Medieval History of India GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

Medieval History of India GK MCQ questions for Competitive Exams in English. Important General Knowledge MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

Medieval History of India MCQs

Early Medieval Period

Q.1: Which of the following Tomar rulers is credited with establishing the city of Delhi?
a) Anangpal
b) Wazat
c) Rudane
d) Devaraj

Answer
Answer: a) Anangpal

Q.2: In which of the following years did Muhammad-bin-Qasim conquer Sindh?
a) 712 CE
b) 812 CE
c) 912 CE
d) 1012 CE

Answer
Answer: a) 712 CE

Q.3: Which of the following famous temples did Mahmud of Ghazni attack?
a) Belur
b) Halebid
c) Somnath
d) Konark

Answer
Answer: c) Somnath

Q.4: Who defeated Prithviraj in the second battle of Tarain?
a) Mahmud of Ghazni
b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
c) Muhammad Ghori
d) Alauddin Khilji

Answer
Answer: c) Muhammad Ghori

Q.5: Whom did Muhammad Ghori leave behind to take care of the conquered territories?
a) Nasiruddin
b) Iltutmish
c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
d) Malik Kafur

Answer
Answer: c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Q.6: Which of the following Rajput kings defeated Muhammad Ghori for the first time?
a) Prithviraj III
b) Baghel Bhim
c) Jaychandra
d) Kumarpal

Answer
Answer: b) Baghel Bhim

Q.7: Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(A) Birth of Prophet Muhammad
(B) Rise of the Gupta dynasty in India
(C) Completion of the Roman Colosseum
(D) Peter the Great becomes Tsar of Russia
a) (C), (B), (A), (D)
b) (A), (C), (D), (B)
c) (B), (D), (C), (A)
d) (D), (A), (C), (B)

Answer
Answer: a) (C), (B), (A), (D)

Sultanate Period: Medieval History MCQs

Q.8: Who among the following built the ‘Quwwat-ul-Islam’ Mosque (Delhi)?
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Iltutmish
d) Muhammad Adil Shah

Answer
Answer: a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Q.9: Which Sultan of Delhi died while playing polo?
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Answer
Answer: a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Q.10: Before becoming the Sultan of Delhi, Balban was the Prime Minister of which Sultan?
a) Nasiruddin
b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
c) Bahram Shah
d) Aram Shah

Answer
Answer: a) Nasiruddin

Q.11: During whose reign did Genghis Khan attack the borders of India while chasing Jalaluddin?
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Iltutmish
c) Balban
d) Nasiruddin Khusrau

Answer
Answer: b) Iltutmish

Q.12: Who introduced the famous Persian festival of Nowruz?
a) Alauddin Khilji
b) Iltutmish
c) Firoz Tughlaq
d) Balban

Answer
Answer: d) Balban

Q.13: Who was the only queen among the following to rule over Delhi?
a) Razia Sultan
b) Chand Bibi
c) Mehrunnisa
d) Hazrat Mahal

Answer
Answer: a) Razia Sultan

Q.14: Which were the two dynasties that ruled immediately before and after the Khilji rulers?
a) Slave and Lodi
b) Sayyid and Lodi
c) Slave and Tughlaq
d) Tughlaq and Lodi

Answer
Answer: c) Slave and Tughlaq

Q.15: Which Sultan of Delhi established a department of employment, a charity department, and a philanthropic hospital?
a) Firoz Tughlaq
b) Muhammad Tughlaq
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Balban

Answer
Answer: a) Firoz Tughlaq

Q.16: During whose reign did the Mongols invade the most?
a) Balban
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
d) Firoz Tughlaq

Answer
Answer: b) Alauddin Khilji

Q.17: Malik Kafur was a general of
a) Sikandar Lodi
b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Humayun

Answer
Answer: c) Alauddin Khilji

Q.18: Which Khilji ruler killed his father-in-law to ascend the throne of Delhi?
a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
b) Jalaluddin Khilji
c) Ghiyasuddin
d) Alauddin Khilji

Answer
Answer: d) Alauddin Khilji

Q.19: The market regulation system was initiated by:
a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
b) Iltutmish
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Ghiyasuddin

Answer
Answer: c) Alauddin Khilji

Q.20: Which Sultan of Delhi has been described by historians as a “mixture of contradictions”?
a) Balban
b) Ibrahim Lodi
c) Alauddin Khilji
d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

Answer
Answer: d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

Q.21: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq excelled in –
a) Art
b) Music
c) Calligraphy
d) Philosophy

Answer
Answer: d) Philosophy

Q.22: The Qutub Minar, as we see it today, was ultimately rebuilt by?
a) Balban
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Sikandar Lodi
d) Firoz Tughlaq

Answer
Answer: d) Firoz Tughlaq

Q.23: Arrange the dynasties of the Sultans of Delhi in chronological order:
1.Khilji
2.Tughlaq
3.Sayyid
4.Slave
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Answer
Answer: (d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Q.24: During whose reign did Ibn Battuta visit India?
a) Iltutmish
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
d) Balban

Answer
Answer: c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

Q.25: Who was the last ruler of the Lodi dynasty?
a) Bahlul Lodi
b) Ibrahim Lodi
c) Daulat Khan Lodi
d) Sikandar Lodi

Answer
Answer: b) Ibrahim Lodi

Q.26: Who founded the Lodi dynasty?
a) Ibrahim Lodi
b) Sikandar Lodi
c) Bahlul Lodi
d) Khizr Khan

Answer
Answer: c) Bahlul Lodi

Sufi and Bhakti Movement: Medieval History MCQs

Q.27: Who established the Chishti order in India?
a) Nizamuddin Auliya
b) Salim Chishti
c) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti
d) Hamiduddin Nagori

Answer
Answer: c) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti

Q.28: Who organized the first Bhakti movement?
a) Nanak
b) Meera
c) Ramdas
d) Ramanujacharya

Answer
Answer: d) Ramanujacharya

Q.29: Which of the following Sufi saints believed that devotional music is the path to reaching God?
a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti
b) Baba Farid
c) Sayyid Muhammad
d) Shah Alam Bukhari

Answer
Answer: a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti

Q.30: The contribution of the saints of the Bhakti and Sufi movements was in
a) Religious harmony
b) National unity
c) Unity between Hindus and Muslims
d) Social harmony

Answer
Answer: a) Religious harmony

Q.31: Match the founders (List-I) with the Bhakti sects (List-II) and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

List-IList-II
(A) Shankaradev1. Mahanubhav Panth
(B) Jagjivan2. Alakhnami
(C) Lalgin or Lalbeg3. Satnami
(D) Govind Prabhu4. Ek-Sharan-Dharma
Medieval History MCQ in English
     A    B    C   D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 2 1 3
c) 1 4 3 2
d) 1 2 4 3
Answer
a) 4 3 2 1

Q.32: The Alvar saints originated from which of the following modern states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Karnataka
d) Maharashtra

Answer
Answer: a) Tamil Nadu

Q.33: Bhakti preacher Shankaradev popularized which regional language through his teachings?
a) Assamese
b) Bengali
c) Braj Bhasha
d) Awadhi

Answer
Answer: a) Assamese

Q.34: Who among the following is considered the creator of the sitar?
a) Miyan Tansen
b) Baiju Bawra
c) Amir Khusro
d) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan

Answer
Answer: c) Amir Khusro

Medieval Regional States: Medieval History MCQ

Q.35: Who founded the ‘Vijayanagar Kingdom’?
a) Tuluva dynasty
b) Sangama dynasty
c) Saluva dynasty
d) Devaraya dynasty

Answer
Answer: b) Sangama dynasty

Q.36: The rulers of Vijayanagar encouraged –
a) Hindi, Marathi, and Sanskrit
b) Malayalam, Tamil, and Sanskrit
c) Tamil, Telugu, and Sanskrit
d) Telugu, Urdu, and Sanskrit

Answer
Answer: c) Tamil, Telugu, and Sanskrit

Q.37: Which book was written by Krishnadevaraya?
a) Mitakshara
b) Rajatarangini
c) Karpur Manjari
d) Amuktamalyada

Answer
Answer: d) Amuktamalyada

Q.38: ‘Amuktamalyada’ is the work of
a) Allasani Peddana
b) Krishnadevaraya
c) Vaccharaja
d) Kharavela

Answer
Answer: b) Krishnadevaraya

Q.39: The medieval city of Vijayanagar is known today as –
a) Chandragiri
b) Halebidu
c) Hampi
d) Kondavidu

Answer
Answer: c) Hampi

Q.40: Who constructed the ‘Raya Gopurams’ in front of the temples in Hampi, Tiruvannamalai, Chidambaram, Srirangam, Tirupati, etc.?
a) Vidyaranya
b) Krishnadevaraya
c) Harihara
d) Rajaraja

Answer
Answer: b) Krishnadevaraya

Q.41: When was the famous Battle of Talikota fought?
a) 1565 CE
b) 1575 CE
c) 1585 CE
d) 1570 CE

Answer
Answer: a) 1565 CE

Q.42: Who built the ‘Gol Gumbaz’ in Bijapur, the second-largest dome in the world, famous for its whispering gallery?
a) Mahmud Gawan
b) Yusuf Adil Shah
c) Ismail Adil Shah
d) Muhammad Adil Shah

Answer
Answer: d) Muhammad Adil Shah

Q.43: Where is the Gol Gumbaz located?
a) Konark
b) Hyderabad
c) Puri
d) Bijapur

Answer
Answer: d) Bijapur

Q.44: Who built the ‘Kirti Stambh’ of Chittor?
a) Rana Pratap
b) Rana Kumbha
c) Rana Sanga
d) Bappa Rawal

Answer
Answer: b) Rana Kumbha

Q.45: The capital of the Bahmani rulers was –
a) Gulbarga
b) Bijapur
c) Belgaum
d) Raichur

Answer
Answer: a) Gulbarga

Q.46: The famous Muslim ruler Chand Bibi belonged to which state?
a) Bijapur
b) Golconda
c) Ahmadnagar
d) Berar

Answer
Answer: c) Ahmadnagar

Q.47: The famous Kohinoor diamond was mined from which mine?
a) Odisha
b) Chota Nagpur
c) Bojapur
d) Golconda

Answer
Answer: d) Golconda

Mughal Period

Q.48: From which of the following battles was the foundation of the Mughal Empire laid in India?
a) Battle of Plassey
b) Battle of Talikota
c) First Battle of Panipat
d) Battle of Haldighati

Answer
Answer: c) First Battle of Panipat

Q.49: After which battle was the Mughal rule established in India?
a) First Battle of Tarain
b) Second Battle of Tarain
c) First Battle of Panipat
d) Second Battle of Panipat

Answer
Answer: c) First Battle of Panipat

Q.50: Which Mughal ruler gave a detailed description of Indian flora, fauna, seasons, and fruits in his daily diary?
a) Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Babur
d) Aurangzeb

Answer
Answer: c) Babur

Q.51: The Rajput king defeated by Babur in the Battle of Khanwa was –
a) Rana Sanga
b) Rudra Dev
c) Uday Singh
d) Rana Pratap Singh

Answer
Answer: a) Rana Sanga

Q.52: Who wrote the “Humayun Nama”?
a) Humayun
b) Akbar
c) Abul Fazl
d) Gulbadan Begum

Answer
Answer: d) Gulbadan Begum

Q.53: After losing which battle did Humayun have to flee from India?
a) Khanwa
b) Kannauj
c) Panipat
d) Ghaghra

Answer
Answer: b) Kannauj

Q.54: Which Mughal emperor discouraged the practice of Sati?
a) Babur
b) Humayun
c) Akbar
d) Jahangir

Answer
Answer: c) Akbar

Q.55: “Razmnama” is the Persian translation of which of the following?
a) Mahabharata
b) Ramayana
c) Panchatantra
d) Kathasaritsagara

