Ancient History of India MCQ for Competitive Exams

Important Ancient History of India GK MCQ questions for Competitive Exams. Topic wise practice set in English from previous year exam question papers of SSC, UPSSSC and other government jobs exams.

Prehistoric Era and Harappan Civilization

Q.1: The social system of the Harappan people was ……………?
a) Fairly egalitarian
b) Slave-labor based
c) Caste-based
d) Varna-based

Answer
Answer: a) Fairly egalitarian

Q.2: The houses in the Indus Valley were made of?
a) Bricks
b) Bamboo
c) Stone
d) Wood

Answer
Answer: a) Bricks

Q.3: The inhabitants of Harappa were-
a) Rural
b) Urban
c) Nomadic
d) Tribal

Answer
Answer: b) Urban

Q.4: The Harappan people were the first to produce which of the following?
a) Coins
b) Bronze tools
c) Cotton
d) Barley

Answer
Answer: c) Cotton

Q.5: The Harappan civilization belonged to which age?
a) Bronze Age
b) Neolithic Age
c) Paleolithic Age
d) Iron Age

Answer
Answer: a) Bronze Age

Q.6: What was the script of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a) Tamil
b) Kharosthi
c) Unknown
d) Brahmi

Answer
Answer: c) Unknown

Q.7: The first ancient city discovered in India was?
a) Harappa
b) Punjab
c) Mohenjo-daro
d) Sing

Answer
Answer: a) Harappa

Q.8: Epigraphy refers to
a) Study of coins
b) Study of inscriptions
c) Study of epics
d) Study of geography

Answer
Answer: b) Study of inscriptions

Q.9: The discovery of measuring scales proved that the Indus Valley people were familiar with measurement and weighing. Where was this discovery made?
a) Kalibangan
b) Harappa
c) Chanhudaro
d) Lothal

Answer
Answer: d) Lothal

Q.10: One of the most significant sculptures of the Indus Valley Civilization was?
a) Nataraja
b) Dancing girl
c) Buddha
d) Narasimha

Answer
Answer: b) Dancing girl

Q.11: Who among the following is NOT associated with the study of Harappan culture?
a) Charles Masson
b) Cunningham
c) M. Wheeler
d) P. S. Vats

Answer
Answer: d) P. S. Vats

Q.12: Who was the first to discover the Harappan Civilization?
a) Sir John Marshall
b) R. D. Banerjee
c) A. Cunningham
d) Daya Ram Sahni

Answer
Answer: d) Daya Ram Sahni

Q.13: Which of the following was the port city of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a) Kalibangan
b) Lothal
c) Ropar
d) Mohenjo-daro

Answer
Answer: b) Lothal

Q.14: Which of the following domesticated animals was NOT present in the terracotta figurines of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a) Buffalo
b) Sheep
c) Cow
d) Pig

Answer
Answer: c) Cow

Vedic Civilization: Ancient History GK MCQ

Q.15: Which of the following Vedas provides information about the civilization of the ancient Vedic era?

a) Rigveda
b) Yajurveda
c) Atharvaveda
d) Samaveda

Answer
a) Rigveda

Q.16: The primary food of the Vedic Aryans was?

a) Barley and Rice
b) Milk and its products
c) Rice and Pulses
d) Vegetables and Fruits

Answer
b) Milk and its products

Q.17: Which metal was first used by the Vedic people?

a) Silver
b) Gold
c) Iron
d) Copper

Answer
d) Copper

Q.18: The Aryans were successful in their conflicts with pre-Aryans because –

a) They used elephants on a large scale
b) They were taller and stronger
c) They belonged to an advanced urban culture
d) They used chariots driven by horses

Answer
d) They used chariots driven by horses

Q.19: In the Aryan civilization, the stages of life, in ascending order, were –

a) Brahmacharya-Grihastha-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa
b) Grihastha-Brahmacharya-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa
c) Brahmacharya-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa-Grihastha
d) Grihastha-Sannyasa-Vanaprastha-Brahmacharya

Answer
a) Brahmacharya-Grihastha-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa

Q.20: In the early Vedic period, the Varna system was based on –

a) Education
b) Birth
c) Profession
d) Talent

Answer
c) Profession

Q.21: Who was the first European to call ‘Aryans’ a race?

a) Sir William Jones
b) H. H. Wilson
c) Max Muller
d) General Cunningham

Answer
c) Max Muller

Q.22: From where is the famous ‘Gayatri Mantra’ taken?

a) Yajurveda
b) Atharvaveda
c) Rigveda
d) Samaveda

Answer
c) Rigveda

Q.23: Which of the following crafts was not practiced by the Aryans?

a) Pottery
b) Jewelry
c) Carpentry
d) Blacksmithing

Answer
d) Blacksmithing

Q.24: Which of the following learned women challenged the invincible Yajnavalkya in a debate?

a) Ghosha
b) Apala
c) Maitreyi
d) Gargi

Answer
d) Gargi

Buddhism and Jainism

Q.25: Where was Gautam Buddha born?

a) Kushinagar
b) Sarnath
c) Bodh Gaya
d) Lumbini

Answer
d) Lumbini

Q.26: To which clan did Buddha belong?

a) Jnatrika
b) Maurya
c) Shakya
d) Kuru

Answer
c) Shakya

Q.27: Where was the First Buddhist Council held?

a) Vaishali
b) Kashmir
c) Rajgriha
d) Pataliputra

Answer
c) Rajgriha

Q.28: What is the meaning of ‘Buddha’?

a) Enlightened
b) Preacher of religion
c) Talented
d) Powerful

Answer
a) Enlightened

Q.29: Identify the Buddhist literature from the following:

a) Tripitaka
b) Upanishads
c) Anga
d) Aranyakas

Answer
a) Tripitaka

Q.30: Buddhism made a significant impact by connecting two sections of society. These sections were:

a) Merchants and Priests
b) Moneylenders and Slaves
c) Warriors and Traders
d) Women and Shudras

Answer
d) Women and Shudras

Q.31: Where did Buddha deliver his first sermon?

a) Gaya
b) Sarnath
c) Pataliputra
d) Vaishali

Answer
b) Sarnath

Q.32: The Gandhara art style of painting was initiated by which tradition?

a) Hinayana Sect
b) Mahayana Sect
c) Vaishnavism
d) Shaivism

Answer
b) Mahayana Sect

Q.33: Metal coins first appeared during:

a) Harappan Civilization
b) Later Vedic Period
c) Buddha’s time
d) Mauryan Period

Answer
c) Buddha’s time

Q.34: Early Buddhist literature was composed in which language?

a) Pali
b) Sanskrit
c) Aramaic
d) Prakrit

Answer
a) Pali

Q.35: During whose reign was the engraving work in the famous Ajanta caves started?

a) Kadamba
b) Satavahana
c) Rashtrakuta
d) Maratha

Answer
b) Satavahana

Q.36: In Buddhism, the ‘Bull’ is associated with which event of Buddha’s life?

a) Birth
b) Great Renunciation
c) Enlightenment
d) Mahaparinirvana

Answer
a) Birth

Q.37: Where did Buddha attain Mahaparinirvana?

a) Kushinagar
b) Kapilavastu
c) Pava
d) Kundagrama

Answer
a) Kushinagar

Q.38: Where did Buddha attain enlightenment?

a) Sarnath
b) Bodh Gaya
c) Kapilavastu
d) Rajgriha

Answer
b) Bodh Gaya

Q.39: Which religion preaches that “Desire is the root cause of all suffering”?

a) Buddhism
b) Jainism
c) Sikhism
d) Hinduism

Answer
a) Buddhism

Q.40: The Tamil literary masterpiece ‘Jivaka Chintamani’ is associated with which religion?

a) Jain
b) Buddh
c) Hindu
d) Christian

Answer
a) Jainism

Q.41: Who was Mahavira?

a) 21st Tirthankara
b) 24th Tirthankara
c) 23rd Tirthankara
d) 22nd Tirthankara

Answer
b) 24th Tirthankara

Q.42: Who was the mother of Mahavira?
a) Yashoda
b) Anojja
c) Trishala
d) Devnandi

Answer
c) Trishala

Q.43: In which Kshatriya clan was Mahavira born?
a) Shakya
b) Jnatrika
c) Mallas
d) Licchavi

Answer
b) Jnatrika

Q.44: Who was the famous ruler of ancient India who adopted Jainism in his later years?
a) Samudragupta
b) Bindusara
c) Chandragupta
d) Ashoka

Answer
c) Chandragupta

Q.45: Which type of pottery is considered a symbol of the beginning of the second urbanization in India?

