya’?
a) Skandagupta
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandragupta II
d) Kumaragupta

Q.82: Which Gupta king stopped the Huns from invading India?
a) Kumaragupta
b) Samudragupta
c) Skandagupta
d) Chandragupta

Q.83: Harishena was the court poet of which of the following kings?
a) Ashoka
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandragupta
d) Harshavardhan

Q.84: India’s trade with the Roman Empire ended with the attack on Rome by whom?
a) Arabs
b) Hungarians
c) Huns
d) Turks

Q.85: Who among the following is called the Napoleon of India due to his conquests?
a) Skandagupta
b) Chandragupta
c) Brahmagupta
d) Samudragupta

Q.86: Which metal coins were issued the most during the Gupta period?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Iron

Q.87: Who was the court poet of Kalidasa?
a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
d) Harsh

Q.88: Who among the following was a great astronomer and mathematician during the Gupta rule?
a) Bhanugupta
b) Vagbhata
c) Aryabhata
d) Varahamihira

Q.89: Which of the following literary works is related to classical Sanskrit literature?
a) ‘Dhammapada’
b) ‘Vedas’
c) ‘Meghadutam’
d) ‘Dighanikaya’

Q.90: Which of the following is not a physician?
a) Sushruta
b) Charaka
c) Charvaka
d) Dhanvantari

Q.91: Who discovered the concept of zero?
a) Varahamihira
b) Aryabhata
c) Bhaskara
d) None of the above

South India

Q.92: The Sangam era is associated with the history of which region?
a) Banaras
b) Allahabad
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Khajuraho

Q.93: Which Chera king, known as the ‘Lal Chera,’ built the temple of Kannagi?
a) Elara
b) Karikala
c) Senguttuvan
d) Nedunjeral Adan

Q.94: Where did the Chalukyas establish their empire?
a) Far South
b) Malwa
c) South
d) Gujarat

Q.95: The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora represent which religions?
a) Only Buddhists
b) Buddhists and Jains
c) Hindus and Jains
d) Hindus, Buddhists, and Jains

Q.96: Which Chola king carried the Ganges from North to South?
a) Rajaraja Chola
b) Mahendra
c) Rajendra Chola
d) Parantaka

Q.97: Who constructed the Virupaksha Temple?
a) Chalukyas
b) Pallavas
c) Vakatakas
d) Satavahanas

Q.98: The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are of which religions?
a) Hindu and Buddhist
b) Buddhist and Jain
c) Hindu and Jain
d) Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain

Q.99: Which religion did the Chola kings patronize?
a) Jainism
b) Buddhism
c) Shaivism
d) Vaishnavism

Q.100: Which of the following great composers was a ruler of a state?
a) Tyagaraja
b) Syama Sastri
c) Muthuswami Dikshitar
d) Swathi Thirunal

Q.101: Which ancient Indian empire is incorrectly paired with its capital?
a) Maurya – Pataliputra
b) Pandya – Madurai
c) Pallava – Vellore
d) Kakatiya – Warangal

Q.102: Pulakeshin II was the greatest ruler of which dynasty?
a) Chalukyas of Kalyani
b) Pallavas of Kanchi
c) Cholas of Tamil Nadu
d) Chalukyas of Vatapi

Q.103: Which inscription is associated with the Chalukya emperor Pulakeshin II?
a) Maski
b) Hathigumpha
c) Aihole
d) Nasik

Q.104: The Rath Temples at Mahabalipuram were built during the reign of which Pallava ruler?
a) Mahendravarman I
b) Narasimhavarman I
c) Parameswaravarman I
d) Nandivarman I

Q.105: Which Chola king was the first to conquer Lanka (Sri Lanka)?
a) Aditya I
b) Rajaraja I
c) Rajendra
d) Vijayalaya

Q.106: The most powerful Chola king to conquer Sri Lanka was-
a) Rajaraja I
b) Rajendra II
c) Rajendra Chola
d) Gangai Kondachola

Post-Gupta Era: Ancient Indian History GK MCQ

Q.107: Which university became famous in the Post-Gupta period?

a) Kanchi
b) Taxila
c) Nalanda
d) Vallabhi

Q.108: Who among the following wrote ‘Harshacharita’?

a) Kalidasa
b) Banabhatta
c) Valmiki
d) Vyasa

Q.109: Who was the author of the great romantic drama ‘Kadambari’?

a) Banabhatta
b) Harshavardhana
c) Bhaskaravardhana
d) Bindusara

Q.110: Who wrote ‘Prithviraj Raso’ among the following?

a) Bhavabhuti
b) Jayadeva
c) Chand Bardai
d) Banabhatta

Q.111: Which of the following rulers established the famous Vikramashila University for Buddhists?

a) Mahipal
b) Devpal
c) Gopal
d) Dharmapal

Q.112: Who among the following was the last Buddhist king, also known as a great scholar and writer of Sanskrit?

a) Kanishka
b) Ashoka
c) Bimbisara
d) Harshavardhana

Q.113: Who built the Khajuraho temples?

a) Holkar
b) Scindia
c) Bundela Rajputs
d) Chandel Rajputs

Q.114: Which Rajput ruler among the following founded the city of Bhopal?