Answer
Answer: a) Mahabharata

Q.56: Where did Akbar build the Panch Mahal, known for its pillars?
a) Lahore
b) Fatehpur Sikri
c) Agra
d) Sikandra

Answer
Answer: b) Fatehpur Sikri

Q.57: Famous musicians Tansen and Baiju Bawra were renowned during whose reign?
a) Jahangir
b) Bahadur Shah Zafar
c) Akbar
d) Shah Jahan

Answer
Answer: c) Akbar

Q.58: Who was the famous Jain scholar highly respected by Akbar?
a) Hemchandra
b) Harivijaya
c) Vastupal
d) Bhadrabahu

Answer
Answer: b) Harivijaya

Q.59: Who is the author of the book “Ain-i-Akbari”?
a) Akbar
b) Abul Fazl
c) Firdausi
d) Jahangir

Answer
Answer: b) Abul Fazl

Q.60: The Battle of Haldighati was fought between whom?
a) Akbar and Rana Sangram Singh
b) Akbar and Medini Rai
c) Akbar and Rana Pratap Singh
d) Akbar and Uday Singh

Answer
Answer: c) Akbar and Rana Pratap Singh

Q.61: The Buland Darwaza was constructed to commemorate Akbar’s victory over which region?
a) Malwa
b) Deccan
c) Bengal
d) Gujarat

Answer
Answer: d) Gujarat

Q.62: Who initiated the “Mansabdari System”?
a) Akbar
b) Shah Jahan
c) Jahangir
d) Babur

Answer
Answer: a) Akbar

Q.63: Which of the following is not located in Fatehpur Sikri?
a) Panch Mahal
b) Moti Masjid
c) Tomb of Salim Chishti
d) Mariam Palace

Answer
Answer: b) Moti Masjid

Q.64: Who renamed the city of Prayag as Allahabad, meaning “City of Allah”?
a) Aurangzeb
b) Akbar
c) Shah Jahan
d) Bahadur Shah Zafar

Answer
Answer: b) Akbar

Q.65: Who was responsible for land revenue reforms during Akbar’s reign?
a) Birbal
b) Todar Mal
c) Jai Singh
d) Bihari Mal

Answer
Answer: b) Todar Mal

Q.66: Under the “Zabt System,” what portion of actual production was fixed as the state’s demand?
a) One-fourth
b) One-third
c) Half
d) One-fifth

Answer
Answer: b) One-third

Q.67: Who initiated the new religion “Din-i-Ilahi”?
a) Humayun
b) Jahangir
c) Akbar
d) Shah Jahan

Answer
Answer: c) Akbar

Q.68: Which of the following was illiterate?
a) Jahangir
b) Shah Jahan
c) Akbar
d) Aurangzeb

Answer
Answer: c) Akbar

Q.69: Which Mughal emperor is credited with composing Hindi songs?
a) Babur
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan

Answer
Answer: b) Akbar

Q.70: Which of the following was not a reform measure adopted by Akbar?
a) Dagh
b) Mansabdari System
c) Iqta System
d) Zabt

Answer
Answer: c) Iqta System

Q.71: What is the meaning of “Jahangir”?
a) Lord of the Nation
b) Supreme Lord
c) World Conqueror
d) Hero of a Hundred Battles

Answer
Answer: c) World Conqueror

Q.72: Painting reached its peak during whose reign?
a) Akbar
b) Aurangzeb
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan

Answer
Answer: c) Jahangir

Q.73: Which of the following was sent to the royal court of Jahangir as an ambassador by the then King of England, James I?
a) John Hawkins
b) William Todd
c) Sir Thomas Roe
d) Sir Walter Raleigh

Answer
Answer: a) John Hawkins

Q.74: In which of the following Mughal buildings was the world-famous ‘Takht-e-Taus’ placed?
a) Diwan-e-Khas at Fatehpur Sikri
b) Agra’s new fort
c) Rang Mahal of Red Fort in Delhi
d) Diwan-e-Aam of Red Fort in Delhi

Answer
Answer: d) Diwan-e-Aam of Red Fort in Delhi

Q.75: In which of the following cities did Shah Jahan build the Moti Masjid?
a) Delhi
b) Jaipur
c) Agra
d) Amarkot

Answer
Answer: c) Agra

Q.76: Who among the following succeeded Aurangzeb?
a) Azam
b) Kam Bakhsh
c) Akbar II
d) Muazzam

Answer
Answer: d) Muazzam

Q.77: The ‘Mir Bakshi’ of Mughal emperors headed which department?
a) Intelligence (Secret Information)
b) Foreign Affairs
c) Military Organization
d) Finance

Answer
Answer: c) Military Organization

Q.78: To whom was ‘Inam land’ given?
a) Scholars and religious persons
b) Hereditary revenue collectors
c) Mansabdars
d) Nobles

Answer
Answer: a) Scholars and religious persons

Q.79: Which of the following Mughal buildings is said to be exactly equal in length and width?
a) Agra Fort
b) Red Fort
c) Taj Mahal
d) Buland Darwaza

Answer
Answer: c) Taj Mahal

Q.80: Which of the following facts about the Taj Mahal is not true?
a) It is a grand mausoleum.
b) It was built by Shah Jahan.
c) It is located outside Agra Fort.
d) The names of the artisans who built it are engraved on it.

Answer
Answer: d) The names of the artisans who built it are engraved on it.

Sher Shah

Q.81: During the reign of which of the following rulers was the 1 Rupee coin minted in India?
a) Babur
b) Sher Shah Suri
c) Akbar
d) Aurangzeb

Answer
b) Sher Shah Suri

Q.82: What symbolizes the greatness of Sher Shah?
a) His campaign of victory against Humayun
b) Excellent military leadership
c) Administrative reforms
d) Religious tolerance

Answer
c) Administrative reforms

Q.83: The Grand Trunk Road built by Sher Shah connected Punjab with which of the following?
a) Lahore
b) Multan
c) Agra
d) Eastern Bengal

Answer
d) Eastern Bengal

Marathas: GK MCQs

Q.84: In Shiva ji’ s administration, the ‘Peshwa’ was referred to as
a) Minister of Religious Affairs
b) Defense Minister
c) Prime Minister
d) Minister of Justice

Answer
c) Prime Minister

Q.85: Who was the guru (spiritual teacher) of Shiva ji?
a) Namdev
b) Ramdas
c) Eknath
d) Tukaram

Answer
b) Ramdas

Q.86: Who did Aurangzeb send to defeat Chhatrapati Shiva ji?
a) Raja Jaswant Singh
b) Raja Man Singh
c) Raja Bhagwan Das
d) Raja Jai Singh

Answer
d) Raja Jai Singh

Q.87: Through which treaty did Shiva ji transfer forts to the Mughals?
a) Chittor
b) Pune
c) Purandar
d) Torna

Answer
c) Purandar

Q.88: Shiva ji’s coronation took place in-
a) 1627 AD
b) 1674 AD
c) 1680 AD
d) 1670 AD

Answer
b) 1674 AD

Q.89: Where was the capital of Shivaji’s kingdom?
a) Pune
b) Karwar
c) Purandar
d) Raigad

Answer
d) Raigad

Q.90: Arrange the following treaties in chronological order:
(1) Treaty of Amritsar
(2) Treaty of Bassein
(3) Treaty of Srirangapatnam
(4) Treaty of Salbai
a) 1, 3, 2, 4
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 3, 2, 1
d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer
c) 4, 3, 2, 1

Q.91: Which of the following European powers provided cannons to Shivaji?
a) Portuguese
b) Dutch
c) English
d) French

Answer
c) English

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  • World Geography GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

    World Geography GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for Competitive Exams. Important questions selected from previous year exam questions papers of SSC, UPSC and other examinations.

    World Geography MCQ

    Q.1: Which of the following countries has the longest underground tunnel?
    (A) Germany
    (B) Switzerland
    (C) Spain
    (D) France

    Answer
    (B) Switzerland

    Q.2: Which of the following holds over 50% of the world’s coal reserves?
    (A) USA, Russia, and China
    (B) China, India, and Russia
    (C) India, Russia, and the USA
    (D) China, India, and the USA

    Answer
    (A) USA, Russia, and China

    Q.3: The Panama Canal was constructed in
    (A) 1869 AD
    (B) 1980 AD
    (C) 1905 AD
    (D) 1914 AD

    Answer
    (D) 1914 AD

    Q.4: Which is the hottest place on Earth?
    (A) Death Valley-California
    (B) El Azizia-Libya
    (C) Jacobabad-Pakistan
    (D) Atacama-Peru

    Answer
    (B) El Azizia-Libya

    Q.5: What was the name of the cyclone that caused devastation in Bangladesh?
    (A) Shary
    (B) Sidr
    (C) Wendy
    (D) Erin

    Answer
    (B) Sidr

    Q.6: What is the longest mountain range on Earth?
    (A) Andes Mountains
    (B) Mid-Atlantic Ridge
    (C) Western Cordillera
    (D) Himalayan Range

    Answer
    (A) Andes Mountains

    Q.7: The Sunda Trench is located in:
    (A) Indian Ocean
    (B) Pacific Ocean
    (C) Atlantic Ocean
    (D) Gulf of Mexico

    Answer
    (A) Indian Ocean

    Q.8: Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
    (A) Mites
    (B) Humidity
    (C) Insects
    (D) Rodents

    Answer
    (B) Humidity

    Q.9: The lake created by the Aswan Dam in Africa is:
    (A) Chad
    (B) Victoria
    (C) Nasser
    (D) Tanganyika

    Answer
    (C) Nasser

    Q.10: The temperate grasslands of North America are called
    (A) Pampas
    (B) Downs
    (C) Steppes
    (D) Prairies

    Answer
    (D) Prairies

    Q.11: The Panama Canal differs from the Suez Canal as it has:
    (A) A lock system
    (B) A shorter route
    (C) A busier route
    (D) A less busy route

    Answer
    (A) A lock system

    Q.12: Llanos grasslands are found in:
    (A) Guiana Highlands
    (B) Brazilian Highlands
    (C) Argentina
    (D) Chile

    Answer
    (D) Chile

    Q.13: Approximately what percentage of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest?
    (A) 2 percent
    (B) 7 percent
    (C) 10 percent
    (D) 15 percent

    Answer
    (B) 7 percent

    Q.14: Which continent is located in both the Northern-Southern and Eastern-Western hemispheres?
    (A) Australia
    (B) Africa
    (C) Europe
    (D) South America

    Answer
    (B) Africa

    Q.15: The Sahara is located in which part of Africa?
    (A) Eastern
    (B) Western
    (C) Northern
    (D) Southern

    Answer
    (C) Northern

    Q.16: The longest river in the world is:
    (A) Ganges
    (B) Nile
    (C) Brahmaputra
    (D) Amazon

    Answer
    (B) Nile

    Q.17: Which city is the capital of the desert country Mali?
    (A) Damascus
    (B) Bamako
    (C) Adrar
    (D) Ankara

    Answer
    (B) Bamako

    Q.18: Peshawar is near:
    (A) Karakoram Pass
    (B) Zoji La Pass
    (C) Namika-La Pass
    (D) Khyber Pass

    Answer
    (D) Khyber Pass

    Q.19: The highest airport (4411 meters above sea level) is:
    (A) Daocheng Yading Airport
    (B) Heathrow Airport
    (C) Kathmandu Airport
    (D) Bangda Airport

    Answer
    (A) Daocheng Yading Airport

    Q.20: ‘Yosemite’ is:
    (A) A river
    (B) A peak
    (C) A waterfall
    (D) A dam

    Answer
    (C) A waterfall

    Q.21: Which strait separates Australia and Tasmania?
    (A) Bass
    (B) Bab-el-Mandeb
    (C) Palk
    (D) Bering