a) Painted Grey Ware
b) Northern Black Polished Ware
c) Ochre-colored Pottery
d) Black and Red Ware

Answer
Answer: b) Northern Black Polished Ware

Q.46: Which was the first ruler responsible for the rise of Magadha?

a) Bindusara
b) Ajatashatru
c) Bimbisara
d) Vasudeva

Answer
Answer: c) Bimbisara

Q.47: Who was the teacher of Alexander the Great?

a) Darius
b) Cyrus
c) Socrates
d) Aristotle

Answer
Answer: d) Aristotle

Q.48: Alexander the Great died in 323 BCE in –

a) Persia
b) Babylon
c) Macedonia
d) Taxila

Answer
Answer: b) Babylon

Q.49: In ancient times, which language was used to write source materials?

a) Sanskrit
b) Pali
c) Brahmi
d) Kharosthi

Answer
Answer: a) Sanskrit

Q.50: Which of the following ancient Indian cities was home to the three learned sages Kapila, Gargi, and Maitreya?

a) Kashi
b) Mithila
c) Ujjayini
d) Pataliputra

Answer
Answer: b) Mithila

Q.51: The ‘Mahabhashya’ was written by

a) Gargi
b) Manu
c) Bana
d) Patanjali

Answer
Answer: d) Patanjali

Maurya Period

Q.52: Who succeeded Chandragupta Maurya on the Mauryan throne?
a) Bimbisara
b) Ashoka
c) Bindusara
d) Vishnugupta

Answer
Answer: c) Bindusara

Q.53: Which of the following would best describe the Mauryan monarchy under Ashoka?

a) Enlightened despotism
b) Centralized autocracy
c) Oriental despotism
d) Guided democracy

Answer
Answer: b) Centralized autocracy

Q.54: Which of the following was not a part of the Maurya dynasty?

a) Ajatashatru
b) Bindusara
c) Chandragupta Maurya
d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: a) Ajatashatru

Q.55: Who among the following was also known as ‘Devanam Priyadarshi’?

a) Maurya King Ashoka
b) Maurya King Chandragupta Maurya
c) Gautama Buddha
d) Lord Mahavira

Answer
Answer: a) Maurya King Ashoka

Q.56: Which foreign traveler visited India first among the following?

a) Xuanzang (Hieun Tsang)
b) Megasthenes
c) I-Tsing
d) Fa-Hien

Answer
Answer: b) Megasthenes

Q.57: Who wrote ‘Indica’?

a) I-Tsing
b) Megasthenes
c) Fa-Hien
d) Xuanzang (Hieun Tsang)

Answer
Answer: b) Megasthenes

Q.58: Ashoka embraced Buddhism after being influenced by which Buddhist monk?

a) Vishnugupta
b) Upagupta
c) Brahmagupta
d) Brihadratha

Answer
Answer: b) Upagupta

Q.59: Chandragupta Maurya’s famous teacher, Chanakya, was associated with which educational center?

a) Taxila
b) Nalanda
c) Vikramshila
d) Vaishali

Answer
Answer: a) Taxila

Q.60: The impact of the Kalinga War on Ashoka is most evident in

a) Edicts engraved on pillars
b) The 13th rock edict
c) Inscriptions
d) None of the above

Answer
Answer: b) The 13th rock edict

Q.61: In all of his inscriptions, Ashoka consistently used which Prakrit language?

a) Ardha-Magadhi
b) Shuraseni
c) Magadhi
d) Angika

Answer
Answer: a) Ardha-Magadhi

Q.62: Who was the first person to decipher Ashoka’s inscriptions, and when?

a) 1810 – Harry Smith
b) 1787 – John Tower
c) 1825 – Charles Metcalfe
d) 1837 – James Prinsep

Answer
Answer: d) 1837 – James Prinsep

Q.63: Who provided patronage to the Third Buddhist Council?

a) Kanishka
b) Ashoka
c) Mahakasyapa Upali
d) Sabakarni

Answer
Answer: b) Ashoka

Q.64: Which dynasty ruled Magadha after the Maurya dynasty?

a) Satavahana
b) Shunga
c) Nanda
d) Kanva

Answer
Answer: b) Shunga

Post-Mauryan Period

Q.65: Who started the Shaka era, which is used by the Government of India?

a) Kanishka
b) Vikramaditya
c) Samudragupta
d) Ashoka

Answer
a) Kanishka

Q.66: Who initiated the famous ‘Silk Route’ for Indians?

a) Kanishka
b) Ashoka
c) Harsha
d) Fa-Hien

Answer
a) Kanishka

Q.67: Who introduced the ‘Yavanika’ (curtain) in Indian theatre?

a) Shakas
b) Parthians
c) Greeks
d) Kushans

Answer
c) Greeks

Q.68: Charaka was the royal physician of which ruler?

a) Harsha
b) Chandragupta Maurya
c) Ashoka
d) Kanishka

Answer
d) Kanishka

Q.69: The school of art developed by the fusion of Indian and Greek styles during the Kushan period is known by which name?

a) Kushan Art
b) Persian Art
c) Gandhara Art
d) Mughal Art

Answer
c) Gandhara Art

Q.70: In which year did Kanishka ascend the throne?

a) 108 AD
b) 78 AD
c) 58 AD
d) 128 AD

Answer
b) 78 AD

Q.71: Which field saw the greatest development during the Kushan period?

a) Religion
b) Art
c) Literature
d) Architecture

Answer
b) Art

Q.72: Which of the following pairs of authors and books is incorrect?

AuthorBook
(a) VishakhadattaMudrarakshasa
(b) KautilyaArthashastra
(c) MegasthenesIndica
(d) NagarjunaDhruvaswamini
Ancient History GK Questions in English
Answer
(d) Nagarjuna, Dhruvaswamini

Q.73: In which museum is the collection of Kushan sculptures most prominently displayed?
a) Mathura Museum
b) Bombay Museum
c) Madras Museum
d) Delhi Museum

Answer
a) Mathura Museum

Q.74: Match the following:

(a) Vikram Samvat1. 248 A.D.
(b) Shaka Samvat2. 320 A.D.
(c) Kalachuri Samvat3. 58 B.C.
(d) Gupta Samvat4. 78 A.D.

a) A1, B2, C3, D4
b) A3, B4, C1, D2
c) A4, B3, C2, D1
d) A2, B1, C4, D3

Answer
b) A3, B4, C1, D2

Q.75: Who discovered the art of paper making in the 2nd century B.C.?

a) The Chinese
b) The Romans
c) The Greeks
d) The Mongols

Answer
a) The Chinese

Q.76: The Gandhara style of sculpture during the Kushan period is a mixture of which of the following?
a) Indian-Islamic style
b) Indian-Persian style
c) Indian-Chinese style
d) Indian-Greek (Hellenistic) style

Answer
d) Indian-Greek (Hellenistic) style

Q.77: What is the name of the art style that combines characteristics of Indian and Greek art?
a) Shikhar
b) Varn
c) Nagan
d) Gandhara

Answer
d) Gandhara

Q.78: The literary figures during Kanishka’s reign were
a) Nagarjuna and Ashvaghosha
b) Vasumitra and Ashvaghosha
c) Charaka and Sushruta
d) Ashvaghosha and Kalidasa

Answer
a) Nagarjuna and Ashvaghosha

Gupta Period

Q.79: Who was the first known Gupta ruler?
a) Shri Gupta
b) Chandragupta I
c) Ghatotkacha
d) Kumaragupta I

Answer
a) Shri Gupta

Q.80: Who was the founder of the Gupta era?
a) Ghatotkacha
b) Shri Gupta
c) Chandragupta
d) Samudragupta

Answer
c) Chandragupta

Q.81: Which ‘Gupta’ king assumed the title of ‘Vikramaditya’?
a) Skandagupta
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandragupta II
d) Kumaragupta

Answer
c) Chandragupta II

Q.82: Which Gupta king stopped the Huns from invading India?
a) Kumaragupta
b) Samudragupta
c) Skandagupta
d) Chandragupta

Answer
c) Skandagupta

Q.83: Harishena was the court poet of which of the following kings?
a) Ashoka
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandragupta
d) Harshavardhan

Answer
b) Samudragupta

Q.84: India’s trade with the Roman Empire ended with the attack on Rome by whom?
a) Arabs
b) Hungarians
c) Huns
d) Turks

Answer
c) Huns

Q.85: Who among the following is called the Napoleon of India due to his conquests?
a) Skandagupta
b) Chandragupta
c) Brahmagupta
d) Samudragupta

Answer
d) Samudragupta

Q.86: Which metal coins were issued the most during the Gupta period?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Iron