a) Prithviraj Chauhan
b) Dharmapal
c) Raja Bhoj
d) Jaychand

Q.115: During whose reign did Xuanzang visit India?

a) Chandragupta I
b) Chandragupta II
c) Harshavardhana
d) Rudradaman

Q.116: Who was given the title ‘Prince of Pilgrims’?

a) Fa Hien
b) I-tsing
c) Xuanzang
d) Megasthenes

Q.117: The two greatest Indian artists, Bitpal and Dhiman, belonged to which period?

a) Pala period
b) Gupta period
c) Maurya period
d) Pathan period

Q.118: In which Indian state is Nalanda University located?

a) Bengal
b) Bihar
c) Odisha
d) Uttar Pradesh

Q.119: Who was the main proponent of the Advaita philosophy?
a) Madhvacharya
b) Shankaracharya
c) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
d) Ramanujacharya

Q.120: Who defeated Harshavardhana?

a) Prabhakar Vardhan
b) Pulakeshin II
c) Narasimhavarman Pallava
d) Shashanka

Q.121: Who defeated the Arabs in 738 AD?

a) Pratiharas
b) Rashtrakutas
c) Palas
d) Chalukyas

Q.122: Which of the following was not a center of learning in ancient India?
a) Takshashila
b) Vikramshila
c) Nalanda
d) Kaushambi

Q.123: The Great Stupa of Sanchi is located in
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh

Q.124: The Kalinga king Kharavela patronized which religion?
a) Hinduism (Vaishnavism)
b) Shaivism
c) Buddhism
d) Jainism

Topic Wise GK MCQ

Topic Wise GK MCQ Questions in Hindi and English. History, Geography, Indian Polity and Constitution, Indian Economy, Art and Culture, General Science, Sports, Book and Miscellany Questions from the previous year exam paper.

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MCQ on Vijaynagara and Bahmani Kingdoms

GK MCQ questions on Vijaynagara and Bahmani Kingdoms for preparation of competitive exams. Question Answer from previous year exam question paper of UPSC, SSC, Bank, UPSSSC.

Qns 1 : Which among the following was the first dynasty of Vijayanagara?
(a) Hoysala dynasty
(b) Sangama dynasty
(c) Suluva dynasty
(d) Tuluva dynasty

Qns 2 : Which among the following title was adopted by Deva Raya-II?
(a) Gajabetegara
(b) Andhara Bhoja
(c) Dakshinapati
(d) Abhinav Bhoja

Qns 3 : Which among the following Vijayanagara ruler patronised the Madhwa saint Sripadaraya and Kannada poet Kavi Linga?
(a) Saluva Narasimha
(b) Immadi Narasimha
(c) Deva Raya II
(d) Krishnadeva Raya

Qns 4 : Who was the founder of Tuluva dynasty?
(a) Narasu Nayak
(b) Immadi Narasimha
(c) Vira Narasimha
(d) None of the above

Qns 5 : Which city was founded by Krishnadeva Raya?
(a) Warangal
(b) Nagalapur
(c) Udayagiri
(d) Khandragiri

Qns 6 : Who got the monumental Rayagopurams in front of the temples at Hampi, Tiruvannamalai, Chidambaram, Sri Rangam, Tirupati etc constructed?
(a) Vidyaranya
(b) Krishnadeva Raya
(c) Harihara
(d) Rajaraja

Qns 7 : Who among the ruler of Vijayanagar empire after successful campaign against Bahmani kingdom adopted the title “establisher of the Yavana Kingdom”?
(a) Krishnadeva Raya
(b) Saluva Narasimha
(c) Deva Raya II
(d) Achyuta Raya

Qns 8 : Krishnadeva raya’s Amuktamalyada is a work on
(a) his political ideas.
(b) public administration.
(c) administration of justice and foreign affairs.
(d) All of the above

Qns 9 : Which of the following are true about Krishnadeva Raya?
(a) He was known as Andhra Bhoja.
(b) He authored ‘Amuktamalyada’ book on polity in Telugu and also a Sanskrit drama called ‘Jambavati Kalyanam’.
(c) His court has adorned by eight celebrated poets called ‘ashtadiggajas’
(d) All of the above

Qns 10 : The Vijayanagara Empire received its death blow at the battle of
(a) Talikota in 1565
(b) Panipat in 1661
(c) Talikota in 1665
(d) Raichur in 1510

Qns 11 : The Battle of Talikota was fought between
(a) Akbar and Sultan of Malwa.
(b) Vijayanagara and the Bahmani Kingdom
(c) Vijayanagara and combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar and Golconda.
(d) Sher Shah and Humayun.