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Bass

    Q.22: The world’s largest coral reef is found off the coast of:
    (A) Brazil
    (B) Australia
    (C) Sri Lanka
    (D) Cuba

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Australia

    Q.23: The longest river in Europe is:
    (A) Rhine
    (B) Rhone
    (C) Danube
    (D) Volga

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Volga

    Q.24: Asia and North America are separated by:
    (A) Bass Strait
    (B) Dover Strait
    (C) Bering Strait
    (D) Cook Strait

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Bering Strait

    Q.25: The Grand Canyon is located on which river?
    (A) Colorado
    (B) Columbia
    (C) Ohio
    (D) Mississippi

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Colorado

    Q.26: On September 23, when day and night are of equal length worldwide, it is called:
    (A) Autumnal Equinox
    (B) Celestial Equinox
    (C) Winter Equinox
    (D) Spring Equinox

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Autumnal Equinox

    Q.27: The region famous for various types of wine and champagne is:
    (A) Eastern Europe
    (B) Western Europe
    (C) Mediterranean
    (D) Grasslands

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Mediterranean

    Q.28: The river with the largest water flow in the world is:
    (A) Huang-Ho
    (B) Amazon
    (C) Zaire
    (D) Nile

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Amazon

    Q.29: The world’s largest delta is:
    (A) Sundarbans
    (B) Amazon Basin
    (C) Greenland
    (D) Congo Basin

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Sundarbans

    Q.30: The canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is:
    (A) Suez
    (B) Malacca
    (C) Panama
    (D) Gibraltar

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Panama

    Q.31: The strait connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea is:
    (A) Panama Strait
    (B) Suez Strait
    (C) Palk Strait
    (D) Bering Strait

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Suez Strait

    Q.32: The temperate grasslands of South America are called:
    (A) Prairies
    (B) Pampas
    (C) Downs
    (D) Steppes

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Pampas

    Q.33: Volcanic activity is most common in:
    (A) Hawaii
    (B) Japan
    (C) Columbia
    (D) New Zealand

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Hawaii

    Q.34: The world’s largest freshwater lake is:
    (A) Lake Victoria
    (B) Lake Michigan
    (C) Lake Balkhash
    (D) Lake Superior

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Lake Superior

    Q.35: Which of the following volcanoes is located in Mexico?
    (A) Colima
    (B) Purace
    (C) Semeru
    (D) Etna

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Colima

    Q.36: In July 2007, the highest peak of Halmahera Island, Mount Gamkonora Volcano, erupted in which country?
    (A) Japan
    (B) Indonesia
    (C) Russia
    (D) France

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Japan

    Q.37: The Black Forest is found in:
    (A) France
    (B) Germany
    (C) Czechoslovakia
    (D) Romania

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Germany

    Q.38: Greenland, the world’s largest island, is an integral part of:
    (A) Norway
    (B) North America
    (C) Denmark
    (D) Canada

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Denmark

    Q.39: Kangaroos, platypuses, and koala bears are wildlife native to:
    (A) Australia
    (B) South America
    (C) Europe
    (D) Africa

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Australia

    Q.40: Which of the following regions has no rainfall at any time of the year?
    (A) Central Europe
    (B) Central North America
    (C) Polar region
    (D) Sub-Saharan region

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Polar region

    Q.41: The world’s tallest gravity dam is:
    (A) Beas Dam
    (B) Nangal Dam
    (C) Bhakra Dam
    (D) Hirakud Dam

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Bhakra Dam

    Q.42: “The climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic herders.” This statement is true for which region?
    (A) African Savannah
    (B) Central Asian Steppes
    (C) Siberian Tundra
    (D) North American Prairies

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Central Asian Steppes

    Q.43: The world’s largest desert is:
    (A) Arabian
    (B) Kalahari
    (C) Sahara
    (D) Thar

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Sahara

    Q.44: Which two countries are connected by an underwater tunnel?
    (A) England and Spain
    (B) Malaysia and Singapore
    (C) England and Belgium
    (D) France and England

    Answer
    Answer: (D) France and England

    Q.45: The world’s largest archipelago country is:
    (A) Philippines
    (B) Indonesia
    (C) Sweden
    (D) Greenland

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Indonesia

    Q.46: Which of the following is a landlocked sea?
    (A) Timor Sea
    (B) Arafura Sea
    (C) Greenland Sea
    (D) Aral Sea

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Aral Sea

    Q.47: Where is the Normandy beach located?
    (A) France
    (B) Netherlands
    (C) Spain
    (D) Belgium

    Answer
    Answer: (A) France

    Q.48: ‘Dykes’ are specifically constructed in:
    (A) Norway
    (B) Holland
    (C) France
    (D) United Kingdom

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Holland

    Q.49: Colorado in America is famous for this landform _______________
    (A) Grand Canyon
    (B) Grand Craters
    (C) Great Valleys
    (D) Great Basin

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Grand Craters

    Q.50: The largest island in the world is:
    (A) New Guinea
    (B) Madagascar
    (C) Greenland
    (D) Iceland

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Greenland

  • Biology GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

    Biology – General Science MCQs for GK paper in competitive exams. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free online practice.

    Biology GK MCQs

    Question 1: Which of the following is commonly known as a blood thinner?

    A) Coagulation inhibitor
    B) Antibiotic
    C) Immunosuppressant
    D) Anticoagulant

    Answer
    Answer: D) Anticoagulant
    Explanation: Anticoagulants are commonly known as blood thinners and are used to treat and prevent blood clots. Antibiotics are medications used to treat bacterial infections.

    Question 2: Bile is stored in a sac called __________.

    A) Gallbladder
    B) Urinary bladder
    C) Pancreas
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: A) Gallbladder
    Explanation: Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder in the human digestive system.

    Question 3: What is the pH of human blood?

    A) 7.4
    B) 10
    C) 6.5
    D) 5.8

    Answer
    Answer: A) 7.4
    Explanation: The pH value of human blood is 7.4, which makes it alkaline in nature.

    Question 4: Which of the following plant kingdom groups is known as algae?

    A) Bryophyta
    B) Thallophyta
    C) Angiosperm
    D) Pteridophyta

    Answer
    Answer: B) Thallophyta
    Explanation: Thallophytes are commonly known as algae. Most of them are aquatic and represent a primitive form of plant life without vascular tissues for transporting water and minerals.

    Question 5: Deficiency of which vitamin causes swollen neck glands?

    A) Vitamin C
    B) Iodine
    C) Calcium
    D) Vitamin D

    Answer
    Answer: B) Iodine
    Explanation: Swelling in the neck glands is generally associated with iodine deficiency.

    Question 6: Which of the following belongs to the Platyhelminthes classification under the kingdom Animalia?

    A) Tapeworm
    B) Leech
    C) Wuchereria
    D) Sycon

    Answer
    Answer: A) Tapeworm
    Explanation: Tapeworm is an invertebrate parasite that lives in the bodies of vertebrates, including humans. Some species can grow up to 100 feet (30 meters) long, and their bodies are ribbon-like and segmented.

    Question 7: In the cytoplasm, ribosomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus are examples of __________.

    A) Organs
    B) Cells
    C) Organelles
    D) Tissues

    Answer
    Answer: C) Organelles
    Explanation: Golgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi body, is an organelle found in most eukaryotic cells.

    Question 8: What is the normal body temperature of humans?

    A) 98.6°C
    B) 98.6°F
    C) 37°F
    D) 40°C

    Answer
    Answer: B) 98.6°F
    Explanation: The normal body temperature is around 98.6°F (37°C). Fever is usually indicated by a temperature above 100.4°F (38°C).

    Question 9: In which part of the plant does the process of respiration occur?

    A) Roots
    B) Stem
    C) Leaves
    D) Flowers

    Answer
    Answer: C) Leaves
    Explanation: The leaves perform respiration by absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.

    Question 10: How many major systems are there in the human body?

    A) 7
    B) 10
    C) 12
    D) 5

    Answer
    Answer: C) 12
    Explanation: There are 12 major systems in the human body, such as the digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, etc.

    Question 11: What is the full form of DNA?

    A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
    B) Deoxyribonucleotide Acid
    C) Deoxyribonuclear Acid
    D) Deoxynucleic Acid

    Answer
    Answer: A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
    Explanation: The full form of DNA is Deoxyribonucleic Acid, which stores genetic information.

    Question 12: By which process do herbivorous plants prepare food?

    A) Respiration
    B) Photosynthesis
    C) Maturation
    D) Regeneration

    Answer
    Answer: B) Photosynthesis
    Explanation: Herbivorous plants prepare food through photosynthesis, which uses sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide.

    Question 13: Which is the largest gland in the human body?

    A) Pancreas
    B) Liver
    C) Pituitary Gland
    D) Thyroid

    Answer
    Answer: B) Liver
    Explanation: The liver is the largest gland in the human body and performs many important functions.

    Question 14: What is an enzyme?

    A) A type of vitamin
    B) A type of acid
    C) A type of protein
    D) A type of mineral

    Answer
    Answer: C) A type of protein
    Explanation: An enzyme is a type of protein that accelerates biological chemical reactions.

    Question 15: What is the function of papillae?

    A) Digesting food
    B) Regulating body temperature
    C) Detoxifying the body
    D) Solidifying blood

    Answer
    Answer: A) Digesting food
    Explanation: Papillae in the stomach help in digesting food.

    Question 16: Which cell has a cell membrane?

    A) Animal cell
    B) Plant cell
    C) Bacterial cell
    D) All cells

    Answer
    Answer: D) All cells
    Explanation: All cells have a cell membrane that separates the cell from its external environment.

    Question 17: Which organ is not part of the central nervous system?

    A) Brain
    B) Spinal cord
    C) Nerve
    D) Brain and spinal cord

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nerve
    Explanation: Nerves are not part of the central nervous system; the brain and spinal cord are.

    Question 18: Where is energy produced in a cell?

    A) Nucleus
    B) Mitochondria
    C) Chloroplast
    D) Ribosome

    Answer
    Answer: B) Mitochondria
    Explanation: Mitochondria produce the cell’s energy, known as ATP.

    Question 19: Where is cartilage found?

    A) In bones
    B) In the skin
    C) In the blood
    D) In the nails

    Answer
    Answer: A) In bones
    Explanation: Cartilage is found in bones and helps to lubricate joints.

    Question 20: Which enzyme aids in chemical digestion?

    A) Pancreatic lipase
    B) Lactase
    C) Amylase
    D) All

    Answer
    Answer: D) All
    Explanation: Pancreatic lipase, lactase, and amylase all aid in chemical digestion.

    Question 21: Which gas is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Carbon Dioxide
    D) Hydrogen

    Answer
    Answer: C) Carbon Dioxide
    Explanation: Carbon dioxide is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis.

    Question 22: Where is a virus found?

    A) Microorganisms
    B) Plants
    C) Animals
    D) Bacteria

    Answer
    Answer: A) Microorganisms
    Explanation: A virus is found in microorganisms, such as viruses.

    Question 23: In which organ does the first digestion of food occur?

    A) Stomach
    B) Mouth
    C) Intestine
    D) Esophagus

    Answer
    Answer: B) Mouth
    Explanation: The first digestion of food occurs in the mouth, where enzymes initiate the digestion process.

    Question 24: What is the study of microorganisms called?

    A) Biology
    B) Microbiology
    C) Physiology
    D) Ecology

    Answer
    Answer: B) Microbiology
    Explanation: The study of microorganisms is called microbiology.

    Question 25: Which organ purifies the blood?

    A) Liver
    B) Heart
    C) Kidneys
    D) Lungs

    Answer
    Answer: C) Kidneys
    Explanation: The kidneys purify the blood and remove waste products.

    Question 26: Which part of the papillary helps in digestion?

    A) Gastric juice
    B) Hydrochloric acid
    C) Pepsin
    D) All of the above

    Answer
    Answer: D) All of the above
    Explanation: Gastric juice, hydrochloric acid, and pepsin all help in digestion.