Answer
a) Gold

Q.87: Who was the court poet of Kalidasa?
a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
d) Harsh

Answer
c) Chandragupta Vikramaditya

Q.88: Who among the following was a great astronomer and mathematician during the Gupta rule?
a) Bhanugupta
b) Vagbhata
c) Aryabhata
d) Varahamihira

Answer
c) Aryabhata

Q.89: Which of the following literary works is related to classical Sanskrit literature?
a) ‘Dhammapada’
b) ‘Vedas’
c) ‘Meghadutam’
d) ‘Dighanikaya’

Answer
c) ‘Meghadutam’

Q.90: Which of the following is not a physician?
a) Sushruta
b) Charaka
c) Charvaka
d) Dhanvantari

Answer
c) Charvaka

Q.91: Who discovered the concept of zero?
a) Varahamihira
b) Aryabhata
c) Bhaskara
d) None of the above

Answer
b) Aryabhata

South India

Q.92: The Sangam era is associated with the history of which region?
a) Banaras
b) Allahabad
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Khajuraho

Answer
c) Tamil Nadu

Q.93: Which Chera king, known as the ‘Lal Chera,’ built the temple of Kannagi?
a) Elara
b) Karikala
c) Senguttuvan
d) Nedunjeral Adan

Answer
c) Senguttuvan

Q.94: Where did the Chalukyas establish their empire?
a) Far South
b) Malwa
c) South
d) Gujarat

Answer
c) South

Q.95: The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora represent which religions?
a) Only Buddhists
b) Buddhists and Jains
c) Hindus and Jains
d) Hindus, Buddhists, and Jains

Answer
d) Hindus, Buddhists, and Jains

Q.96: Which Chola king carried the Ganges from North to South?
a) Rajaraja Chola
b) Mahendra
c) Rajendra Chola
d) Parantaka

Answer
c) Rajendra Chola

Q.97: Who constructed the Virupaksha Temple?
a) Chalukyas
b) Pallavas
c) Vakatakas
d) Satavahanas

Answer
a) Chalukyas

Q.98: The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are of which religions?
a) Hindu and Buddhist
b) Buddhist and Jain
c) Hindu and Jain
d) Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain

Answer
d) Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain

Q.99: Which religion did the Chola kings patronize?
a) Jainism
b) Buddhism
c) Shaivism
d) Vaishnavism

Answer
c) Shaivism

Q.100: Which of the following great composers was a ruler of a state?
a) Tyagaraja
b) Syama Sastri
c) Muthuswami Dikshitar
d) Swathi Thirunal

Answer
d) Swathi Thirunal

Q.101: Which ancient Indian empire is incorrectly paired with its capital?
a) Maurya – Pataliputra
b) Pandya – Madurai
c) Pallava – Vellore
d) Kakatiya – Warangal

Answer
c) Pallava – Vellore

Q.102: Pulakeshin II was the greatest ruler of which dynasty?
a) Chalukyas of Kalyani
b) Pallavas of Kanchi
c) Cholas of Tamil Nadu
d) Chalukyas of Vatapi

Answer
d) Chalukyas of Vatapi

Q.103: Which inscription is associated with the Chalukya emperor Pulakeshin II?
a) Maski
b) Hathigumpha
c) Aihole
d) Nasik

Answer
c) Aihole

Q.104: The Rath Temples at Mahabalipuram were built during the reign of which Pallava ruler?
a) Mahendravarman I
b) Narasimhavarman I
c) Parameswaravarman I
d) Nandivarman I

Answer
b) Narasimhavarman I

Q.105: Which Chola king was the first to conquer Lanka (Sri Lanka)?
a) Aditya I
b) Rajaraja I
c) Rajendra
d) Vijayalaya

Answer
b) Rajaraja I

Q.106: The most powerful Chola king to conquer Sri Lanka was-
a) Rajaraja I
b) Rajendra II
c) Rajendra Chola
d) Gangai Kondachola

Answer
c) Rajendra Chola

Post-Gupta Era: Ancient Indian History GK MCQ

Q.107: Which university became famous in the Post-Gupta period?

a) Kanchi
b) Taxila
c) Nalanda
d) Vallabhi

Answer
Answer: c) Nalanda

Q.108: Who among the following wrote ‘Harshacharita’?

a) Kalidasa
b) Banabhatta
c) Valmiki
d) Vyasa

Answer
Answer: b) Banabhatta

Q.109: Who was the author of the great romantic drama ‘Kadambari’?

a) Banabhatta
b) Harshavardhana
c) Bhaskaravardhana
d) Bindusara

Answer
Answer: a) Banabhatta

Q.110: Who wrote ‘Prithviraj Raso’ among the following?

a) Bhavabhuti
b) Jayadeva
c) Chand Bardai
d) Banabhatta

Answer
Answer: c) Chand Bardai

Q.111: Which of the following rulers established the famous Vikramashila University for Buddhists?

a) Mahipal
b) Devpal
c) Gopal
d) Dharmapal

Answer
Answer: d) Dharmapal

Q.112: Who among the following was the last Buddhist king, also known as a great scholar and writer of Sanskrit?

a) Kanishka
b) Ashoka
c) Bimbisara
d) Harshavardhana

Answer
Answer: d) Harshavardhana

Q.113: Who built the Khajuraho temples?

a) Holkar
b) Scindia
c) Bundela Rajputs
d) Chandel Rajputs

Answer
Answer: d) Chandel Rajputs

Q.114: Which Rajput ruler among the following founded the city of Bhopal?

a) Prithviraj Chauhan
b) Dharmapal
c) Raja Bhoj
d) Jaychand

Answer
Answer: c) Raja Bhoj

Q.115: During whose reign did Xuanzang visit India?

a) Chandragupta I
b) Chandragupta II
c) Harshavardhana
d) Rudradaman

Answer
Answer: c) Harshavardhana

Q.116: Who was given the title ‘Prince of Pilgrims’?

a) Fa Hien
b) I-tsing
c) Xuanzang
d) Megasthenes

Answer
Answer: c) Xuanzang

Q.117: The two greatest Indian artists, Bitpal and Dhiman, belonged to which period?

a) Pala period
b) Gupta period
c) Maurya period
d) Pathan period

Answer
Answer: a) Pala period

Q.118: In which Indian state is Nalanda University located?

a) Bengal
b) Bihar
c) Odisha
d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer
Answer: b) Bihar

Q.119: Who was the main proponent of the Advaita philosophy?
a) Madhvacharya
b) Shankaracharya
c) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
d) Ramanujacharya

Answer
Answer: b) Shankaracharya

Q.120: Who defeated Harshavardhana?

a) Prabhakar Vardhan
b) Pulakeshin II
c) Narasimhavarman Pallava
d) Shashanka

Answer
Answer: b) Pulakeshin II

Q.121: Who defeated the Arabs in 738 AD?

a) Pratiharas
b) Rashtrakutas
c) Palas
d) Chalukyas

Answer
a) Pratiharas

Q.122: Which of the following was not a center of learning in ancient India?
a) Takshashila
b) Vikramshila
c) Nalanda
d) Kaushambi

Answer
d) Kaushambi

Q.123: The Great Stupa of Sanchi is located in
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer
b) Madhya Pradesh

Q.124: The Kalinga king Kharavela patronized which religion?
a) Hinduism (Vaishnavism)
b) Shaivism
c) Buddhism
d) Jainism

Answer
d) Jainism

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    Answer
    (d) Darjeeling

    Q.2: To conserve coral reefs, the Government of India declared one of the following as a Marine Park:

    (a) Andaman Islands
    (b) Gulf of Kutch
    (c) Lakshadweep Islands
    (d) Gulf of Mannar

    Answer
    (b) Gulf of Kutch

    Q.3: The headquarters of the Survey of India Department is located in:

    (a) Jaipur
    (b) Dehradun
    (c) Hyderabad
    (d) New Delhi

    Answer
    (b) Dehradun

    Q.4: Which of the following states in India has the longest coastline?

    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Tamil Nadu
    (d) Gujarat

    Answer
    (d) Gujarat

    Q.5: Which of the following is called a ‘young fold mountain’?

    (a) Aravali
    (b) Nilgiri
    (c) Himalaya
    (d) Vindhya

    Answer
    (c) Himalaya

    Q.6: The easternmost peak of the Himalayas is:

    (a) Namcha Barwa
    (b) Annapurna
    (c) Kanchenjunga
    (d) Mount Everest

    Answer
    (a) Namcha Barwa

    Q.7: Metamorphic rocks change in:

    (a) Structure
    (b) Texture
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) Original chemical composition

    Answer
    (c) Both (a) and (b)

    Q.8: What is the total area of India?