Qns 12 : Who among the following was the last dynasty of Vijayanagara Empire?
(a) Saluva dynasty
(b) Tuluva dynasty
(c) Aravidu dynasty
(d) Sangama dynasty

Qns 13 : Who among the following travellers was from Italy and visited Vijayanagar Kingdom in the fifteenth century?
(a) Nikitin
(b) Fa-Hien
(c) Bernier
(d) Nicolo Conti

Qns 14 : Which one of the following pairs of travellers and their nationality is not correctly matched? [NDA 2019]
(a) Ibn Battuta – Moroccan
(b) Duarte Barbosa – Protuguese
(c) Jean Baptiste Tavernier – Dutch
(d) Niccolao Manucci – Venetian

Qns 15 : The ruins of Vijayanagara (Hampi) were brought to public light in the year 1800 by the following surveyor and engineer.
(a) James Prinsep
(b) Colin Mackenzie
(c) James Rennell
(d) Charles Metcalf

Qns 16 : The rulers of Vijaynagar promoted
(a) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(b) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(c) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(d) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

Qns 17 : Which of the following temples is an example of wall inscription on which stories of Ramayana and Mahabharat are inscribed?
(a) Tadapatri
(b) Varadraja
(c) Parvati
(d) Vithalswami

Qns 18 : The term ‘Amaram’ in the Vijayanagar Empire stood for
(a) Grants given to the Brahamanas
(b) Military grants
(c) Grants given to scholar and poets
(d) Grants given to the widows and the poor

Qns 19 : Consider the following statements about Vijayanagar Empire.
I. Vijaynagar was noted for its markets dealing in spices, textiles and precious stones.
II. Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was characterised by the strain within the imperial structure.
III. The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to be governed by the Rayas.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only III
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) All of these

Qns 20 : Which of the following was the first capital of the Bahmani Kingdom?
(a) Bidar
(b) Gulbarga
(c) Daultabad
(d) Hussainabad

Qns 21 : In how many provinces did Bahmani kingdom under Alaudin Hasan was divided?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Eight
(d) Two

Qns 22 : Who was the ruler of Golconda when Aurangzeb seized the fort of
Golconda in 1687?
(a) Abul Hasan Qutb Shah
(b) Sikandar Adil Shah
(c) Ali Adil Shah II
(d) Shayasta Khan

Qns 23 : The famous Gol Gumbaz of Bijapur was built by which among the following Deccan Sultan?
(a) Mohammad Adil Shah
(b) Mahmud Gawan
(c) Yusuf Adil Shah
(d) Ismail Adil Shah

Qns 24 : The world famous Koh-i-Noor diamond was excavated from the mines of
(a) Odisha
(b) Chota nagpur
(c) Bijapur
(d) Golconda

Qns 25 : The Bahmani architecture in the Deccan is marked by its distinct originality and independent style. Which of the following statements about Bahmani architecture are correct?
I. It derived its elements from the architectural styles of the Delhi Sultanate and that of distant Persia.
II. The forts built by the Bahmanis were undoubtedly the greatest monuments far exceeding any of the same period in Europe.
III. Bahmani architecture did reflect harmonious blend of both Hindi and Islamic styles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I and II

Ancient India History GK Questions in English

Ancient India History GK Questions in English for the preparation of competitive exams. MCQ includes from the Historical Sources and Pre-Historic Period, Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation, Vedic Era and Mahajanapadas, Religious Movements of 6th Century, Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Period, Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period, Early Medieval Period (800-1200 CE) and Sangam Period topics.

Important one liners of Ancient India History

  1. Which ancient Indian text is considered the oldest surviving literature in the world? (Answer: Rigveda)
  2. The Great Bath, an impressive structure from ancient India, was discovered in which civilization? (Answer: Indus Valley Civilization)
  3. Which ruler is known for his rock-cut architecture and the construction of the famous Kailasa Temple in Ellora? (Answer: King Krishna I of the Rashtrakuta dynasty)
  4. Who authored the famous treatise on statecraft known as the Arthashastra? (Answer: Chanakya or Kautilya)
  5. What is the sacred river mentioned in ancient Indian texts, often referred to as the “Ganga” of the South? (Answer: Godavari River)
  6. The Battle of Kalinga, a turning point in Indian history, was fought by which ancient Indian emperor? (Answer: Emperor Ashoka)
  7. Which ancient Indian kingdom was known for its expertise in maritime trade and shipbuilding? (Answer: Chola Empire)
  8. The rock-cut caves of Ajanta and Ellora are located in which Indian state? (Answer: Maharashtra)
  9. Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire, one of the largest empires in ancient Indian history? (Answer: Chandragupta Maurya)
  10. The ancient university of Nalanda, renowned for its excellence in education, was located in which present-day country? (Answer: India)
  11. Which ancient Indian ruler is credited with the construction of the world-famous temple complex at Khajuraho? (Answer: King Chandel of the Chandela dynasty)
  12. Who composed the epic Sanskrit poem, the Ramayana? (Answer: Valmiki)
  13. The famous Iron Pillar, known for its rust-resistant composition, is located in which ancient Indian city? (Answer: Delhi)
  14. Which ancient Indian kingdom is associated with the famous rock-cut caves of Elephanta? (Answer: Rashtrakuta dynasty)
  15. Who is considered the father of Indian surgery and authored the Sushruta Samhita, an ancient medical treatise? (Answer: Sushruta)
  16. The Ajanta Caves primarily showcase the artistic influence of which religion in ancient India? (Answer: Buddhism)
  17. The ancient city of Pataliputra, present-day Patna, served as the capital of which ancient Indian dynasty? (Answer: Maurya Empire)
  18. Who is considered the greatest ruler of the Gupta Empire, known for his patronage of art, literature, and science? (Answer: Chandragupta II, also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya)
  19. The ancient Indian numeral system, including the concept of zero, was developed during the reign of which dynasty? (Answer: Gupta Empire)

Ancient Indian History MCQ in English

The topic wise Ancient India History GK MCQ Questions in English button with link are given below for online practice.