    Question 27: What is not present in living cells?

    A) Mitochondria
    B) Chloroplast
    C) Lysosomes
    D) Volcans

    Answer
    Answer: D) Volcans
    Explanation: Volcans are not found in living cells, whereas mitochondria, chloroplast, and lysosomes are present in cells.

    Question 28: What condition arises due to a lack of oxygen?

    A) Hypoxia
    B) Hyperthermia
    C) Hypoglycemia
    D) Hypothermia

    Answer
    Answer: A) Hypoxia
    Explanation: Hypoxia is a condition that arises due to a lack of oxygen, where the body’s tissues do not receive enough oxygen.

    Question 29: What is the main organ for food transportation in plants?

    A) Roots
    B) Leaves
    C) Stem
    D) Flowers

    Answer
    Answer: C) Stem
    Explanation: The stem is the main organ for food transportation in plants.

    Question 30: How many major types of cells are there in human blood?

    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5

    Answer
    Answer: C) 4
    Explanation: There are four major types of cells in human blood: red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and blood plasma.

    Question 31: What controls cognitive functions?

    A) Heart
    B) Brain
    C) Kidneys
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: B) Brain
    Explanation: Cognitive functions, such as thinking and processing, are controlled by the brain.

    Question 32: What is the function of genes?

    A) Digestion of food
    B) Production of energy
    C) Storage of genetic information
    D) Formation of blood

    Answer
    Answer: C) Storage of genetic information
    Explanation: Genes store genetic information and transfer it to the next generation.

    Question 33: What is the function of mitochondria?

    A) Production of energy
    B) Protein synthesis
    C) Cell division
    D) Cell structure

    Answer
    Answer: A) Production of energy
    Explanation: Mitochondria produce energy in the cell.

    Question 34: What type of organism are bacteria?

    A) Unicellular
    B) Multicellular
    C) Viruses
    D) Fungi

    Answer
    Answer: A) Unicellular
    Explanation: Bacteria are unicellular organisms.

    Question 35: During which stage of the nutrition process is the most energy obtained?

    A) Digestion of carbohydrates
    B) Digestion of proteins
    C) Digestion of fats
    D) All equally

    Answer
    Answer: C) Digestion of fats
    Explanation: Digestion of fats provides the most energy.

    Question 36: Which gland plays a major role in body growth?

    A) Thyroid
    B) Pituitary
    C) Pancreas
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: B) Pituitary
    Explanation: The pituitary gland plays a major role in the growth of the body.

    Question 37: Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?

    A) Vitamin A
    B) Vitamin B
    C) Vitamin D
    D) Vitamin C

    Answer
    Answer: C) Vitamin D
    Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets (bone weakness).[

    Question 38: What type of antibodies are found in blood group A?

    A) B antibodies
    B) A antibodies
    C) AB antibodies
    D) O antibodies

    Answer
    Answer: A) B antibodies
    Explanation: Blood group A has B antibodies.

    Question 39: What studies the ecosystem?

    A) Zoology
    B) Botany
    C) Ecology
    D) Microbiology

    Answer
    Answer: C) Ecology
    Explanation: The study of ecosystems is done by ecology.

    Question 40: What is a neuron?

    A) Blood cell
    B) Nerve cell
    C) Digestive cell
    D) Liver cell

    Answer
    Answer: B) Nerve cell
    Explanation: A neuron is a nerve cell and an essential part of the nervous system.

    Question 41: Which organ produces hormones?

    A) Heart
    B) Liver
    C) Thyroid
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: C) Thyroid
    Explanation: The thyroid produces hormones that control many vital functions in the body.

    Question 42: Which organ plays a major role in the process of respiration?

    A) Heart
    B) Lungs
    C) Liver
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: B) Lungs
    Explanation: The lungs play a major role in respiration, facilitating the exchange of oxygen.

    Question 43: In the digestive system, which organ produces digestive enzymes?

    A) Liver
    B) Pancreas
    C) Stomach
    D) Intestine

    Answer
    Answer: B) Pancreas
    Explanation: The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that aid in food digestion.

    Question 44: Which organ in plant cells assists in photosynthesis?

    A) Mitochondria
    B) Chloroplast
    C) Ribosome
    D) Nucleus

    Answer
    Answer: B) Chloroplast
    Explanation: Chloroplasts assist in photosynthesis in plant cells.

    Question 45: What is the largest organ in the human body?

    A) Heart
    B) Liver
    C) Skin
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: C) Skin
    Explanation: The skin is the largest organ in the human body.

    Question 46: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease?

    A) Rickets
    B) Scurvy
    C) Pellagra
    D) Burkitt’s

    Answer
    Answer: B) Scurvy
    Explanation: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to scurvy, which causes swollen and bleeding gums.

    Question 47: What is the largest cell in the human body?

    A) Human Egg
    B) Red Blood Cell
    C) Liver Cell
    D) Nerve Cell

    Answer
    Answer: A) Human Egg
    Explanation: The human egg (ovum) is the largest cell in the human body.

    Question 48: What is considered the best sensory organ?

    A) Eye
    B) Ear
    C) Skin
    D) Nose

    Answer
    Answer: C) Skin
    Explanation: The skin is considered the best sensory organ because it can sense many stimuli.

    Question 49: Which nutrient is most essential for nutrition?

    A) Carbohydrates
    B) Protein
    C) Fats
    D) Vitamins

    Answer
    Answer: A) Carbohydrates
    Explanation: Carbohydrates are the main source of energy and are thus the most essential.

    Question 50: What is the name of the plant hormone that regulates growth?

    A) Ethylene
    B) Auxin
    C) Cytokinin
    D) Gibberellin

    Answer
    Answer: B) Auxin
    Explanation: Auxin controls the growth of plants.

    Question 51: Which organ regulates blood pressure?

    A) Heart
    B) Kidneys
    C) Liver
    D) Lungs

    Answer
    Answer: B) Kidneys
    Explanation: The kidneys play an important role in regulating blood pressure.

    Question 52: What is the study of the remains of organisms called?

    A) Paleontology
    B) Genetics
    C) Ecology
    D) Microbiology

    Answer
    Answer: A) Paleontology
    Explanation: The study of the remains of organisms is called Paleontology.

    Question 53: What part is included in the structure of a virus?

    A) Nucleus
    B) Protein coat
    C) Mitochondria
    D) Chloroplast

    Answer
    Answer: B) Protein coat
    Explanation: The structure of a virus includes a protein coat that protects the genetic material.

    Question 54: Which part of the plant absorbs water?

    A) Leaves
    B) Stem
    C) Roots
    D) Flowers

    Answer
    Answer: C) Roots
    Explanation: Water is primarily absorbed by the roots of plants.

    Question 55: What does Maltase digest?

    A) Proteins
    B) Fats
    C) Carbohydrates
    D) Vitamins

    Answer
    Answer: C) Carbohydrates
    Explanation: The enzyme Maltase digests carbohydrates.

    Question 56: In which part of the body does fat digestion occur?

    A) Stomach
    B) Intestine
    C) Liver
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: B) Intestine
    Explanation: Fat digestion primarily occurs in the intestine.

    Question 57: Which organ plays a major role in drug absorption?

    A) Mouth
    B) Stomach
    C) Intestine
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: C) Intestine
    Explanation: Drug absorption primarily takes place in the intestine.

    Question 58: Where are RBCs produced in the body?

    A) Liver
    B) Kidneys
    C) Bone marrow
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: C) Bone marrow
    Explanation: Red blood cells (RBCs) are produced in the bone marrow.

    Question 59: What is the most important organ in the process of respiration?

    A) Heart
    B) Lungs
    C) Liver
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: B) Lungs
    Explanation: The lungs are the most important organs in the process of respiration.

    Question 59: Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

    A) Louis Pasteur
    B) Charles Darwin
    C) Gregor Mendel
    D) Robert Hooke

    Answer
    Answer: B) Charles Darwin
    Explanation: The theory of natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin.

    Question 60: Which organ is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

    A) Bone marrow
    B) Heart
    C) Brain
    D) Lungs

    Answer
    Answer: A) Bone marrow
    Explanation: Red blood cells, most white blood cells, and platelets are produced in the bone marrow.
  • Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

    Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams for free online practice. Collection of Important previous year questions for preparation of upcoming SSC,RRB examinations.

    Chemistry GK MCQs

    Question 1: Which of the following dietary components provides the maximum energy per gram to humans?

    A) Carbohydrates
    B) Fats
    C) Fibers
    D) Proteins

    Answer
    Answer: B) Fats]
    Explanation: Fats are the primary source of energy in our diet. 1 gram of fat provides 9.5 kilocalories of energy, which is the highest among food components.

    Question 2: Which of the following is a noble gas?

    A) Ozone
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Hydrogen
    D) Helium

    Answer
    Answer: D) Helium]
    Explanation: A noble gas is one that typically does not participate in chemical reactions and is always available in a free state.

    Question 3: Which of the following elements belongs to the d-block of the modern periodic table?

    A) Na
    B) Fe
    C) Ca
    D) Mg

    Answer
    Answer: B) Fe]
    Explanation: From the electronic configurations of elements, it is evident that Fe belongs to the d-block because its outermost electron occupies the d-orbital.

    Question 4: According to the modern periodic table, which element has the atomic number 30?

    A) Co
    B) Ni
    C) Zn
    D) Fe

    Answer
    Answer: C) Zn]
    Explanation: Zinc is a chemical element with the symbol Zn and atomic number 30.

    Question 5: Which iron ore contains the highest amount of iron?

    A) Magnetite
    B) Hematite
    C) Limonite
    D) Siderite

    Answer
    Answer: A) Magnetite]
    Explanation: Magnetite contains the highest iron content, followed by other ores in the listed order.

    Question 6: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the neutron?

    A) Chadwick
    B) Rutherford
    C) Niels Bohr
    D) Roentgen

    Answer
    Answer: A) Chadwick]
    Explanation: Sir James Chadwick, a British physicist, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935 for his discovery of the neutron in 1932.

    Question 7: What is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris?

    A) Calcium hypochlorite
    B) Calcium carbonate
    C) Calcium oxide
    D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate

    Answer
    Answer: D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate]
    Explanation: Plaster of Paris is used for setting broken bones, making sculptures and toys, and producing chalk, among other uses.

    Question 8: What is the chemical formula of washing soda?

    A) Na2SO4
    B) Ca(OH)2
    C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O
    D) NaHCO3

    Answer
    Answer: C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O]
    Explanation: Sodium carbonate is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula Na2CO3. It is commonly known as washing soda or soda ash and is used for laundry due to its alkaline nature.

    Question 9: In a water molecule, what is the ratio of the masses of hydrogen and oxygen?

    A) 1:4
    B) 1:8
    C) 1:16
    D) 1:2

    Answer
    Answer: B) 1:8]
    Explanation: The atomic mass of hydrogen is 1 u, and the atomic mass of oxygen is 16 u. Since a water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom, their mass ratio is 2:16 or 1:8.

    Question 10: α particles are doubly charged ions of ____________.

    A) Beryllium
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Helium
    D) Lithium

    Answer
    Answer: C) Helium]
    Explanation: α particles consist of two protons and two neutrons. They are doubly charged helium ions.

    Question 11: What is the atomic number of Copper?

    A) 29
    B) 26
    C) 30
    D) 32

    Answer
    Answer: A) 29
    Explanation: The atomic number of Copper is 29.

    Question 12: What is the most common isotope of Oxygen?

    A) O-16
    B) O-17
    C) O-18
    D) O-19

    Answer
    Answer: A) O-16
    Explanation: The most common isotope of Oxygen is O-16, which is found in nature in the highest abundance.

    Question 13: What is the chemical name of NH₃ (Ammonia)?