    (a) 8,511,965 sq km
    (b) 3,897,950 sq km
    (c) 5,926,780 sq km
    (d) 3,287,590 sq km

    Answer
    (d) 3,287,590 sq km

    Q.9: The two richest eco-zones of India are:

    (a) Himalayas and Vindhyas
    (b) Himalayas and Eastern Ghats
    (c) Himalayas and Western Ghats
    (d) Himalayas and Aravalis

    Answer
    (c) Himalayas and Western Ghats

    Q.10: How many islands are there in Lakshadweep?

    (a) 17
    (b) 27
    (c) 36
    (d) 47

    Answer
    (c) 36

    Q.11: Niyamgiri hill is located in Kalahandi district of:

    (a) Odisha
    (b) West Bengal
    (c) Punjab
    (d) Kerala

    Answer
    (a) Odisha

    Q.12: Indira Point is the southernmost tip of:

    (a) Maldives
    (b) Laccadive
    (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    (d) Dhanushkodi

    Answer
    (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

    Q.13: The highest peak of India is:

    (a) Kamet Mountain
    (b) Nandakot
    (c) Nanda Devi
    (d) K2 (Godwin Austen)

    Answer
    (d) K2 (Godwin Austen)

    Q.14: Sabarimala is situated in which of the following states?

    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Tamil Nadu
    (c) Kerala
    (d) Karnataka

    Answer
    (c) Kerala

    Q.15: Which Himalayan peak is also known as ‘Sagarmatha’?

    (a) Nanga Parbat
    (b) Dhaulagiri
    (c) Mt. Everest
    (d) Kanchenjunga

    Answer
    (c) Mt. Everest

    Q.16: The highest mountain peak of peninsular India is:

    (a) Anaimudi
    (b) Doddabetta
    (c) Mahendragiri
    (d) Nilgiris

    Answer
    (a) Anaimudi

    Q.17: The Greater Himalayas are otherwise called as:

    (a) Himadri
    (b) Sahyadri
    (c) Assam Himalayas
    (d) Siwalik

    Answer
    (a) Himadri

    Q.18: The world’s largest river island, Majuli, is located in which state?

    (a) Arunachal Pradesh
    (b) Assam
    (c) Tripura
    (d) Mizoram

    Answer
    (b) Assam

    Q.19: Kanchenjunga is situated in:

    (a) Nepal
    (b) Sikkim
    (c) West Bengal
    (d) Himachal Pradesh

    Answer
    (b) Sikkim

    Q.20: Godwin Austen is a/an:

    (a) Inventor of telescope
    (b) Geologist
    (c) Pass
    (d) Peak

    Answer
    (d) Peak

    Q.21: Jog Falls is situated in which state?

    (a) Kerala
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Karnataka
    (d) Tamil Nadu

    Answer
    (c) Karnataka

    Q.22: Which of the following is the highest peak of undisputed Indian territory?

    (a) Mount Everest
    (b) Kanchenjunga
    (c) Nanda Devi
    (d) Nanga Parbat

    Answer
    (c) Nanda Devi

    Q.23: Palghat joins which of the following states?

    (a) Sikkim and West Bengal
    (b) Maharashtra and Gujarat
    (c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
    (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim1

    Answer
    (c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

    Q.24: ‘Loktak’ is a:

    (a) Valley
    (b) Lake
    (c) River
    (d) Mountain range

    Answer
    (b) Lake

    Q.25: Which of the following states has the longest coastline?

    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Tamil Nadu
    (c) Gujarat
    (d) Andhra Pradesh

    Answer
    (c) Gujarat

    Q.26: The pass located in Himachal Pradesh is:

    (a) Shipki La
    (b) Zojila
    (c) Nathula
    (d) Jelepla

    Answer
    (a) Shipki La

    Q.27: The highest waterfall in India is:

    (a) Hogenakkal Falls
    (b) Kunchikal Falls
    (c) Jog Falls
    (d) Shimsha Falls

    Answer
    (b) Kunchikal Falls

    Q.28: The sea that was in place of the Himalayas was:

    (a) Red Sea
    (b) Arabian Sea
    (c) Tethys Sea
    (d) Dead Sea

    Answer
    (c) Tethys Sea

    Q.29: Kullu Valley is situated between:

    (a) Ladakh and Pir Panjal
    (b) Ranjoti and Nag Tibba
    (c) Lesser Himalayas and Shiwalik
    (d) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal

    Answer
    (a) Ladakh and Pir Panjal

    Q.30: The mountains that are not a part of the Himalayan range are:

    (a) Aravali
    (b) Kunlun
    (c) Karakoram
    (d) Hindu Kush

    Answer
    (a) Aravali

    Q.31: The length of the coastline of India is approximately:

    (a) 4,900 kilometers
    (b) 5,700 kilometers
    (c) 7,500 kilometers
    (d) 8,300 kilometers

    Answer
    (c) 7,500 kilometers

    Q.32: Which of the following is the second highest peak in the world?

    (a) Dhaulagiri
    (b) Kanchenjunga
    (c) K2
    (d) Nanda Devi

    Answer
    (c) K2

    Q.33: Badland topography is characteristic of:

    (a) Chambal Valley
    (b) Coastal region
    (c) Sunderban Delta
    (d) Gulf of Kutch

    Answer
    (a) Chambal Valley

    Q.34: The Indian desert is known as:

    (a) Gobi
    (b) Sahara
    (c) Thar
    (d) Atacama

    Answer
    (c) Thar

    Q.35: Which state of India has the largest coastline?

    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Odisha
    (d) Tamil Nadu

    Answer
    (a) Andhra Pradesh

    Q.36: The coast related to Kerala is called:

    (a) Konkan Coast
    (b) Malabar Coast
    (c) Coromandel Coast
    (d) Canara Coast

    Answer
    (b) Malabar Coast

    Q.37: The coastline of India is ……… km.

    (a) 5,500 kilometers
    (b) 6,500 kilometers
    (c) 7,500 kilometers
    (d) 8,400 kilometers

    Answer
    (c) 7,500 kilometers

    Q.38: Baltora Glacier is situated in:

    (a) Karakoram Ranges
    (b) Pamir Plateau
    (c) Shiwalik
    (d) Alps

    Answer
    (a) Karakoram Ranges

    Q.39: Which of the following cities/towns is located on the northernmost latitude?

    (a) Patna
    (b) Allahabad
    (c) Pachmarhi
    (d) Ahmedabad

    Answer
    (a) Patna

    Q.40: The Andaman group and Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by:

    (a) Ten Degree Channel
    (b) Great Channel
    (c) Bay of Bengal
    (d) Andaman2 Sea

    Answer
    (a) Ten Degree Channel

    Q.41: The southern tip of India is:

    (a) Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)
    (b) Point Calimere
    (c) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
    (d) Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram3

    Answer
    (c) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands

    Q.42: The Nallamala Hills are located in the state of:

    (a) Odisha
    (b) Meghalaya
    (c) Andhra Pradesh
    (d) Gujarat

    Answer
    (c) Andhra Pradesh

    Q.43: The coastal tract of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is called:

    (a) Konkan
    (b) Coromandel
    (c) Eastern coast
    (d) Malabar coast

    Answer
    (b) Coromandel

    Q.44: The highest Indian waterfall is:

    (a) Gokak
    (b) Gersoppa
    (c) Shivanasamudra
    (d) Yenna

    Answer
    (b) Gersoppa

    Q.45: The fertile land between two rivers is called

    (a) Water divide
    (b) Water shed
    (c) Doab
    (d) Tarai

    Answer
    (c) Doab

    Q.46: Nathu La, the place where India-China border trade has resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in:

    (a) Sikkim
    (b) Arunachal Pradesh
    (c) Himachal Pradesh
    (d) Jammu and Kashmir4

    Answer
    (a) Sikkim

    Q.47: In terms of area, India is the largest country in the world.

    (a) Second
    (b) Fourth
    (c) Sixth
    (d) Seventh

    Answer
    (d) Seventh

    Q.48: The approximate length of India’s coastline is:

    (a) 5,500 km
    (b) 6,000 km
    (c) 6,500 km
    (d) 7,000 km

    Answer
    (d) 7,000 km

    Q.49: The standard time of a country differs from GMT in multiples of:

    (a) Two hours
    (b) One hour
    (c) Half an hour
    (d) Four minutes

    Answer
    (c) Half an hour

    Q.50: The Naga, Khasi and Garo hills are located in:

    (a) Purvanchal Range
    (b) Karakoram Range
    (c) Zaskar Range
    (d) Himalayan Range

    Answer
    (a) Purvanchal Range

  • Game and Sports MCQs for Competitive Exams

    Game and Sports MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important questions from previous year General Knowledge question paper.