Historical Sources and Pre-Historic Period

Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation

The Vedic Era and Mahajanapadas

Religious Movements of 6th Century

Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Period

The Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period

Early Medieval Period (800-1200 CE)

Sangam Period

Sangam Period MCQ for Competitive Exams

Sangam Age / Period History GK MCQ in for the practice of UPSC, SSC competitive exams. The objective questioned in English are sourced from the previous year exam question paper of various entrance and government jobs examinations.

Sangam Period MCQ

Qns 1 : The word ‘Sangam’ is associated in Tamil history with
(a) The literature produced during the reign of the great Pallava Dynasty of Kanchi.
(b) The poems written in praise of the Pandyan kings of the early Christian Era.
(c) The court poetry of China kings who were famous for patronising artists.
(d) A college or Assembly (literary academy) of Tamil scholar held under the royal patronage of Pandyan king at Madurai.

Qns 2 : The most popular God of the Tamil during the Sangam age was
(a) Indra
(b) Murugan
(c) Varuna
(d) Tirumal

Qns 3 : In the context of South India, Cave script means

(a) Undeciphered graffiti marks
(b) Tamil Brahmi
(c) Tamil Grantha
(d) Pallava Grantha

Qns 4 : ‘Tirukural’ forms part of

(a) Pattupattu
(b) Kilkanakku
(c) Melkanakku
(d) Ettutogal

Qns 5 : Who among the following was the author of the Tamil Ramayanam or Ramavataram?

(a) Kamban
(b) Kuttan
(c) Nannaya
(d) Tikkana

Qns 6 : In Sangam literature ‘Tolkapiyyam’ is a text of

(a) Tamil Poetry
(b) Tamil Grammar
(c) Tamil Architecture
(d) Tamil Polity

Qns 7 : Who among the following are known for their Telugu translation of the Mahabharata?
I. Kamban
II. Kuttan
III. Nannayya
IV. Tikkana
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) IV and I

Qns 8 : Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?

(a) Cauvery
(b) Godavari
(c) Saraswati
(d) Ganges

Qns 9 : Who is the author of Manimekalai?

(a) Kovalan
(b) Sathanar
(c) Ilango Adigal
(d) Tirutakkatevar

Qns 10 : Which of the following are the characters of the epic ‘Manimekalai’?
I. Udayakumara
II. Sudhamati
III. Kural
IV. Adikal
Codes
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, III and IV

Qns 11 : Where was the capital of Sangam period Chola located?

(a) Kaveripattinam
(b) Madurai
(c) Uraiyur
(d) Cochin

Qns 12 : The protracted Civil War between two Chola chieftains Nalankili and Nedunkilli, were mentioned by which poet?

(a) Kamban
(b) Kuttan
(c) Nannay
(d) Kovur Kilar

Qns 13 : “In a space in which an elephant could lie, one can produce enough grain to feed seven”. This was stated in Sangam poems for which of the following Kingdom?

(a) Chola
(b) Chera
(c) Pandyas
(d) Rashtrakutas

Qns 14 : Where was the capital of Chera Kingdom?

(a) Puhar
(b) Kaveripattinam
(c) Karaikal
(d) Vanjji

Qns 15 : ‘Paripadal’ mentions a Chera king as a renowned musician. He was

(a) Cheraman urmporai
(b) Killivalavn
(c) Udiyangeral
(d) Attanatti

Qns 16 : Consider the following statements.
I. Senguttuvan, the son of Imayavaramban was the contemporary of Yajna Sri Satkarni.
II. The Silappadikaram gives a detailed account of the exploits of Senguttuvan.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Qns 17 : Ginger and cinnamon were produced in large quantities in the Pandya country is mentioned by
(a) Megasthenes
(b) Ptolemy
(c) Ibn Saud
(d) Marco Polo

Qns 18 : According to Sangam texts, the terms Kon, Ko and Mannan were attributed to which of the following?

(a) Prime Minister
(b) Revenue Minister
(c) Commander of the Army
(d) King

Qns 19 : Match the following.

List I (Officer)List II (Function)
A. Amaichhar1. Purohits
B. Anthanar2. Ministers
C. Senaptiyar3. Spies
D. Orar4. Senapati
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4

Qns 20 : Who were ‘Umanar’ in the Sangam Age?

(a) The retailers in salt
(b) Military commanders
(c) Shopkeepers
(d) Agriculturists

Qns 21 : Which one of the following document gives evidence of a temple of Augustus at Muziris in South India?

(a) Periplus of the Erythraean Sea
(b) Nearchus
(c) Genealogical tables
(d) Sangam literature

Qns 22 : The term ‘Yavanpriya’ mentioned in ancient Sanskrit text denoted

(a) a fine variety of Indian Muslim
(b) irory
(c) Damsels sent to the Greek Court for dance performance
(d) pepper

Qns 23 : From the excavations of which ancient site, information has been gathered regarding brisk trade relations between India and Rome, during the early centuries of Christian era.

(a) Madurai
(b) Tamralipti
(c) Tondi
(d) Arikamedu

Qns 24 : Which one of the following ports was known as Poduke to the author of the ‘Periplus of the Erythraean Sea.’