    A) Nitrogen Trihydride
    B) Hydrogen Nitride
    C) Nitrogen Hydride
    D) Hydrogen Trinitride

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nitrogen Hydride
    Explanation: NH₃ is known as Nitrogen Hydride, commonly referred to as Ammonia.

    Question 14: What is the chemical symbol for Mercury?

    A) Hg
    B) Pb
    C) Au
    D) Ag

    Answer
    Answer: A) Hg
    Explanation: The chemical symbol for Mercury is Hg.

    Question 15: Which acid is a harmful enzyme?

    A) Hydrochloric Acid
    B) Sulfuric Acid
    C) Nitric Acid
    D) Hydrofluoric Acid

    Answer
    Answer: A) Hydrochloric Acid
    Explanation: Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) is essential for digestion in the human stomach, but at high concentrations, it can be harmful.

    Question 16: What is the approximate pH value of water?

    A) 1
    B) 7
    C) 14
    D) 9

    Answer
    Answer: B) 7
    Explanation: The pH value of water is around 7, making it neutral.

    Question 17: Which element exhibits metallic properties?

    A) Hydrogen
    B) Oxygen
    C) Calcium
    D) Sulfur

    Answer
    Answer: C) Calcium
    Explanation: Calcium is a metal and shows properties similar to other metals.

    Question 18: Which chemical is a strong acid?

    A) Ethanol
    B) Acetic Acid
    C) Sulfuric Acid
    D) Ammonia

    Answer
    Answer: C) Sulfuric Acid
    Explanation: Sulfuric Acid (H₂SO₄) is a very strong acid.

    Question 19: What is formed when carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in water?

    A) Carbonic Acid
    B) Hydrochloric Acid
    C) Sulfuric Acid
    D) Nitric Acid

    Answer
    Answer: A) Carbonic Acid
    Explanation: When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, it forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).

    Question 20: Which element has the highest relative atomic mass?

    A) Hydrogen
    B) Helium
    C) Lithium
    D) Uranium

    Answer
    Answer: D) Uranium
    Explanation: Uranium has the highest relative atomic mass.

    Question 21: Which element remains in a gaseous state at room temperature?

    A) Iron
    B) Sodium
    C) Nitrogen
    D) Gold

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nitrogen
    Explanation: Nitrogen remains in a gaseous state at room temperature.

    Question 22: Which metal is the lightest?

    A) Lithium
    B) Sodium
    C) Potassium
    D) Magnesium

    Answer
    Answer: A) Lithium
    Explanation: Lithium is the lightest metal.

    Question 23: What is formed when hydrochloric acid and ammonia react?

    A) Ammonium Chloride
    B) Ammonium Hydroxide
    C) Hydrogen Chloride
    D) Hydrochloric Acid

    Answer
    Answer: A) Ammonium Chloride
    Explanation: Hydrochloric acid and ammonia combine to form ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl).

    Question 24: In chemistry, what does ‘pH’ stand for?

    A) Measurement of acidity
    B) Measurement of basicity
    C) Measurement of gaseous state
    D) Measurement of solid state

    Answer
    Answer: A) Measurement of acidity
    Explanation: pH measures acidity and basicity.

    Question 25: Which acid is a natural acid found in fruits?

    A) Sulfuric Acid
    B) Acetic Acid
    C) Citric Acid
    D) Hydrochloric Acid

    Answer
    Answer: C) Citric Acid
    Explanation: Citric acid is found in fruits, especially lemons and oranges.

    Question 26: Which element has only one electron in its outer shell?

    A) Helium
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Lithium
    D) Boron

    Answer
    Answer: B) Hydrogen
    Explanation: Hydrogen has only one electron in its outer shell.

    Question 27: What is the atomic number of Iron (Fe)?

    A) 20
    B) 26
    C) 29
    D) 32

    Answer
    Answer: B) 26
    Explanation: The atomic number of Iron (Fe) is 26.

    Question 28: What is the chemical symbol for Silver?

    A) Ag
    B) Au
    C) Pb
    D) Hg

    Answer
    Answer: A) Ag
    Explanation: The chemical symbol for silver is Ag.

    Question 29: Which element is commonly found as a diatomic molecule?

    A) Hydrogen
    B) Sodium
    C) Calcium
    D) Iron

    Answer
    Answer: A) Hydrogen
    Explanation: Hydrogen is commonly found as H₂.

    Question 30: Which gas is produced during the oxidation and burning of water?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Nitrogen
    D) Carbon Dioxide

    Answer
    Answer: B) Hydrogen
    Explanation: Hydrogen gas is produced during the electrolysis of water.

    Question 31: Which acid is predominant in acid rain?

    A) Hydrochloric acid
    B) Sulfuric acid
    C) Citric acid
    D) Acetic acid

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sulfuric acid
    Explanation: Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) plays a major role in acid rain.

    Question 32: Which chemical is used as a pesticide?

    A) Cysteine
    B) Chloroform
    C) DDT
    D) Aniline

    Answer
    Answer: C) DDT
    Explanation: DDT is used as a pesticide.

    Question 33: Which is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Carbon dioxide
    D) Argon

    Answer
    Answer: B) Nitrogen
    Explanation: Nitrogen makes up 78% of the Earth’s atmosphere.

    Question 34: Which element is most commonly used as a salt?

    A) Sodium
    B) Calcium
    C) Potassium
    D) Iron

    Answer
    Answer: A) Sodium
    Explanation: Sodium is the main element used in common salts like table salt (NaCl).

    Question 35: What compound is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen?

    A) Methane
    B) Ammonia
    C) Water
    D) Carbon dioxide

    Answer
    Answer: C) Water
    Explanation: Water (H₂O) is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen.

    Question 36: Which element is used in the production of atomic bombs?

    A) Plutonium
    B) Sodium
    C) Boron
    D) Magnesium

    Answer
    Answer: A) Plutonium
    Explanation: Plutonium (Pu) is used in the production of atomic bombs.

    Question 37: Which substance is used to clean teeth?

    A) Calcium carbonate
    B) Sodium chloride
    C) Silica
    D) Glycerine

    Answer
    Answer: C) Silica
    Explanation: Silica is used in toothpaste for cleaning teeth.

    Question 38: Which substance is called ‘white poison’ in the diet?

    A) Salt
    B) Sugar
    C) Sodium bicarbonate
    D) Calcium

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sugar
    Explanation: Sugar is often referred to as ‘white poison’ due to its excessive consumption leading to health issues.

    Question 39: Which chemical is used to preserve food?

    A) Acetic acid
    B) Sulfur dioxide
    C) Hydrochloric acid
    D) Nitric acid

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sulfur dioxide
    Explanation: Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is used to preserve food.

    Question 40: Which substance is a good conductor of electricity?

    A) Wood
    B) Plastic
    C) Copper
    D) Rubber

    Answer
    Answer: C) Copper
    Explanation: Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity.

    Question 41: Which compound is found in oily color?

    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Potassium permanganate
    C) Water
    D) Sodium chloride

    Answer
    Answer: B) Potassium permanganate
    Explanation: Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) has an oily color.

    Question 42: What is the chemical symbol of Helium?

    A) He
    B) H
    C) Hg
    D) H₂

    Answer
    Answer: A) He
    Explanation: The chemical symbol for Helium is He.

    Question 43: Which chemical is used to extinguish fire?

    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Ammonia
    D) Sulfur

    Answer
    Answer: A) Carbon dioxide
    Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is used for extinguishing fires.

    Question 44: Which element plays a significant role in DNA as an important biomolecule?

    A) Carbon
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Nitrogen
    D) Oxygen

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nitrogen
    Explanation: Nitrogen plays an essential role in the structure of DNA.

    Question 45: Which element is used in radiotherapy?

    A) Iodine
    B) Sodium
    C) Boron
    D) Calcium

    Answer
    Answer: A) Iodine
    Explanation: Iodine is used in radiotherapy.

    Question 46: Which chemical is used in burning and also found in fireworks?

    A) Nitrogen
    B) Potassium nitrate
    C) Sodium chloride
    D) Hydrochloric acid

    Answer
    Answer: B) Potassium nitrate
    Explanation: Potassium nitrate (KNO₃) is used in burning and in fireworks.

    Question 47: Which color indicator is used to identify acidic properties?

    A) Red
    B) Blue
    C) Green
    D) Yellow

    Answer
    Answer: A) Red
    Explanation: Red color indicator is used to identify acidic properties.

    Question 48: Which substance dissolves in water but not in oil?

    A) Salt
    B) Sugar
    C) Flour
    D) Fat

    Answer
    Answer: A) Salt
    Explanation: Salt (sodium chloride) dissolves in water but not in oil.

    Question 49: What is the most common example of a hydrogen bond?

    A) Ammonia
    B) Water
    C) Carbon dioxide
    D) Methane

    Answer
    Answer: B) Water
    Explanation: Water is the most common example of hydrogen bonding, where hydrogen of one water molecule bonds with the oxygen of another water molecule.

    Question 50: Which element is used in batteries?

    A) Lithium
    B) Sodium
    C) Calcium
    D) Potassium

    Answer
    Answer: A) Lithium
    Explanation: Lithium is used in batteries.

    Question 51: Which element is used in making steel?

    A) Carbon
    B) Silicon
    C) Zinc
    D) Platinum

    Answer
    Answer: A) Carbon
    Explanation: Carbon is used in making steel.

    Question 52: Which element plays an important role in biological instruments?

    A) Iron
    B) Sodium
    C) Calcium
    D) Gold

    Answer
    Answer: C) Calcium
    Explanation: Calcium plays a vital role in biological structures such as bones and teeth.

    Question 53: Which metal is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust?

    A) Chromium
    B) Zinc
    C) Rhodium
    D) Tin

    Answer
    Answer: B) Zinc
    Explanation: Zinc is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust.

    Question 54: Bronze is an alloy of which of the following?

    A) Copper and Zinc
    B) Tin and Zinc
    C) Copper and Tin
    D) Iron and Zinc

    Answer
    Answer: C) Copper and Tin

    Question 55: What is the bond called when electrons are shared between two elements?

    A) Covalent bond
    B) Hydrogen bond
    C) Ionic bond
    D) Dative bond

    Answer
    Answer: A) Covalent bond
    Explanation: A covalent bond is formed when electrons are shared between the atoms of the elements.

    Question 56: The isotope of which element is used in cancer treatment?

    A) Cobalt
    B) Nickel
    C) Aluminum
    D) Iron

    Answer
    Answer: A) Cobalt
    Explanation: Cobalt isotopes are used in cancer treatment.

    Question 57: A naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO is?

    A) Acetophenone
    B) Benzophenone
    C) Propiophenone
    D) Methcathinone

    Answer
    Answer: B) Benzophenone

    Question 58: What is the atomic mass of sodium?

    A) 13
    B) 23
    C) 40
    D) 12

    Answer
    Answer: B) 23
    Explanation: The atomic number of sodium is 11, and it has 12 neutrons, making its atomic mass 11 + 12 = 23.

    Question 59: Which gas is produced when lead nitrate is heated?

    A) Nitrogen dioxide
    B) Lead dioxide
    C) Lead oxide
    D) Nitrogen oxide

    Answer
    Answer: A) Nitrogen dioxide
    Explanation: When lead nitrate is heated, it decomposes to produce lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen.

    Question 60: Which chemical element from group 18 of the periodic table is produced in soil and rocks due to the natural radioactive decay of uranium?

    A) Radon
    B) Neon
    C) Krypton
    D) Oganesson

    Answer
    Answer: A) Radon
  • Indian Geography MCQ for Competitive Exams

    Indian Geography MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams in English Medium. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free practice of upcoming exams.

    Indian Geography MCQ

    Q.1: Which hill station’s name means ‘place of the thunderbolt’?