    Medium: English

    Game and Sports Questions

    Question 1: In which year did the Olympic Games begin?

    (A) 1896
    (B) 1900
    (C) 1920
    (D) 1936

    Answer
    Answer: (A) 1896
    Explanation: The modern Olympic Games began in 1896 in Athens, Greece.

    Question 2: How often is the FIFA World Cup Football Tournament held?

    (A) 2 years
    (B) 3 years
    (C) 4 years
    (D) 5 years

    Answer
    Answer: (C) 4 years
    Explanation: The FIFA World Cup is held every four years.

    Question 3: “Uber Cup” is associated with which sport?

    (A) Cricket
    (B) Tennis
    (C) Badminton
    (D) Football

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Badminton
    Explanation: The Uber Cup is awarded in the Women’s Badminton Team Championship.

    Question 4: In which year did India win its first Cricket World Cup?

    (A) 1975
    (B) 1983
    (C) 1987
    (D) 1996

    Answer
    Answer: (B) 1983
    Explanation: India won its first Cricket World Cup in 1983 under the captaincy of Kapil Dev.

    Question 5: Which tournament is NOT included in the Grand Slam of tennis?

    (A) Wimbledon
    (B) Australian Open
    (C) French Open
    (D) Davis Cup

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Davis Cup
    Explanation: The Grand Slam in tennis includes four major tournaments: Wimbledon, Australian Open, French Open, and US Open.

    Question 6: The “Arjuna Award” is given for excellence in which field?

    (A) Literature
    (B) Sports
    (C) Music
    (D) Science

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Sports
    Explanation: The Arjuna Award is given for outstanding achievements in Indian sports.

    Question 7: In which sport did India win its first Olympic gold medal?

    (A) Hockey
    (B) Wrestling
    (C) Boxing
    (D) Athletics

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Hockey
    Explanation: India won its first Olympic gold medal in hockey in 1928.

    Question 8: Who is a famous Indian racer in Formula 1 racing?

    (A) Sachin Tendulkar
    (B) Viswanathan Anand
    (C) Narain Karthikeyan
    (D) Leander Paes

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Narain Karthikeyan
    Explanation: Narain Karthikeyan is India’s first Formula 1 racer.

    Question 9: “Thomas Cup” is associated with which sport?

    (A) Table Tennis
    (B) Badminton
    (C) Football
    (D) Hockey

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Badminton
    Explanation: The Thomas Cup is awarded in the Men’s Badminton Team Championship.

    Question 10: Viswanathan Anand is associated with which sport?

    (A) Tennis
    (B) Football
    (C) Chess
    (D) Badminton

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Chess
    Explanation: Viswanathan Anand is a famous Indian chess player and a former World Chess Champion.

    Question-11: “Roland Garros” is associated with which sport?

    (A) Cricket
    (B) Badminton
    (C) Football
    (D) Tennis

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Tennis
    Explanation: Roland Garros is another name for the French Open tennis tournament.

    Question-12: In which year did the Asian Games begin?

    (A) 1948
    (B) 1951
    (C) 1960
    (D) 1965

    Answer
    Answer: (B) 1951
    Explanation: The first Asian Games were held in 1951 in New Delhi, India.

    Question-13: Which Indian batsman scored the first triple century in Test cricket?

    (A) Sachin Tendulkar
    (B) Sourav Ganguly
    (C) Virender Sehwag
    (D) Rahul Dravid

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Virender Sehwag
    Explanation: Virender Sehwag scored the first triple century for India in Test cricket in 2004 against Pakistan.

    Question-14: Which country has won the FIFA World Cup the most times?

    (A) Argentina
    (B) Germany
    (C) Italy
    (D) Brazil

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Brazil
    Explanation: Brazil has won the FIFA World Cup the most times, with a total of 5 victories.

    Question-15: How many balls are bowled in an over in cricket?

    (A) 4
    (B) 5
    (C) 6
    (D) 7

    Answer
    Answer: (C) 6
    Explanation: An over in cricket consists of 6 balls.

    Question-16: How many players are there in a football team?

    (A) 9
    (B) 10
    (C) 11
    (D) 12

    Answer
    Answer: (C) 11
    Explanation: A football team consists of 11 players, including a goalkeeper.

    Question-17: How many categories is wrestling divided into in the Olympic Games?

    (A) 4
    (B) 5
    (C) 6
    (D) 7

    Answer
    Answer: (D) 7
    Explanation: Wrestling in the Olympics is divided into seven weight categories for both men and women.

    Question-18: The ‘Davis Cup’ in tennis is awarded for?

    (A) Individual male players
    (B) Men’s team championship
    (C) Women’s team championship
    (D) Mixed doubles

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Men’s team championship
    Explanation: The Davis Cup is awarded for the men’s team tennis championship.

    Question-19: In which country is ‘Wimbledon’ held?

    (A) USA
    (B) France
    (C) England
    (D) Australia

    Answer
    Answer: (C) England
    Explanation: The Wimbledon Tennis Championship is held in London, England.

    Question-20: ‘Ranji Trophy’ in India is associated with which sport?

    (A) Hockey
    (B) Cricket
    (C) Football
    (D) Badminton

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Cricket
    Explanation: The Ranji Trophy is a domestic cricket championship in India.

    Question 31: “Team India” is associated with which sport?

    (A) Football
    (B) Badminton
    (C) Cricket
    (D) Hockey

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Cricket
    Explanation: “Team India” refers to the Indian cricket team.

    Question 32: Rafael Nadal is associated with which sport?

    (A) Football
    (B) Tennis
    (C) Golf
    (D) Hockey

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Tennis
    Explanation: Rafael Nadal is a famous Spanish tennis player and has won multiple Grand Slam titles.

    Question 33: What does ‘hat-trick’ mean in football?

    (A) Scoring three goals
    (B) Scoring two goals
    (C) Scoring one goal
    (D) Scoring four goals

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Scoring three goals
    Explanation: In football, a ‘hat-trick’ means a player has scored three goals in a single match.

    Question 34: The ‘Yellow Jersey’ for the winner is associated with which sport?

    (A) Football
    (B) Cycling
    (C) Tennis
    (D) Hockey

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Cycling
    Explanation: The ‘Yellow Jersey’ is awarded to the leading cyclist in the Tour de France race.

    Question 35: Who was the captain of the Indian women’s cricket team in the 2022 Women’s World Cup?

    (A) Mithali Raj
    (B) Harmanpreet Kaur
    (C) Smriti Mandhana
    (D) Jhulan Goswami

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Harmanpreet Kaur
    Explanation: Harmanpreet Kaur led the Indian women’s cricket team in the 2022 Women’s World Cup.

    Question 36: Which Indian athlete won the first gold medal at the Tokyo Olympics 2021?

    (A) P. V. Sindhu
    (B) Neeraj Chopra
    (C) Bajrang Punia
    (D) Mirabai Chanu

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Neeraj Chopra
    Explanation: Neeraj Chopra won India’s first gold medal in the javelin throw event at the Tokyo Olympics 2021.

    Question 37: When is National Sports Day celebrated in India?

    (A) 15th August
    (B) 29th August
    (C) 2nd October
    (D) 26th January

    Answer
    Answer: (B) 29th August
    Explanation: In India, National Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August in honor of the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand./su_spoiler]

    Question 38: In which sport is the term “dribbling” used?

    (A) Hockey
    (B) Cricket
    (C) Tennis
    (D) Football

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Football
    Explanation: Dribbling in football refers to a player's ability to control and move the ball forward while avoiding defenders.

    Question 39: In which year was the first season of IPL (Indian Premier League) played?

    (A) 2007
    (B) 2008
    (C) 2010
    (D) 2011

    Answer
    Answer: (B) 2008
    Explanation: The first season of IPL was played in 2008, and Rajasthan Royals won the championship.

    Question 40: Who won India's first Olympic medal in boxing?

    (A) Vijender Singh
    (B) Mary Kom
    (C) Shiva Thapa
    (D) Akhil Kumar

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Vijender Singh
    Explanation: Vijender Singh won a bronze medal in boxing at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, making him India’s first Olympic boxing medalist.

    Question 41: What is the highest award given in the field of sports?

    (A) Jnanpith Award
    (B) Padma Shri Award
    (C) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
    (D) Bharat Bhushan Award

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
    Explanation: The highest award given in the field of sports in India is the ‘Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.’ In 2021, the name of this award was changed from ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award’ to ‘Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.’

    Question 42: Which sport is Navjot Singh Sidhu associated with?