(a) Arikamedu
(b) Taniralipti
(c) Korkai
(d) Barbaricum

Qns 25 : Amphora jar is a

(a) perforated jar
(b) tall double handle jar
(c) painted grey jar
(d) black and red ware jar

Qns 26 : Consider the following statements.
I. In the Sangam age, the exchange was based on a kind of barter system.
II. There were certain fixed points of exchange called ‘avanam’.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Both I and II
(c) Only II
(d) Neither I nor II

Qns 27 : Match the following.

List I (Port)List II (Location)
A. Barygaza1. Malabar Coast
B. Muziris2. Present Day Mumbai Coast
C. Sopara3. The Eastern Coast of India
D. Suvamabhumi4. At the North of the Narmada River
Sangam Period MCQ
Codes
    A B C D 
(a) 4 2 1 3 
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 1 4 2 
(d) 4 1 2 3

Qns 28 : Which one of the following objects of Roman manufacture has been most abundantly found in India?

(a) Pot sherds
(b) Bronze icons
(c) Lamps
(d) Coins

Qns 29 : Which of the following Tamil text has been called ‘Laghuveda’?

(a) Nandhikalambagam
(b) Kalingattuparani
(c) Periyarpuranam
(d) Kural

Qns 30 : In the Battle of Venni, whom did the Chola king, Karikala defeat?

(a) Pandyas and Cheras
(b) Satvahanas and Sakas
(c) Pallavas and Cheras
(d) Pandyas and Bactrians

Thanks for attempt Sangam Period MCQ questions for UPSC, SSC Competitive Exams.

Early Medieval Period (800-1200 CE) MCQs

Early Medieval Period (800-1200 CE) MCQs : History GK Objective questions in English for the preparation of UPSC, SSC, Competitive exams.

Early Medieval Period : GK MCQs

Qns 1 : Who was the real founder of Pratihara Empire?

(a) Vatsraja
(b) Mahendrapala I
(c) Mahendrapala II
(d) Mahipala

Qns 2 : Al-Masudi, an Arabian traveller, came to India, in the reign of which of the following ruler?

(a) Nagabhatta III
(b) Gopal
(c) Amoghvarsh
(d) Mahipala I

Qns 3 : Which of the following was the greatest ruler of Gahadavala dynasty?

(a) Mahendrapal
(b) Govindachandra
(c) Chandradev
(d) None of the above

Qns 4 : Dhangdev was the ruler of which dynasty?

(a) Chandelas of Jejakabhukti
(b) Parmar of Malwa
(c) Kalchuri of Mahishmati
(d) Kalchuri of Tripuri

Qns 5 : Which ruler has been called as ‘Kaviraja’ in one of his inscription?

(a) Pratihara Ruler Mihirbhoj
(b) Paramara Ruler Bhoj
(c) Pala Ruler Dharmpal
(d) Chalukya Ruler Kumarpa

Qns 6 : The great Jain scholar Hemchandra adorned the court of

(a) Amoghavarsha
(b) Kumarapala
(c) Jaysimha Siddharaja
(d) Vidhyadhara

Qns 7 : ‘Rajatarangini’ written by Kalhana is associated with which of the following?

(a) Chandragupta’s reign
(b) Anthology of Lyrics
(c) History of Kashmir
(d) Reign of Krishna Deva Raya

Qns 8 : One consistent feature found in the history of Southern India was the growth of small regional kingdoms rather than large empires because of

(a) The absence of minerals like iron.
(b) Too many divisions in the social structure.
(c) The absence of vast areas of fertile land.
(d) The scarcity of manpower.

Qns 9 : Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta Empire.
I. It was founded by Dantidurga by overthrowing the Chalukyas of Vatapi (Badami) and the capital was fixed at Manyakheta.
II. The Rashtrakuta kings, Dhruva, Govinda III and Indra III invaded North India.
III. The king Amoghvarsha, wrote ‘Kavirajamaraga’, the earliest Kannada book on poetics.
IV. The king Krishna I, built the Kailash (Shiva) temple at Ellora.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) All of these

Qns 10 : The Sanskrit poet and dramatist Kalidasa finds a mention in

(a) Aihole inscription of Pulkeshin II.
(b) Gwalior inscription of Mihir Bhoja.
(c) Karmadanda Sivalinga inscription of Kumaragupta I.
(d) Mathura Pillar inscription of Chandragupta II

Qns 11 : Who was the founder of Chalukyas of Vengi?

(a) Bhanuvardhan
(b) Vishnuvardhan
(c) Vijayaditya I
(d) Pulkeshin IV

Qns 12 : The Chola Era was famous for

(a) Religious development
(b) Village assemblies
(c) Warfare with Rashtrakutas
(d) Trade from Sri Lanka

Qns 13 : Who assumed the title of ‘Gangaikondachola’?

(a) Rajendra I
(b) Rajaraja I
(c) Rajadhiraja I
(d) Kulotunga I

Qns 14 : What was the occasion for the building of a new capital near the mouth of the Cauveri called Gangaikonda Cholapuram by Rajendra I ?

(a) His victory over the Western Gangas.
(b) Successful conclusion of his campaign against the Eastern Gangas of Odisha.
(c) The performance of an Ashvamedha yajna after his all round victories.
(d) The successful campaign of his armies in North India.