    (a) Gangtok
    (b) Shillong
    (c) Ootacamund
    (d) Darjeeling

    Answer
    (d) Darjeeling

    Q.2: To conserve coral reefs, the Government of India declared one of the following as a Marine Park:

    (a) Andaman Islands
    (b) Gulf of Kutch
    (c) Lakshadweep Islands
    (d) Gulf of Mannar

    Answer
    (b) Gulf of Kutch

    Q.3: The headquarters of the Survey of India Department is located in:

    (a) Jaipur
    (b) Dehradun
    (c) Hyderabad
    (d) New Delhi

    Answer
    (b) Dehradun

    Q.4: Which of the following states in India has the longest coastline?

    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Tamil Nadu
    (d) Gujarat

    Answer
    (d) Gujarat

    Q.5: Which of the following is called a ‘young fold mountain’?

    (a) Aravali
    (b) Nilgiri
    (c) Himalaya
    (d) Vindhya

    Answer
    (c) Himalaya

    Q.6: The easternmost peak of the Himalayas is:

    (a) Namcha Barwa
    (b) Annapurna
    (c) Kanchenjunga
    (d) Mount Everest

    Answer
    (a) Namcha Barwa

    Q.7: Metamorphic rocks change in:

    (a) Structure
    (b) Texture
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) Original chemical composition

    Answer
    (c) Both (a) and (b)

    Q.8: What is the total area of India?

    (a) 8,511,965 sq km
    (b) 3,897,950 sq km
    (c) 5,926,780 sq km
    (d) 3,287,590 sq km

    Answer
    (d) 3,287,590 sq km

    Q.9: The two richest eco-zones of India are:

    (a) Himalayas and Vindhyas
    (b) Himalayas and Eastern Ghats
    (c) Himalayas and Western Ghats
    (d) Himalayas and Aravalis

    Answer
    (c) Himalayas and Western Ghats

    Q.10: How many islands are there in Lakshadweep?

    (a) 17
    (b) 27
    (c) 36
    (d) 47

    Answer
    (c) 36

    Q.11: Niyamgiri hill is located in Kalahandi district of:

    (a) Odisha
    (b) West Bengal
    (c) Punjab
    (d) Kerala

    Answer
    (a) Odisha

    Q.12: Indira Point is the southernmost tip of:

    (a) Maldives
    (b) Laccadive
    (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    (d) Dhanushkodi

    Answer
    (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

    Q.13: The highest peak of India is:

    (a) Kamet Mountain
    (b) Nandakot
    (c) Nanda Devi
    (d) K2 (Godwin Austen)

    Answer
    (d) K2 (Godwin Austen)

    Q.14: Sabarimala is situated in which of the following states?

    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Tamil Nadu
    (c) Kerala
    (d) Karnataka

    Answer
    (c) Kerala

    Q.15: Which Himalayan peak is also known as ‘Sagarmatha’?

    (a) Nanga Parbat
    (b) Dhaulagiri
    (c) Mt. Everest
    (d) Kanchenjunga

    Answer
    (c) Mt. Everest

    Q.16: The highest mountain peak of peninsular India is:

    (a) Anaimudi
    (b) Doddabetta
    (c) Mahendragiri
    (d) Nilgiris

    Answer
    (a) Anaimudi

    Q.17: The Greater Himalayas are otherwise called as:

    (a) Himadri
    (b) Sahyadri
    (c) Assam Himalayas
    (d) Siwalik

    Answer
    (a) Himadri

    Q.18: The world’s largest river island, Majuli, is located in which state?

    (a) Arunachal Pradesh
    (b) Assam
    (c) Tripura
    (d) Mizoram

    Answer
    (b) Assam

    Q.19: Kanchenjunga is situated in:

    (a) Nepal
    (b) Sikkim
    (c) West Bengal
    (d) Himachal Pradesh

    Answer
    (b) Sikkim

    Q.20: Godwin Austen is a/an:

    (a) Inventor of telescope
    (b) Geologist
    (c) Pass
    (d) Peak

    Answer
    (d) Peak

    Q.21: Jog Falls is situated in which state?

    (a) Kerala
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Karnataka
    (d) Tamil Nadu

    Answer
    (c) Karnataka

    Q.22: Which of the following is the highest peak of undisputed Indian territory?

    (a) Mount Everest
    (b) Kanchenjunga
    (c) Nanda Devi
    (d) Nanga Parbat

    Answer
    (c) Nanda Devi

    Q.23: Palghat joins which of the following states?

    (a) Sikkim and West Bengal
    (b) Maharashtra and Gujarat
    (c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
    (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim1

    Answer
    (c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

    Q.24: ‘Loktak’ is a:

    (a) Valley
    (b) Lake
    (c) River
    (d) Mountain range

    Answer
    (b) Lake

    Q.25: Which of the following states has the longest coastline?

    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Tamil Nadu
    (c) Gujarat
    (d) Andhra Pradesh

    Answer
    (c) Gujarat

    Q.26: The pass located in Himachal Pradesh is:

    (a) Shipki La
    (b) Zojila
    (c) Nathula
    (d) Jelepla

    Answer
    (a) Shipki La

    Q.27: The highest waterfall in India is:

    (a) Hogenakkal Falls
    (b) Kunchikal Falls
    (c) Jog Falls
    (d) Shimsha Falls

    Answer
    (b) Kunchikal Falls

    Q.28: The sea that was in place of the Himalayas was:

    (a) Red Sea
    (b) Arabian Sea
    (c) Tethys Sea
    (d) Dead Sea

    Answer
    (c) Tethys Sea

    Q.29: Kullu Valley is situated between:

    (a) Ladakh and Pir Panjal
    (b) Ranjoti and Nag Tibba
    (c) Lesser Himalayas and Shiwalik
    (d) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal

    Answer
    (a) Ladakh and Pir Panjal

    Q.30: The mountains that are not a part of the Himalayan range are:

    (a) Aravali
    (b) Kunlun
    (c) Karakoram
    (d) Hindu Kush

    Answer
    (a) Aravali

    Q.31: The length of the coastline of India is approximately:

    (a) 4,900 kilometers
    (b) 5,700 kilometers
    (c) 7,500 kilometers
    (d) 8,300 kilometers

    Answer
    (c) 7,500 kilometers

    Q.32: Which of the following is the second highest peak in the world?

    (a) Dhaulagiri
    (b) Kanchenjunga
    (c) K2
    (d) Nanda Devi

    Answer
    (c) K2

    Q.33: Badland topography is characteristic of:

    (a) Chambal Valley
    (b) Coastal region
    (c) Sunderban Delta
    (d) Gulf of Kutch

    Answer
    (a) Chambal Valley

    Q.34: The Indian desert is known as:

    (a) Gobi
    (b) Sahara
    (c) Thar
    (d) Atacama

    Answer
    (c) Thar

    Q.35: Which state of India has the largest coastline?

    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Odisha
    (d) Tamil Nadu

    Answer
    (a) Andhra Pradesh

    Q.36: The coast related to Kerala is called:

    (a) Konkan Coast
    (b) Malabar Coast
    (c) Coromandel Coast
    (d) Canara Coast

    Answer
    (b) Malabar Coast

    Q.37: The coastline of India is ……… km.

    (a) 5,500 kilometers
    (b) 6,500 kilometers
    (c) 7,500 kilometers
    (d) 8,400 kilometers

    Answer
    (c) 7,500 kilometers

    Q.38: Baltora Glacier is situated in:

    (a) Karakoram Ranges
    (b) Pamir Plateau
    (c) Shiwalik
    (d) Alps

    Answer
    (a) Karakoram Ranges

    Q.39: Which of the following cities/towns is located on the northernmost latitude?

    (a) Patna
    (b) Allahabad
    (c) Pachmarhi
    (d) Ahmedabad

    Answer
    (a) Patna

    Q.40: The Andaman group and Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by:

    (a) Ten Degree Channel
    (b) Great Channel
    (c) Bay of Bengal
    (d) Andaman2 Sea

    Answer
    (a) Ten Degree Channel

    Q.41: The southern tip of India is:

    (a) Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)
    (b) Point Calimere
    (c) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
    (d) Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram3

    Answer
    (c) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands

    Q.42: The Nallamala Hills are located in the state of:

    (a) Odisha
    (b) Meghalaya
    (c) Andhra Pradesh
    (d) Gujarat

    Answer
    (c) Andhra Pradesh

    Q.43: The coastal tract of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is called:

    (a) Konkan
    (b) Coromandel
    (c) Eastern coast
    (d) Malabar coast

    Answer
    (b) Coromandel

    Q.44: The highest Indian waterfall is:

    (a) Gokak
    (b) Gersoppa
    (c) Shivanasamudra
    (d) Yenna

    Answer
    (b) Gersoppa

    Q.45: The fertile land between two rivers is called

    (a) Water divide
    (b) Water shed
    (c) Doab
    (d) Tarai

    Answer
    (c) Doab

    Q.46: Nathu La, the place where India-China border trade has resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in:

    (a) Sikkim
    (b) Arunachal Pradesh
    (c) Himachal Pradesh
    (d) Jammu and Kashmir4

    Answer
    (a) Sikkim

    Q.47: In terms of area, India is the largest country in the world.

    (a) Second
    (b) Fourth
    (c) Sixth
    (d) Seventh

    Answer
    (d) Seventh

    Q.48: The approximate length of India’s coastline is:

    (a) 5,500 km
    (b) 6,000 km
    (c) 6,500 km
    (d) 7,000 km

    Answer
    (d) 7,000 km

    Q.49: The standard time of a country differs from GMT in multiples of:

    (a) Two hours
    (b) One hour
    (c) Half an hour
    (d) Four minutes

    Answer
    (c) Half an hour

    Q.50: The Naga, Khasi and Garo hills are located in:

    (a) Purvanchal Range
    (b) Karakoram Range
    (c) Zaskar Range
    (d) Himalayan Range

    Answer
    (a) Purvanchal Range

  • Environment GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

    Environment General Knowledge (GK) MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams.
    Medium: English
    Important Questions from previous year exam papers.

    Question 1: What is the biotic component of the environment and ecology?

    A) Soil
    B) Water
    C) Air
    D) Vegetation

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Vegetation
    Explanation: The biotic component of the environment and ecology refers to living elements, including vegetation, animals, and microorganisms.

    Question 2: What is an example of a natural ecosystem?

    A) Farmland
    B) Dam
    C) Lake
    D) Park

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Lake
    Explanation: Natural ecosystems exist without human intervention, such as lakes, forests, and rivers.

    Question 3: What are herbivores called?

    A) Producers
    B) Primary consumers
    C) Secondary consumers
    D) Tertiary consumers

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Primary consumers
    Explanation: Herbivores that consume plants are called primary consumers.

    Question 4: What is the primary source of energy in an ecosystem?

    A) Geothermal energy
    B) Sun
    C) Greenhouse gases
    D) Moon

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Sun
    Explanation: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is the Sun, which provides energy to plants through photosynthesis.

    Question 5: Which plant species is classified as endangered in India?

    A) Mango
    B) Sheesham
    C) Teak
    D) Sandalwood

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Sandalwood
    Explanation: Due to the high demand for sandalwood and its oil, it has been classified as an endangered plant species.

    Question 6: Where is Kaziranga National Park located?

    A) Uttarakhand
    B) Assam
    C) Arunachal Pradesh
    D) Nagaland

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Assam
    Explanation: Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, famous for its one-horned rhinoceroses.

    Question 7: What is the major source of carbon dioxide emissions?

    A) Fossil fuel combustion
    B) Animal respiration
    C) Volcanic activity
    D) Marshlands

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Fossil fuel combustion
    Explanation: The burning of fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide, which is a major contributor to air pollution and global warming.

    Question 8: What is the major impact of deforestation?

    A) Soil erosion
    B) Weed control
    C) Reduction in sunlight
    D) Increase in grazing land

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Soil erosion
    Explanation: Deforestation leads to increased soil erosion, reducing soil fertility and negatively affecting agriculture.