    (A) Football
    (B) Tennis
    (C) Cricket
    (D) Hockey

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Cricket
    Explanation: Navjot Singh Sidhu is a former Indian cricketer who played for India in both Test and One-Day formats.

    Question 43: What does 'Albatross' mean in golf?

    (A) Scoring three strokes under par
    (B) Scoring more than two strokes over par
    (C) Scoring exactly par
    (D) Scoring more than four strokes over par

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Scoring three strokes under par
    Explanation: An ‘Albatross’ occurs when a player completes a golf hole three strokes under the designated number of strokes (par).

    Question 44: Federer, Nadal, and Djokovic are associated with which sport?

    (A) Football
    (B) Golf
    (C) Badminton
    (D) Tennis

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Tennis
    Explanation: These three players are considered among the greatest tennis players of all time and have won multiple Grand Slam titles.

    Question 45: Who was India's first Grand Slam winner?

    (A) Leander Paes
    (B) Mahesh Bhupathi
    (C) Sania Mirza
    (D) Ramanathan Krishnan

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Mahesh Bhupathi
    Explanation: Mahesh Bhupathi became India’s first Grand Slam winner by winning the French Open mixed doubles title in 1997.

    Question 46: In which sport is the 'Bulgarian Bag' used?

    (A) Wrestling
    (B) Weightlifting
    (C) Boxing
    (D) Badminton

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Wrestling
    Explanation: The ‘Bulgarian Bag’ is used in wrestling training to enhance endurance and strength.

    Question 47: In which sport has P.V. Sindhu won an Olympic medal?

    (A) Tennis
    (B) Badminton
    (C) Hockey
    (D) Athletics

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Badminton
    Explanation: P.V. Sindhu won a silver medal in badminton at the 2016 Rio Olympics and a bronze medal at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics.

    Question 48: In which country was the FIFA World Cup 2022 held?

    (A) Qatar
    (B) Brazil
    (C) Russia
    (D) South Africa

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Qatar
    Explanation: The 2022 FIFA World Cup was held in Qatar, marking the first time the tournament was hosted in the Middle East.

    Question 49: Who is known as the "Little Master" in Indian cricket?

    (A) Kapil Dev
    (B) Sachin Tendulkar
    (C) Sunil Gavaskar
    (D) Rahul Dravid

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Sunil Gavaskar
    Explanation: Sunil Gavaskar is called the “Little Master” due to his exceptional batting skills and records. He was one of India’s first cricketing legends.

    Question 50: Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the highest runs scored in a single Test match innings?

    (A) Virat Kohli
    (B) Sachin Tendulkar
    (C) Rahul Dravid
    (D) Sunil Gavaskar

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Sachin Tendulkar
    Explanation: Sachin Tendulkar holds the record for the highest runs scored in a single Test innings for India with his 248* against Bangladesh in 2004.

    Question-51: Who was the captain of the Indian team that won the first World Cup in 1983?

    A) Sunil Gavaskar
    B) Kapil Dev
    C) Mohammad Azharuddin
    D) Sourav Ganguly

    Answer
    Answer: B) Kapil Dev
    Explanation: Kapil Dev led the Indian team to its first World Cup victory in 1983, defeating the West Indies in the final.

    Question-52: Which Indian cricketer is known by the nickname "Dada"?

    A) Sachin Tendulkar
    B) Sourav Ganguly
    C) Rahul Dravid
    D) Anil Kumble

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sourav Ganguly
    Explanation: Sourav Ganguly is known as “Dada,” a term used in Bengali to mean elder brother.

    Question-53: In which year did India win its first T20 World Cup?

    A) 2005
    B) 2007
    C) 2011
    D) 2013

    Answer
    Answer: B) 2007
    Explanation: India won its first T20 World Cup in 2007 under the captaincy of Mahendra Singh Dhoni.

    Question-54: Who was the highest run-scorer for India in the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup?

    A) Sachin Tendulkar
    B) Virat Kohli
    C) Gautam Gambhir
    D) Kumar Sangakkara

    Answer
    Answer: C) Gautam Gambhir
    Explanation: Gautam Gambhir was the highest run-scorer for India in the 2011 World Cup, scoring 808 runs.

    Question-55: Who was the first Indian cricketer to score a double century in a One-Day International (ODI) match?

    A) Sachin Tendulkar
    B) Virat Kohli
    C) Rohit Sharma
    D) Shikhar Dhawan

    Answer
    Answer: C) Rohit Sharma
    Explanation: Rohit Sharma has scored three double centuries in ODI matches, with his first one coming against Australia in 2013.

    Question-56: Which Indian cricketer was the first to take 10 wickets in a single Test innings?

    A) Bishan Singh Bedi
    B) Anil Kumble
    C) Erapalli Prasanna
    D) Ravi Shastri

    Answer
    Answer: B) Anil Kumble
    Explanation: Anil Kumble achieved this rare feat in 1999 against Pakistan, taking all 10 wickets in a single innings.

    Question-57: Which Indian cricketer is known as "The Wall"?

    A) Sachin Tendulkar
    B) Rahul Dravid
    C) Virender Sehwag
    D) Sunil Gavaskar

    Answer
    Answer: B) Rahul Dravid
    Explanation: Rahul Dravid is known as “The Wall” due to his solid and dependable batting technique.

    Question-58: Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the highest individual score in an ODI match?

    A) Sachin Tendulkar
    B) Virat Kohli
    C) Rohit Sharma
    D) Shikhar Dhawan

    Answer
    Answer: C) Rohit Sharma
    Explanation: Rohit Sharma holds the record for the highest individual score in ODI cricket, scoring 264 runs.

    Question-59: Which Indian bowler holds the record for the most wickets in T20 International cricket?

    A) Harbhajan Singh
    B) Yuvraj Singh
    C) Ravi Ashwin
    D) Jasprit Bumrah

    Answer
    Answer: C) Ravi Ashwin
    Explanation: Ravi Ashwin holds the record for the most wickets for India in T20 International cricket.

    Question-60: Who was the first Indian cricketer to score a century in T20 International cricket?

    A) Virat Kohli
    B) Suresh Raina
    C) Yuvraj Singh
    D) Rohit Sharma

    Answer
    Answer: B) Suresh Raina
    Explanation: Suresh Raina was the first Indian to score a century in T20 International cricket, achieving this against South Africa in 2010.

    Question-61: Who was the captain of the Indian team in the 2003 Cricket World Cup final?

    A) Sourav Ganguly
    B) Rahul Dravid
    C) MS Dhoni
    D) Sachin Tendulkar

    Answer
    Answer: A) Sourav Ganguly
    Explanation: Sourav Ganguly was the captain of the Indian team in the 2003 Cricket World Cup final, where India played against Australia.

    Question-62: Who was the first Indian cricketer to win the ICC Cricketer of the Year award?

    A) Sachin Tendulkar
    B) Rahul Dravid
    C) MS Dhoni
    D) Virat Kohli

    Answer
    Answer: A) Sachin Tendulkar
    Explanation: Sachin Tendulkar was the first Indian cricketer to win the ICC Cricketer of the Year award in 2010.

    Question-63: Which Indian cricketer is famous for hitting six sixes in an over in T20 cricket?

    A) MS Dhoni
    B) Yuvraj Singh
    C) Virender Sehwag
    D) Rohit Sharma

    Answer
    Answer: B) Yuvraj Singh
    Explanation: Yuvraj Singh hit six sixes in an over against Stuart Broad during the 2007 T20 World Cup.

  • Biology GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

    Biology – General Science MCQs for GK paper in competitive exams. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free online practice.

    Biology GK MCQs

    Question 1: Which of the following is commonly known as a blood thinner?

    A) Coagulation inhibitor
    B) Antibiotic
    C) Immunosuppressant
    D) Anticoagulant

    Answer
    Answer: D) Anticoagulant
    Explanation: Anticoagulants are commonly known as blood thinners and are used to treat and prevent blood clots. Antibiotics are medications used to treat bacterial infections.

    Question 2: Bile is stored in a sac called __________.

    A) Gallbladder
    B) Urinary bladder
    C) Pancreas
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: A) Gallbladder
    Explanation: Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder in the human digestive system.

    Question 3: What is the pH of human blood?

    A) 7.4
    B) 10
    C) 6.5
    D) 5.8

    Answer
    Answer: A) 7.4
    Explanation: The pH value of human blood is 7.4, which makes it alkaline in nature.

    Question 4: Which of the following plant kingdom groups is known as algae?