Qns 15 : Which one of the following is a special feature of the Chola Polity?

(a) Autonomous village panchayats.
(b) Division of kingdom into the mandalas.
(c) Monarchical system.
(d) Enlightened Council of Ministers.

Qns 16 : What was the administrative innovation introduced by Rajaraja?

(a) He abolished tolls, control and local taxes on merchandise.
(b) He made it a practice to send only the members of the royal household as viceroys of the provinces.
(c) He introduced the system of associating the yuvaraja with the administration of the country.
(d) He abolished the Council of Ministers and replaced it with a body consisting of representatives of village assemblies.

Qns 17 : Consider the following statements about Rajaraja.
I. The economic motive behind his conquest of Cheras, Pandyas and Sri Lanka was to bring the trade with South-East Asian countries under his control and open the sea routes to China.
II. His greatest historical contribution was that he introduced the tradition of beginning the Chola epigraphs with historical introductions.
III. In the field of agrarian and fiscal administration, he introduced the system of auditing of the accounts of the village assemblies and other local bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) All of these

Qns 18 : The Pala, Pratiharas and the Rashtrakutas fought for control over which city?

(a) Ujjain
(b) Patliputra
(c) Kannauj
(d) Kaushamb

Qns 19 : Which of the following was not one of the feudal obligations of the feudatories to the overlord?

(a) Attendance at court and payment of tribute to the overlord.
(b) For smaller feudatories, permission from the king for any changes in the administration of their property.
(c) Maintenance of a specified number of troops and payment of tribute of the king.
(d) Permission of the king for matrimonial alliances.

Qns 20 : Consider the following statements :
I. Bhukti was one of the administrative unit during early medieval period.
II. Vishyas were the topmost administrative unit in hierarchy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Qns 21 : Which one of the following is not true about the Varna/Caste situation during the early medieval India?

(a) The number of castes increased manifold.
(b) The guilds of artisans were gradually hardened into castes for lack of mobility post Gupta times.
(c) The absorption of the tribal people added to the variety of the Shudras and so called mixed castes.
(d) The distance between the Vaishyas and Shudras increased during this period.

Qns 22 : Match the following.

List I (Types of Tax)List II (Description of
Tax)
A. Hiranya1. King’s share of produce
B. Bhaga2. Tax on special produce taken in cash
C. Pratya3. Toll tax
D. Uparnik4. Tax taken from border areas
Codes
    A B C D 
(a) 1 2 3 4 
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 
(d) 4 3 2 1

Qns 23 : Which of the following did not form a part of the donations made to the temple?

(a) Money
(b) Slaves
(c) Livestock
(d) Hand

Qns 24 : Which of the following statements is true in the early medieval period?

(a) There was expansion of Buddhism.
(b) There was a revival and expansion of Hinduism.
(c) Islam made major inroads.
(d) Jainism disappeared completely.

Qns 25 : Assertion (A) Jainism in early medieval India received a setback.
Reason (R) The decline of internal trade in early medieval India hit the trading community hard.
Codes
(a) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Qns 26 : Where is the famous Virupakasha temple located?

(a) Bhadrachalam
(b) Chidambaram
(c) Hampi
(d) Srikalahasi

Qns 27 : The tallest among all early medieval temple of India is

(a) Nataraja temple at Chidambaram.
(b) Brihadeswara temple at Tanjore.
(c) Vithalswamy temple at Hampi.
(d) The great temple at Sriangam.

Qns 28 : Sun temple is situated at

(a) Puri
(b) Khajuraho
(c) Konark
(d) Gaya

Qns 29 : Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval India?
I. Vijnanesvara
II. Hemadri
III. Rajhasekhara
IV. Jimutavahana

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and IV

Qns 30 : Match the following.

List IList II
A. Gahadavalas1. Bundelkhand
B. Chauhanas2. Gujarat
C. Chalukyas3. Kannauj
D. Chandelas4. Ajmer
Codes
    A B C D 
(a) 1 2 3 4 
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 
(d) 3 4 2 1

Gupta Empire MCQ for Competitive exams

The Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period Empire MCQ for Competitive exams. The Gupta Age objective question answer in English are selected from the previous year exam question paper of UPSC, SSC CGL, CHSL and UPSSSC PET.

Gupta Empire MCQ

Qns 1 : Ajanta caves were built during period of

(a) Gupta
(b) Kushana
(c) Maurya
(d) Chalukya

Qns 2 : Who is called the Napoleon of Ancient India?

(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Pushyamitra
(c) Kanishka
(d) Samudragupta

Qns 3 : The Gupta Emperor who defeated the ‘Hunas’ was

(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta-II
(c) Skandagupta
(d) Ramagupta

Qns 4 : Which Gupta ruler had issued the largest varieties of coins?

(a) Chandragupta
(b) Kumaragupta
(c) Chandragupta
(d) Samudragupta

Qns 5 : With reference to the history of India, the terms ‘Kulyavapa‘ and ‘Dronavapa‘ denote

(a) Measurement of land
(b) Coins of different monetary value
(c) Classification of urban land
(d) Religious rituals

Qns 6 : Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

(a) Swapnavasavadatta
(b) Malvikagnimitra
(c) Meghaduta
(d) Ratnavali

Qns 7 : The ancient Indian Play Mudrarakshasa of Vishakhadatta has its subject on

(a) A conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient Hindu lore.
(b) A romantic story of an aryan prince and a tribal woman.
(c) The story of the power struggle between two Aryan tribes.
(d) The court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya.