    Question 9: What is a natural source of nitrous oxide gas?

    A) Desert soils
    B) Polar soils
    C) Temperate soils
    D) Tropical soils

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Tropical soils
    Explanation: Tropical soils naturally emit nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas.

    Question 10: How do forests help control drought?

    A) Forests prevent soil erosion.
    B) Forests contribute to rainfall.
    C) Forests contain many aquatic plants.
    D) Forests act as water reservoirs.

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Forests contribute to rainfall.
    Explanation: Forests influence local climate through evaporation and contribute to rainfall, helping to control drought.

    Question 11: Which is the only carbon-neutral country in the world?

    A) Sweden
    B) New Zealand
    C) Finland
    D) Canada

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Sweden
    Explanation: Sweden is recognized as the only carbon-neutral country due to its green energy sources and measures to reduce carbon emissions.

    Question 12: The cause of global warming is:

    A) Decrease in carbon dioxide
    B) Increase in carbon dioxide
    C) Increase in forests
    D) None of these

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Increase in carbon dioxide
    Explanation: The main cause of global warming is the rising levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

    Question 13: Which greenhouse gas is produced by ruminant animals?

    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Water vapor
    C) Methane (CH4)
    D) Nitrous oxide

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Methane (CH4)
    Explanation: Ruminant animals produce methane gas during their digestive process, which is a greenhouse gas.

    Question 14: Which pollutant gas is emitted by vehicles?

    A) Hydrocarbons
    B) Carbon dioxide
    C) Carbon monoxide
    D) Nitrogen oxides

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Carbon monoxide
    Explanation: Carbon monoxide is a major pollutant gas emitted by vehicles, which is harmful to health.

    Question 15: Air pollution can be reduced by:

    A) Sunlight
    B) Trees
    C) Restricting loudspeakers
    D) None of these

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Trees
    Explanation: Trees absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen, helping to reduce air pollution.

    Question 16: The “Harela Festival” celebrated in Uttarakhand is related to:

    A) Water conservation
    B) Tree plantation
    C) Ozone protection
    D) None of these

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Tree plantation
    Explanation: The “Harela Festival” is celebrated in Uttarakhand as a symbol of tree plantation and environmental conservation.

    Question 17: Which country experiences the most acid rain?

    A) Japan
    B) China
    C) Norway
    D) United States of America

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Norway
    Explanation: Norway experiences the most acid rain due to high levels of sulfur and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere from industrial activities.

    Question 18: The ozone layer absorbs harmful rays known as:

    A) Gamma rays
    B) Ultraviolet rays
    C) X-rays
    D) None of these

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Ultraviolet rays
    Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet rays, which can be harmful to living organisms.

    Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?

    A) March 22
    B) April 22
    C) June 5
    D) August 15

    Answer
    Answer: (B) April 22
    Explanation: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22 every year to raise awareness about environmental protection.

    Question 20: When was the Environmental Protection Act implemented?

    A) 1972
    B) 1986
    C) 1992
    D) 2000

    Answer
    Answer: (B) 1986
    Explanation: The Environmental Protection Act was implemented in India in 1986 to provide laws for the protection and improvement of the environment.

    Question 21: Which pollutant causes damage to the ozone layer?

    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Nitrous oxide
    C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
    D) Sulfur dioxide

    Answer
    Answer: C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
    Explanation: CFCs damage the ozone layer, allowing harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun to reach the Earth.

    Question 22: Which gas is not considered a greenhouse gas?

    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Methane
    C) Oxygen
    D) Nitrous oxide

    Answer
    Answer: C) Oxygen
    Explanation: Oxygen is not a greenhouse gas because it does not trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere.

    Question 23: What is the largest source of plant life?

    A) Desert
    B) Ocean
    C) Forest
    D) Grassland

    Answer
    Answer: C) Forest
    Explanation: Forests are the largest source of plant life on Earth and they produce a large amount of oxygen.

    Question 24: What is natural vegetation?

    A) Plants planted by humans
    B) Naturally growing plants
    C) Agricultural plants
    D) Decorative plants

    Answer
    Answer: B) Naturally growing plants
    Explanation: Natural vegetation consists of plants that grow naturally without human intervention.

    Question 25: What does the Red Data Book provide information about?

    A) New species of plants
    B) Endangered and extinct species
    C) Medicinal plants
    D) Food plants

    Answer
    Answer:B) Endangered and extinct species
    Explanation: The Red Data Book provides information about endangered and extinct species.

    Question 26: Which process is not a part of the water cycle?

    A) Evaporation
    B) Condensation
    C) Nitrification
    D) Precipitation

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nitrification
    Explanation: Nitrification is part of the nitrogen cycle, not the water cycle.

    Question 27: Which instrument is not used for environmental studies?

    A) Barometer
    B) Seismograph
    C) Hygrometer
    D) Galvanometer

    Answer
    Answer: D) Galvanometer
    Explanation: A galvanometer is used to measure electric current, which is not an environmental study tool.

    Question 28: What is the most important role of biodiversity?

    A) Energy production
    B) Ecological balance
    C) Industrial development
    D) Urbanization

    Answer
    Answer: B) Ecological balance
    Explanation: Biodiversity plays a crucial role in maintaining ecological balance.

    Question 29: Which gas is most responsible for the greenhouse effect?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Carbon dioxide
    D) Helium

    Answer
    Answer: C) Carbon dioxide
    Explanation: Carbon dioxide is the most prominent greenhouse gas and plays a significant role in the greenhouse effect.

    Question 30: By which process does water vapor reach the atmosphere?

    A) Condensation
    B) Evaporation
    C) Precipitation
    D) Nitrification

    Answer
    Answer: B) Evaporation
    Explanation: Water turns into vapor and reaches the atmosphere through the process of evaporation.

    Question 31: Which fuel is less polluting?

    A) Coal
    B) Diesel
    C) Natural Gas
    D) Petrol

    Answer
    Answer: C) Natural Gas
    Explanation: Natural gas is less polluting compared to coal and diesel.

    Question 32: What does the term “carbon footprint” mean?

    A) Carbon accumulation
    B) Carbon production
    C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization
    D) Carbon usage

    Answer
    Answer: C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization
    Explanation: The carbon footprint refers to the total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization.

    Question 33: Which element is most essential for life on Earth?

    A) Carbon
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Water
    D) Oxygen

    Answer
    Answer: C) Water
    Explanation: Water is the most essential element for life on Earth as it is necessary for the survival of all living beings.

    Question 34: Which process affects vegetation and drainage?

    A) Erosion
    B) Reforestation
    C) Degradation
    D) Afforestation

    Answer
    Answer: D) Afforestation
    Explanation: Afforestation promotes the growth of vegetation and affects drainage.

    Question 35: Which factor is not involved in natural disasters?

    A) Earthquake
    B) Flood
    C) Cyclone
    D) Afforestation

    Answer
    Answer: D) Afforestation
    Explanation: Afforestation is not a natural disaster; it is an environmental conservation measure.

    Question 36: Which gas is found in the highest amount in the atmosphere?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Carbon Dioxide
    D) Helium

    Answer
    Answer: B) Nitrogen
    Explanation: Nitrogen is found in the highest quantity in the atmosphere, about 78%.

    Question 37: Which gas is present in the smallest percentage in Earth’s atmosphere?

    A) Nitrogen
    B) Oxygen
    C) Carbon Dioxide
    D) Argon

    Answer
    Answer: C) Carbon Dioxide
    Explanation: Carbon dioxide is present in the smallest percentage in the atmosphere, about 0.04%.

    Question 38: Which environmental pollutant causes acid rain?

    A) Carbon Monoxide
    B) Sulfur Dioxide
    C) Methane
    D) Nitrogen

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sulfur Dioxide
    Explanation: Sulfur dioxide and nitrous oxide cause acid rain, which harms the environment.

    Question 39: Which process helps maintain environmental balance?

    A) Urbanization
    B) Industrialization
    C) Reforestation
    D) Afforestation

    Answer
    Answer: D) Afforestation
    Explanation: Afforestation helps maintain environmental balance as it increases the number of forests.

    Question 40: What is the main cause of climate change?

    A) Solar activities
    B) Natural disasters
    C) Greenhouse gas emissions
    D) The position of the moon

    Answer
    Answer: C) Greenhouse gas emissions
    Explanation: The main cause of climate change is the emission of greenhouse gases, which increase Earth’s heat.

    Question 41: Which process produces oxygen?

    A) Respiration
    B) Evaporation
    C) Photosynthesis
    D) Nitrification

    Answer
    Answer: C) Photosynthesis
    Explanation: Plants produce oxygen during the process of photosynthesis.

    Question 42: Which natural resource is not renewable?

    A) Solar energy
    B) Water energy
    C) Coal
    D) Wind energy

    Answer
    Answer: C) Coal
    Explanation: Coal is a non-renewable resource because it takes millions of years to regenerate.

    Question 43: Which organization works on issues related to climate change?

    A) WHO
    B) IMF
    C) IPCC
    D) UNESCO

    Answer
    Answer: C) IPCC
    Explanation: The IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) works on issues related to climate change.

    Question 44: Which process is not a part of the carbon cycle?

    A) Respiration
    B) Weathering
    C) Combustion
    D) Condensation

    Answer
    Answer: D) Condensation
    Explanation: Condensation is a part of the water cycle, while respiration, weathering, and combustion are parts of the carbon cycle.

    Question 45: Which process causes water pollution?

    A) Erosion
    B) Excessive use of fertilizers
    C) Condensation
    D) Afforestation

    Answer
    Answer: B) Excessive use of fertilizers
    Explanation: Excessive use of fertilizers pollutes water sources and causes water pollution.

    Question 46: Which waste is not recyclable?

    A) Plastic
    B) Paper
    C) Glass
    D) Organic waste

    Answer
    Answer: D) Organic waste
    Explanation: Organic waste is not recyclable, but it can be decomposed through composting.

    Question 47: Which process helps in preventing global warming?

    A) Combustion
    B) Industrialization
    C) Afforestation
    D) Urbanization

    Answer
    Answer: C) Afforestation
    Explanation: Afforestation helps prevent global warming by reducing the level of carbon dioxide.

    Question 48: Which gas causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Carbon dioxide
    D) Helium

    Answer
    Answer: C) Carbon dioxide
    Explanation: Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas that causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere.

    Question 49: Which is a key component of the ecosystem?

    A) Water
    B) Atmosphere
    C) Soil
    D) All of the above

    Answer
    Answer: D) All of the above
    Explanation: Water, atmosphere, and soil are all key components of the ecosystem.

    Question 50: Which process harms the environment?

    A) Afforestation
    B) Reforestation
    C) Combustion
    D) Water conservation

    Answer
    Answer: C) Combustion
    Explanation: Combustion harms the environment by emitting harmful gases.

    Question 51: What is the main cause of climate change?

    A) Natural disasters
    B) Emission of greenhouse gases
    C) Solar activities
    D) Moon’s position

    Answer
    Answer: B) Emission of greenhouse gases
    Explanation: The emission of greenhouse gases is the primary cause of climate change.

    Question 52: Which process helps in purifying the environment?

    A) Urbanization
    B) Industrialization
    C) Reclamation
    D) Afforestation

    Answer
    Answer: D) Afforestation
    Explanation: Afforestation helps in purifying the environment by increasing the number of forests and purifying the air.

    Question 53: What is the primary function of the ozone layer?

    A) To heat the Earth
    B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun
    C) To promote rainfall
    D) To cool the atmosphere

    Answer
    Answer: B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun
    Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun, ensuring the safety of life on Earth.

    Question 54: Which gas damages the ozone layer?

    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Methane
    C) Nitrous oxide
    D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

    Answer
    Answer: D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
    Explanation: CFCs damage the ozone layer, allowing ultraviolet rays to reach Earth.