    A) Bryophyta
    B) Thallophyta
    C) Angiosperm
    D) Pteridophyta

    Answer
    Answer: B) Thallophyta
    Explanation: Thallophytes are commonly known as algae. Most of them are aquatic and represent a primitive form of plant life without vascular tissues for transporting water and minerals.

    Question 5: Deficiency of which vitamin causes swollen neck glands?

    A) Vitamin C
    B) Iodine
    C) Calcium
    D) Vitamin D

    Answer
    Answer: B) Iodine
    Explanation: Swelling in the neck glands is generally associated with iodine deficiency.

    Question 6: Which of the following belongs to the Platyhelminthes classification under the kingdom Animalia?

    A) Tapeworm
    B) Leech
    C) Wuchereria
    D) Sycon

    Answer
    Answer: A) Tapeworm
    Explanation: Tapeworm is an invertebrate parasite that lives in the bodies of vertebrates, including humans. Some species can grow up to 100 feet (30 meters) long, and their bodies are ribbon-like and segmented.

    Question 7: In the cytoplasm, ribosomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus are examples of __________.

    A) Organs
    B) Cells
    C) Organelles
    D) Tissues

    Answer
    Answer: C) Organelles
    Explanation: Golgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi body, is an organelle found in most eukaryotic cells.

    Question 8: What is the normal body temperature of humans?

    A) 98.6°C
    B) 98.6°F
    C) 37°F
    D) 40°C

    Answer
    Answer: B) 98.6°F
    Explanation: The normal body temperature is around 98.6°F (37°C). Fever is usually indicated by a temperature above 100.4°F (38°C).

    Question 9: In which part of the plant does the process of respiration occur?

    A) Roots
    B) Stem
    C) Leaves
    D) Flowers

    Answer
    Answer: C) Leaves
    Explanation: The leaves perform respiration by absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.

    Question 10: How many major systems are there in the human body?

    A) 7
    B) 10
    C) 12
    D) 5

    Answer
    Answer: C) 12
    Explanation: There are 12 major systems in the human body, such as the digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, etc.

    Question 11: What is the full form of DNA?

    A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
    B) Deoxyribonucleotide Acid
    C) Deoxyribonuclear Acid
    D) Deoxynucleic Acid

    Answer
    Answer: A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
    Explanation: The full form of DNA is Deoxyribonucleic Acid, which stores genetic information.

    Question 12: By which process do herbivorous plants prepare food?

    A) Respiration
    B) Photosynthesis
    C) Maturation
    D) Regeneration

    Answer
    Answer: B) Photosynthesis
    Explanation: Herbivorous plants prepare food through photosynthesis, which uses sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide.

    Question 13: Which is the largest gland in the human body?

    A) Pancreas
    B) Liver
    C) Pituitary Gland
    D) Thyroid

    Answer
    Answer: B) Liver
    Explanation: The liver is the largest gland in the human body and performs many important functions.

    Question 14: What is an enzyme?

    A) A type of vitamin
    B) A type of acid
    C) A type of protein
    D) A type of mineral

    Answer
    Answer: C) A type of protein
    Explanation: An enzyme is a type of protein that accelerates biological chemical reactions.

    Question 15: What is the function of papillae?

    A) Digesting food
    B) Regulating body temperature
    C) Detoxifying the body
    D) Solidifying blood

    Answer
    Answer: A) Digesting food
    Explanation: Papillae in the stomach help in digesting food.

    Question 16: Which cell has a cell membrane?

    A) Animal cell
    B) Plant cell
    C) Bacterial cell
    D) All cells

    Answer
    Answer: D) All cells
    Explanation: All cells have a cell membrane that separates the cell from its external environment.

    Question 17: Which organ is not part of the central nervous system?

    A) Brain
    B) Spinal cord
    C) Nerve
    D) Brain and spinal cord

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nerve
    Explanation: Nerves are not part of the central nervous system; the brain and spinal cord are.

    Question 18: Where is energy produced in a cell?

    A) Nucleus
    B) Mitochondria
    C) Chloroplast
    D) Ribosome

    Answer
    Answer: B) Mitochondria
    Explanation: Mitochondria produce the cell’s energy, known as ATP.

    Question 19: Where is cartilage found?

    A) In bones
    B) In the skin
    C) In the blood
    D) In the nails

    Answer
    Answer: A) In bones
    Explanation: Cartilage is found in bones and helps to lubricate joints.

    Question 20: Which enzyme aids in chemical digestion?

    A) Pancreatic lipase
    B) Lactase
    C) Amylase
    D) All

    Answer
    Answer: D) All
    Explanation: Pancreatic lipase, lactase, and amylase all aid in chemical digestion.

    Question 21: Which gas is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Carbon Dioxide
    D) Hydrogen

    Answer
    Answer: C) Carbon Dioxide
    Explanation: Carbon dioxide is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis.

    Question 22: Where is a virus found?

    A) Microorganisms
    B) Plants
    C) Animals
    D) Bacteria

    Answer
    Answer: A) Microorganisms
    Explanation: A virus is found in microorganisms, such as viruses.

    Question 23: In which organ does the first digestion of food occur?

    A) Stomach
    B) Mouth
    C) Intestine
    D) Esophagus

    Answer
    Answer: B) Mouth
    Explanation: The first digestion of food occurs in the mouth, where enzymes initiate the digestion process.

    Question 24: What is the study of microorganisms called?

    A) Biology
    B) Microbiology
    C) Physiology
    D) Ecology

    Answer
    Answer: B) Microbiology
    Explanation: The study of microorganisms is called microbiology.

    Question 25: Which organ purifies the blood?

    A) Liver
    B) Heart
    C) Kidneys
    D) Lungs

    Answer
    Answer: C) Kidneys
    Explanation: The kidneys purify the blood and remove waste products.

    Question 26: Which part of the papillary helps in digestion?

    A) Gastric juice
    B) Hydrochloric acid
    C) Pepsin
    D) All of the above

    Answer
    Answer: D) All of the above
    Explanation: Gastric juice, hydrochloric acid, and pepsin all help in digestion.

    Question 27: What is not present in living cells?

    A) Mitochondria
    B) Chloroplast
    C) Lysosomes
    D) Volcans

    Answer
    Answer: D) Volcans
    Explanation: Volcans are not found in living cells, whereas mitochondria, chloroplast, and lysosomes are present in cells.

    Question 28: What condition arises due to a lack of oxygen?

    A) Hypoxia
    B) Hyperthermia
    C) Hypoglycemia
    D) Hypothermia

    Answer
    Answer: A) Hypoxia
    Explanation: Hypoxia is a condition that arises due to a lack of oxygen, where the body’s tissues do not receive enough oxygen.

    Question 29: What is the main organ for food transportation in plants?

    A) Roots
    B) Leaves
    C) Stem
    D) Flowers

    Answer
    Answer: C) Stem
    Explanation: The stem is the main organ for food transportation in plants.

    Question 30: How many major types of cells are there in human blood?

    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5

    Answer
    Answer: C) 4
    Explanation: There are four major types of cells in human blood: red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and blood plasma.

    Question 31: What controls cognitive functions?

    A) Heart
    B) Brain
    C) Kidneys
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: B) Brain
    Explanation: Cognitive functions, such as thinking and processing, are controlled by the brain.

    Question 32: What is the function of genes?

    A) Digestion of food
    B) Production of energy
    C) Storage of genetic information
    D) Formation of blood

    Answer
    Answer: C) Storage of genetic information
    Explanation: Genes store genetic information and transfer it to the next generation.

    Question 33: What is the function of mitochondria?

    A) Production of energy
    B) Protein synthesis
    C) Cell division
    D) Cell structure

    Answer
    Answer: A) Production of energy
    Explanation: Mitochondria produce energy in the cell.

    Question 34: What type of organism are bacteria?

    A) Unicellular
    B) Multicellular
    C) Viruses
    D) Fungi

    Answer
    Answer: A) Unicellular
    Explanation: Bacteria are unicellular organisms.

    Question 35: During which stage of the nutrition process is the most energy obtained?

    A) Digestion of carbohydrates
    B) Digestion of proteins
    C) Digestion of fats
    D) All equally

    Answer
    Answer: C) Digestion of fats
    Explanation: Digestion of fats provides the most energy.

    Question 36: Which gland plays a major role in body growth?

    A) Thyroid
    B) Pituitary
    C) Pancreas
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: B) Pituitary
    Explanation: The pituitary gland plays a major role in the growth of the body.

    Question 37: Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?

    A) Vitamin A
    B) Vitamin B
    C) Vitamin D
    D) Vitamin C

    Answer
    Answer: C) Vitamin D
    Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets (bone weakness).[

    Question 38: What type of antibodies are found in blood group A?