Qns 8 : Which of the following drama was not written by Kalidas?

(a) Malvikagnimitram
(b) Abhigyan Shakuntalam
(c) Kumarasambhavam
(d) Janaki Haranam

Qns 9 : Which one of the following literary works did not belong to the Gupta period?

(a) Abhijnana shakuntalam
(b) Amarakosha
(c) Charaka Samhita
(d) Mrichakatika

Qns 10 : Which of the following classical works of literature were written during the Gupta era?
I. Amarkosh
II. Kamasutra
III. Meghadutta
IV. Madrarakshasa
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, II and III only
(d) I, II, III and IV

Qns 11 : Among the four works mentioned below which one is encyclopedic in nature?

(a) Amarakosha
(b) Siddhanta Shiromani
(c) Brihat Samhita
(d) Ashtanga Hridayam

Qns 12 : Which of the following clearly define ‘Mitaksara”?

(a) A work on astronomy.
(b) A treatise on ancient Hindu law of inheritance.
(c) A text on agriculture.
(d) A compendium of medicine.

Qns 13 : With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) It was considered a source of income for the state, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Qns 14 : Centres located in Gujarat, Bengal, Deccan and Tamil country during the Gupta period were associated with which of the following?

(a) Textile manufacture
(b) Gems and precious stones
(c) Handicrafts
(d) Opium cultivation

Qns 15 : Which of the following inscriptions reveals information about silk weavers guild?

(a) Dashpur Inscription
(b) Prayag Prashasti
(c) Eran Inscription
(d) Hathigumpha Inscription

Qns 16 : Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists.

List I (Type of Land)List II (Meaning)
A. Urvara1. Land watered by a river
B. Maru2. Fertile land
C. Nadimatrika3. Land watered by rain
D. Devamatrika4. Desert land

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Qns 17 : Who accepts only perception?

(a) Jaina
(b) Charvaka
(c) Buddha
(d) Samkhya

Qns 18 : There was different causes for the downfall of the Gupta Empire. Which one was not the cause among the statements given below?

(a) Huna invasion
(b) Feudal set-up of administration
(c) Acceptance of Buddhism by the later Guptas
(d) Arab invasion

Qns 19 : Which one of the following inscriptions mentions Pulakeshin-II military success against Harshavardhana?

(a) Allahabad Pillar Inscription
(b) Aihole Inscription
(c) Damodarpur Copper-Plate Inscription
(d) Bilsad Inscription

Qns 20 : Which of the following is not the work of Harsha?

(a) Ratnavali
(b) Nagananda
(c) Harshacharit
(d) Priyadarshika

Qns 21 : In whose reign-period the Chinese traveller Hiuen-Tsang visited India?

(a) Chandragupta-II
(b) Harsha
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Chandragupta-I

Qns 22 : During Hiuen-Tsang tour in India most famous city for the production of cotton clothes was

(a) Varanasi
(b) Mathura
(c) Pataliputra
(d) Kanchi

Qns 23 : The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang), who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
II. As regards punishment for offences ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
III. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) II and III
(d) All of these

Qns 24 : Which of the following was the most powerful ruler of Maitraka dynasty?

(a) Dhruvsen-I
(b) Dhruvsen-II
(c) Vigrahapal
(d) Yashodharman

Qns 25 : Generally, which one of the following, had the first right over ‘stridhan’, in case of succession?

(a) Husband
(b) Son
(c) Daughters
(d) Daughter-in-law

Qns 26 : During post Gupta period, main business centre was

(a) Kannauj
(b) Ujjain
(c) Dhar
(d) Devgiri

Qns 27 : Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?

(a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates.
(b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts.
(c) A bill of exchange
(d) An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates.

Qns 28 : Human sacrifice was prevalent in which of the following sect?

(a) Pasupat
(b) Kapalik
(c) Aghori
(d) Lingayat

Qns 29 : The rulers of which of the following dynasty have been called as ‘Shriparvatiya’ in Puranas?

(a) Vakatakas
(b) Ikshvakus
(c) Shakas
(d) Kharavelas

Qns 30 : The coins of which of the following reveal their love for music?

(a) Mauryas
(b) Nandas
(c) Guptas
(d) Cholas

Thanks for attempt online practice set of Gupta Empire MCQ for the preparation of upcoming Competitive exams.

Religious Movements of 6th Century BCE

Religious Movements of 6th Century BCE MCQ Questions from the previous year exam question paper. This practice set of objective question answer is very useful for the preparation of upcoming UPSC, SSC, UPSSSC competitive exams.

Religious Movements of 6th Century BCE Questions

Qns 1 : The originator of the Jain religion is ……

(a) Arya Sudharma
(b) Mahavira Swami
(c) Parshvanatha
(d) Rishabhdev

Qns 2 : In Jain religion, which word is used for ‘Complete Intellect’?

(a) Jin
(b) Ratna
(c) Kaivalya
(d) Nirvana

Qns 3 : Which of the following is not the ‘Tri Ratna’ of Jainism?