    Question 55: What is the full form of CNG?

    A) Compound Natural Gas
    B) Compressed Natural Gas
    C) Complete Natural Gas
    D) Natural Gas

    Answer
    Answer: B) Compressed Natural Gas

    Question 56: Where is the National Environmental Research Institute located?

    A) Bhopal
    B) Lucknow
    C) Nagpur (Maharashtra)
    D) Delhi

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nagpur (Maharashtra)

    Question 57: In which category do various types of fungi fall?

    A) Producers
    B) Consumers
    C) Decomposers
    D) Abiotic

    Answer
    Answer: C) Decomposers

    Question 58: Which country has the highest biodiversity?

    A) Germany
    B) India
    C) China
    D) South Africa

    Answer
    Answer: B) India

    Question 59: Which disease has increased due to ozone layer depletion and ozone holes?

    A) Malaria
    B) AIDS
    C) Cholera
    D) Skin cancer

    Answer
    Answer: D) Skin cancer

    Question 60: Sound pollution is measured in:

    A) Fathom
    B) Decibels
    C) Tons
    D) Kilograms

    Answer
    Answer: B) Decibels

    Question 61: The specific cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called _______.

    A) Agriculture
    B) Horticulture
    C) Sericulture
    D) Fish farming

    Answer
    Answer: B) Horticulture
  • Books and Authors GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

    Books and Authors GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for preparation of Competitive exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

    Books and Authors MCQs in English

    Q.1: Who is the author of the novel ‘When the River Sleeps’?
    (A) Easterine Kire
    (B) Anuradha Roy
    (C) Vikram Seth
    (D) Shobha De

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Easterine Kire

    Q.2: Which of the following books is written by Sachin Tendulkar?
    (A) Playing It My Way
    (B) Untold Story
    (C) Train to Pakistan
    (D) India of My Dreams

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Playing It My Way

    Q.3: The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ is related to whom?
    (A) William Wordsworth
    (B) John Keats
    (C) Dr. Charles Dickens
    (D) Dr. Jonathan Swift

    Answer
    Answer: (B) John Keats

    Q.4: Who is the author of the book ‘Zest for Life’?
    (A) Emile Zola
    (B) H.G. Wells
    (C) Virginia Woolf
    (D) Mark Twain

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Emile Zola

    Q.5: Who wrote the famous novel The Guide?
    (A) R.K. Narayan
    (B) Chetan Bhagat
    (C) Arundhati Roy
    (D) Satyajit Ray

    Answer
    Answer: (A) R.K. Narayan

    Q.6: Who is the author of the book Magic Seeds?
    (A) Cyrus Mistry
    (B) V.S. Naipaul
    (C) Jhumpa Lahiri
    (D) Vikram Seth

    Answer
    Answer: (B) V.S. Naipaul

    Q.7: Who is the author of the book Romancing with Life?
    (A) Kapil Dev
    (B) Dev Anand
    (C) Shashi Tharoor
    (D) Bill Clinton

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Dev Anand

    Q.8: Who is the author of Indica?
    (A) Megasthenes
    (B) Fa-Hien
    (C) Seleucus
    (D) Hiuen Tsang

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Megasthenes

    Q.9: Who wrote The Discovery of India?
    (A) Mahatma Gandhi
    (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
    (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru

    Q.10: Who wrote the book The Kingdom of God is Within You?
    (A) Leo Tolstoy
    (B) Henry David
    (C) Mahatma Gandhi
    (D) John Ruskin

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Leo Tolstoy

    Q.11: In which year was the book ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ published?
    (A) 1930
    (B) 1932
    (C) 1934
    (D) 1936

    Answer
    Answer: (D) 1936

    Q.12: Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom from Fear’?
    (A) Benazir Bhutto
    (B) Corazon Aquino
    (C) Aung San Suu Kyi
    (D) Nayantara Sahgal

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Aung San Suu Kyi

    Q.13: Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty-Four’?
    (A) J.M. Barrie
    (B) Walter Scott
    (C) George Orwell
    (D) Thomas Hardy

    Answer
    Answer: (C) George Orwell

    Q.14: Who wrote ‘Mein Kampf’?
    (A) Hitler
    (B) Mussolini
    (C) Bismarck
    (D) Mazzini

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Hitler

    Q.15: Who is the author of the book ‘The Life Divine’?
    (A) M.K. Gandhi
    (B) Rabindranath Tagore
    (C) S. Radhakrishnan
    (D) Sri Aurobindo

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Sri Aurobindo

    Q.16: Who wrote ‘Das Kapital’?
    (A) Asian Drama
    (B) Emma
    (C) Das Kapital
    (D) The Good Earth

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Das Kapital

    Q.17: Who wrote ‘Meghaduta’?
    (A) Humayun Kabir
    (B) Khushwant Singh
    (C) Banabhatta
    (D) Kalidasa

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Kalidasa

    Q.18: Which of the following is a famous English author?
    (A) Amrita Pritam
    (B) Mahadevi Verma
    (C) Ashapoorna Devi
    (D) Mulk Raj Anand

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Mulk Raj Anand

    Q.19: Who wrote ‘Indica’?
    (A) Kautilya
    (B) Megasthenes
    (C) Aryabhata
    (D) Seleucus

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Megasthenes

    Q.20: In which author’s book is the character ‘Rusty’ found?
    (A) R.K. Narayan
    (B) Ruskin Bond
    (C) R.K. Laxman
    (D) Rabindranath Tagore

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Ruskin Bond

    Q.21: Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’?
    (A) Lamarck
    (B) Buffon
    (C) Darwin
    (D) Linnaeus

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Linnaeus

    Q.22: Who wrote the book ‘Narendra Modi: A Political Biography’?
    (A) Andy Marino
    (B) David Irving
    (C) Jeffrey Dale
    (D) Kingsley Amis

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Andy Marino

    Q.23: Who is the author of ‘A Suitable Boy’?
    (A) Vikram Seth
    (B) Arundhati Roy
    (C) Khushwant Singh
    (D) None of these

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Vikram Seth

    Q.24: Which of the following books was not written by Jawaharlal Nehru?
    (A) Discovery of India
    (B) My Experiments with Truth
    (C) An Autobiography
    (D) Glimpses of World History

    Answer
    Answer: (B) My Experiments with Truth

    Q.25: Who wrote the book ‘The Hindus: An Alternative History’?
    (A) Shobhaa De
    (B) B.R. Ambedkar
    (C) Wendy Doniger
    (D) Salman Rushdie

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Wendy Doniger

    Q.26: Who wrote ‘The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian’?
    (A) R.K. Narayan
    (B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
    (C) R.K. Laxman
    (D) Rajmohan Gandhi

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri

    Q.27: Who is the author of ‘India of My Dreams’?
    (A) J.B. Kripalani
    (B) M.K. Gandhi
    (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
    (D) Jawaharlal Nehru

    Answer
    Answer: (B) M.K. Gandhi

    Q.28: Who is the author of ‘Arthashastra’?
    (A) Chandragupta
    (B) Megasthenes
    (C) Chanakya
    (D) Seleucus Nicator

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Chanakya

    Q.29: Who wrote the book ‘Beyond the Lines: An Autobiography’?
    (A) Khushwant Singh
    (B) General J.J. Singh
    (C) Kuldip Nayar
    (D) Ray Bradbury

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Kuldip Nayar

    Q.30: Who is the author of ‘Harsha Charitra’?
    (A) Banabhatta
    (B) Amarasimha
    (C) Kalidasa
    (D) Harisena

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Banabhatta

    Q.31: Who wrote the book ‘Employment, Interest, and Money’?
    (A) J.M. Keynes
    (B) A. Marshall
    (C) D. Patinkin
    (D) A. Smith

    Answer
    Answer: (A) J.M. Keynes

    Q.32: Who wrote the famous play ‘Nil Darpan’, depicting the atrocities of British indigo planters?
    (A) Premchand
    (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
    (C) Dinabandhu Mitra
    (D) Subramania Bharati

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Dinabandhu Mitra

    Q.33: Who wrote ‘One Straw Revolution’?
    (A) Rachel Carson
    (B) M.S. Swaminathan
    (C) Norman Borlaug
    (D) Masanobu Fukuoka

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Masanobu Fukuoka

    Q.34: Who wrote ‘Natyashastra’?
    (A) Bharat Muni
    (B) Narad Muni
    (C) Jandu Muni
    (D) Vyas Muni

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Bharat Muni

    Q.35: Who is the author of the book ‘A Cricketing Life’?

    (A) Christopher Martin Jenkins
    (B) Sunil Gavaskar
    (C) Kapil Dev
    (D) Tony Greig

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Christopher Martin Jenkins

    Q.36: Which of the following works was Salman Rushdie’s first novel?
    (A) Shame
    (B) Midnight’s Children
    (C) The Satanic Verses
    (D) The Moor’s Last Sigh

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Midnight’s Children

    Q.37: Which film directed by Satyajit Ray is based on Rabindranath Tagore’s story ‘Nastanirh’?
    (A) Aparajito
    (B) Charulata
    (C) Pather Panchali
    (D) Apur Sansar

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Charulata

    Q.38: Which of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan?
    (A) Malgudi Days
    (B) Swami and Friends
    (C) The Guide
    (D) The Gardener

    Answer
    Answer: (D) The Gardener

    Q.39: Which literary work was written by Krishna Devaraya?
    (A) Kavirajamarga
    (B) Ushaparinayam
    (C) Amuktamalyada
    (D) Kathasaritsagara

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Amuktamalyada

    Q.40: Who is the author of the book ‘The State of the Nation’?
    (A) Mark Tully
    (B) Vinod Mehta
    (C) Kuldip Nayar
    (D) Fali S. Nariman

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Fali S. Nariman

    Q.41: Who wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’?
    (A) Amrita Pritam
    (B) Rajmohan Gandhi
    (C) Kapil Dev
    (D) R.K. Karanjia

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Kapil Dev

    Q.42: Who is the author of the famous book ‘A Better India: A Better World’?
    (A) Azim Premji
    (B) Rajiv Sikri
    (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy
    (D) Prema Mahajan

    Answer
    Answer: (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy

    Q.43: Who wrote the book ‘The Satanic Verses’?
    (A) Agatha Christie
    (B) Gunnar Myrdal
    (C) Gabriela Sabatini
    (D) Salman Rushdie

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Salman Rushdie

    Q.44: Which of the following books was written by Atiq Rahimi?
    (A) Earth and Ashes
    (B) This Savage Rite
    (C) The Red Devil
    (D) Witness the Night

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Earth and Ashes

    Q.45: ‘Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India’ was recently in the news and banned in some Indian states including Gujarat. Who is the author of this book?
    (A) Joseph Lelyveld
    (B) Michael Ondaatje
    (C) Jack Welch
    (D) Duncan Green

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Joseph Lelyveld

    Q.46: Who is the author of the book ‘The Zigzag Way’?
    (A) Anita Desai
    (B) Salman Sodhi
    (C) Jahnavi Barua
    (D) Lisa Genova

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Anita Desai

    Q.47: Who wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence’?

    (A) Krishna Varma
    (B) Madam Cama
    (C) B.G. Tilak
    (D) V.D. Savarkar

    Answer
    Answer: (D) V.D. Savarkar

    Q.48: Who wrote the Sanskrit grammar?
    (A) Kalidasa
    (B) Charaka
    (C) Panini
    (D) Aryabhata

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Panini

    Q.49: Which of the following famous books is related to Austin?
    (A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
    (B) Leviathan
    (C) The Social Contract
    (D) The Problem of Sovereignty

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Lectures on Jurisprudence

    Q.50: Who is the author of the book ‘India Wins Freedom’?
    (A) Kuldip Nayar
    (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
    (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (D) Indira Gandhi

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

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