(a) Right faith
(b) Right knowledge
(c) Right view
(d) Right conduct

Qns 4 : The word Tirthankar is related to

(a) Buddhists
(b) Christians
(c) Hindus
(d) Jains

Qns 5 : Who was the first Tirthankara of Jain religion?

(a) Parsvanath
(b) Rishabhanatha
(c) Mahavira
(d) Chetaka

Qns 6 : Name the last Tirthankara.

(a) Parshvanatha
(b) Mahavira
(c) Siddhartha
(d) Subhadra

Qns 7 : Where was Mahavira Swami born?

(a) Kundagrama
(b) Pataliputra
(c) Magadha
(d) Vaishali

Qns 8 : Which philosophy is recognised as ‘Tri Ratna’?

(a) Vedic Philosophy
(b) Nayaya Philosophy
(c) Yoga Philosophy
(d) Jain Philosophy

Qns 9 : The sacred books of Jains are called

(a) Agama Sidhanta
(b) Angas
(c) Parvas
(d) Upangas

Qns 10 : Gautama Buddha was born at

(a) Vaishali
(b) Lumbini
(c) Kapilvastu
(d) Pataliputra

Qns 11 : Which of these is another name of Buddha?

(a) Parth
(b) Prachhanna
(c) Mihir
(d) None of these

Qns 12 : Who amongst the following is known as the ‘Light of Asia’?

(a) Jesus Christ
(b) Lord Buddha
(c) Paigamber Mohammad
(d) Zarathustra

Qns 13 : Gautama Buddha attained “Mahaparinirvana” in kingdom of

(a) Aung
(b) Magadha
(c) Malla
(d) Vatsa

Qns 14 : Who was Alara Kalama?

(a) A disciple of Buddha.
(b) A distinguished Buddhist monk.
(c) A king of Buddha’s time.
(d) A teacher of Buddha.

Qns 15 : Where did Gautama Buddha deliver his first sermon?

(a) Bodh Gaya
(b) Shravasti
(c) Sarnath
(d) Vaishali

Qns 16 : Where did Gautama Buddha attain Nirvana (enlightenment)?

(a) Lumbini
(b) Sarnath
(c) Kushinagar
(d) Bodh Gaya

Qns 17 : Sarnath is in the state of

(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Qns 18 : Mahaparinirvana Temple is located at

(a) Kushinagar
(b) Sarnath
(c) Bodh Gaya
(d) Shravasti

Qns 19: The Stupa site which is not connected with any incident of Lord Buddha’s life, is

(a) Sarnath
(b) Sanchi
(c) Bodh Gaya
(d) Kushinagar

Qns 20 : Name the ‘Mudra’ which is represented by the Gandharan Buddha image of Sarnath first Sermon.

(a) Abhaya
(b) Dhyana
(c) Dharmachakra
(d) Bhumisparsha

Qns 21 : Who of the following was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha?

(a) Bhadrabahu
(b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Parshvanatha
(d) Vardhamana Mahavira

Qns 22 : Which of the following statements is/are correct about Lord Buddha?
I. He was born in Kapilvastu.
II. He attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya.
III. He discarded the Vedic religion.
IV. He preached noble truths.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) II and III
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV

Qns 23 : Match the following.

         List I                                   List II
(Event Related to Buddha)        (Place)
A.  Birth of  Buddha                1. Bodh Gaya
B.  Enlightenment                   2. Lumbini
C.  First Sermon                    3. Kushinagar(Kasia)
D.  Death of Buddha                 4. Sarnath
                                    5. Rajgriha
    Codes
    A B C D            A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4        (b) 1 3 4 5
(c) 2 1 4 3        (d) 4 2 5 3

Qns 24 : Why was Nalanda-University famous in the world?

(a) Medical Science
(b) Philosophy
(c) Buddhist Religious Philosophy
(d) Chemical Science

Qns 25 : Who was the author of ‘Buddha Charita’?

(a) Asvaghosa
(b) Nagasena
(c) Nagarjuna
(d) Vasumitra

Qns 26: ‘Tripitaka’ texts are related to which religion?

(a) Vedic religion
(b) Buddhism
(c) Jainism
(d) Shaivism

Qns 27 : Who was the founder of Nalanda University?

(a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(b) Kumargupta
(c) Dharmapal
(d) Phushyagupta

Qns 28 : Who founded the Lingayat Movement?

(a) Basava
(b) Ramanuja
(c) Shankaracharya
(d) Kambar

Qns 29 : Who were the first to worship Vasudeva Krishna?

(a) Bhagavatas
(b) Vedic Aryans
(c) Tamilians
(d) Abhirs

Qns 30 : The Rathyatra at Puri is celebrated in honour of which Hindu deity?

(a) Lord Rama
(b) Lord Vishnu
(c) Lord Jagannath
(d) Lord Shiva

Qns 31 : Kumbh Mela at Nasik is held on which of the following river banks?

(a) Tapti River
(b) Narmada River
(c) Koyna RIver
(d) Godavari River

Qns 32 : The first human statue worshipped in India where those of

(a) Brahma
(b) Vishnu
(c) Buddha
(d) Shiva

Qns 33 : ‘Saptaparni Cave’ is situated in

(a) Sanchi
(b) Nalanda
(c) Rajgriha
(d) Pawapuri

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