    A) B antibodies
    B) A antibodies
    C) AB antibodies
    D) O antibodies

    Answer
    Answer: A) B antibodies
    Explanation: Blood group A has B antibodies.

    Question 39: What studies the ecosystem?

    A) Zoology
    B) Botany
    C) Ecology
    D) Microbiology

    Answer
    Answer: C) Ecology
    Explanation: The study of ecosystems is done by ecology.

    Question 40: What is a neuron?

    A) Blood cell
    B) Nerve cell
    C) Digestive cell
    D) Liver cell

    Answer
    Answer: B) Nerve cell
    Explanation: A neuron is a nerve cell and an essential part of the nervous system.

    Question 41: Which organ produces hormones?

    A) Heart
    B) Liver
    C) Thyroid
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: C) Thyroid
    Explanation: The thyroid produces hormones that control many vital functions in the body.

    Question 42: Which organ plays a major role in the process of respiration?

    A) Heart
    B) Lungs
    C) Liver
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: B) Lungs
    Explanation: The lungs play a major role in respiration, facilitating the exchange of oxygen.

    Question 43: In the digestive system, which organ produces digestive enzymes?

    A) Liver
    B) Pancreas
    C) Stomach
    D) Intestine

    Answer
    Answer: B) Pancreas
    Explanation: The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that aid in food digestion.

    Question 44: Which organ in plant cells assists in photosynthesis?

    A) Mitochondria
    B) Chloroplast
    C) Ribosome
    D) Nucleus

    Answer
    Answer: B) Chloroplast
    Explanation: Chloroplasts assist in photosynthesis in plant cells.

    Question 45: What is the largest organ in the human body?

    A) Heart
    B) Liver
    C) Skin
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: C) Skin
    Explanation: The skin is the largest organ in the human body.

    Question 46: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease?

    A) Rickets
    B) Scurvy
    C) Pellagra
    D) Burkitt’s

    Answer
    Answer: B) Scurvy
    Explanation: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to scurvy, which causes swollen and bleeding gums.

    Question 47: What is the largest cell in the human body?

    A) Human Egg
    B) Red Blood Cell
    C) Liver Cell
    D) Nerve Cell

    Answer
    Answer: A) Human Egg
    Explanation: The human egg (ovum) is the largest cell in the human body.

    Question 48: What is considered the best sensory organ?

    A) Eye
    B) Ear
    C) Skin
    D) Nose

    Answer
    Answer: C) Skin
    Explanation: The skin is considered the best sensory organ because it can sense many stimuli.

    Question 49: Which nutrient is most essential for nutrition?

    A) Carbohydrates
    B) Protein
    C) Fats
    D) Vitamins

    Answer
    Answer: A) Carbohydrates
    Explanation: Carbohydrates are the main source of energy and are thus the most essential.

    Question 50: What is the name of the plant hormone that regulates growth?

    A) Ethylene
    B) Auxin
    C) Cytokinin
    D) Gibberellin

    Answer
    Answer: B) Auxin
    Explanation: Auxin controls the growth of plants.

    Question 51: Which organ regulates blood pressure?

    A) Heart
    B) Kidneys
    C) Liver
    D) Lungs

    Answer
    Answer: B) Kidneys
    Explanation: The kidneys play an important role in regulating blood pressure.

    Question 52: What is the study of the remains of organisms called?

    A) Paleontology
    B) Genetics
    C) Ecology
    D) Microbiology

    Answer
    Answer: A) Paleontology
    Explanation: The study of the remains of organisms is called Paleontology.

    Question 53: What part is included in the structure of a virus?

    A) Nucleus
    B) Protein coat
    C) Mitochondria
    D) Chloroplast

    Answer
    Answer: B) Protein coat
    Explanation: The structure of a virus includes a protein coat that protects the genetic material.

    Question 54: Which part of the plant absorbs water?

    A) Leaves
    B) Stem
    C) Roots
    D) Flowers

    Answer
    Answer: C) Roots
    Explanation: Water is primarily absorbed by the roots of plants.

    Question 55: What does Maltase digest?

    A) Proteins
    B) Fats
    C) Carbohydrates
    D) Vitamins

    Answer
    Answer: C) Carbohydrates
    Explanation: The enzyme Maltase digests carbohydrates.

    Question 56: In which part of the body does fat digestion occur?

    A) Stomach
    B) Intestine
    C) Liver
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: B) Intestine
    Explanation: Fat digestion primarily occurs in the intestine.

    Question 57: Which organ plays a major role in drug absorption?

    A) Mouth
    B) Stomach
    C) Intestine
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: C) Intestine
    Explanation: Drug absorption primarily takes place in the intestine.

    Question 58: Where are RBCs produced in the body?

    A) Liver
    B) Kidneys
    C) Bone marrow
    D) Liver

    Answer
    Answer: C) Bone marrow
    Explanation: Red blood cells (RBCs) are produced in the bone marrow.

    Question 59: What is the most important organ in the process of respiration?

    A) Heart
    B) Lungs
    C) Liver
    D) Kidneys

    Answer
    Answer: B) Lungs
    Explanation: The lungs are the most important organs in the process of respiration.

    Question 59: Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

    A) Louis Pasteur
    B) Charles Darwin
    C) Gregor Mendel
    D) Robert Hooke

    Answer
    Answer: B) Charles Darwin
    Explanation: The theory of natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin.

    Question 60: Which organ is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

    A) Bone marrow
    B) Heart
    C) Brain
    D) Lungs

    Answer
    Answer: A) Bone marrow
    Explanation: Red blood cells, most white blood cells, and platelets are produced in the bone marrow.
  • Religious Movements of 6th Century BCE

    Religious Movements of 6th Century BCE MCQ Questions from the previous year exam question paper. This practice set of objective question answer is very useful for the preparation of upcoming UPSC, SSC, UPSSSC competitive exams.

    Religious Movements of 6th Century BCE Questions

    Qns 1 : The originator of the Jain religion is ……

    (a) Arya Sudharma
    (b) Mahavira Swami
    (c) Parshvanatha
    (d) Rishabhdev

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Rishabhdev

    Qns 2 : In Jain religion, which word is used for ‘Complete Intellect’?

    (a) Jin
    (b) Ratna
    (c) Kaivalya
    (d) Nirvana

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Kaivalya

    Qns 3 : Which of the following is not the ‘Tri Ratna’ of Jainism?

    (a) Right faith
    (b) Right knowledge
    (c) Right view
    (d) Right conduct

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Right view

    Qns 4 : The word Tirthankar is related to

    (a) Buddhists
    (b) Christians
    (c) Hindus
    (d) Jains

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Jains

    Qns 5 : Who was the first Tirthankara of Jain religion?

    (a) Parsvanath
    (b) Rishabhanatha
    (c) Mahavira
    (d) Chetaka

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Rishabhanatha

    Qns 6 : Name the last Tirthankara.

    (a) Parshvanatha
    (b) Mahavira
    (c) Siddhartha
    (d) Subhadra

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Mahavira

    Qns 7 : Where was Mahavira Swami born?

    (a) Kundagrama
    (b) Pataliputra
    (c) Magadha
    (d) Vaishali

    Answer
    Ans : (a) Kundagrama

    Qns 8 : Which philosophy is recognised as ‘Tri Ratna’?

    (a) Vedic Philosophy
    (b) Nayaya Philosophy
    (c) Yoga Philosophy
    (d) Jain Philosophy

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Jain Philosophy

    Qns 9 : The sacred books of Jains are called

    (a) Agama Sidhanta
    (b) Angas
    (c) Parvas
    (d) Upangas

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Angas

    Qns 10 : Gautama Buddha was born at

    (a) Vaishali
    (b) Lumbini
    (c) Kapilvastu
    (d) Pataliputra

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Lumbini

    Qns 11 : Which of these is another name of Buddha?

    (a) Parth
    (b) Prachhanna
    (c) Mihir
    (d) None of these

    Answer
    Ans : (d) None of these

    Qns 12 : Who amongst the following is known as the ‘Light of Asia’?

    (a) Jesus Christ
    (b) Lord Buddha
    (c) Paigamber Mohammad
    (d) Zarathustra

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Lord Buddha

    Qns 13 : Gautama Buddha attained “Mahaparinirvana” in kingdom of

    (a) Aung
    (b) Magadha
    (c) Malla
    (d) Vatsa

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Malla

    Qns 14 : Who was Alara Kalama?

    (a) A disciple of Buddha.
    (b) A distinguished Buddhist monk.
    (c) A king of Buddha’s time.
    (d) A teacher of Buddha.

    Answer
    Ans : (d) A teacher of Buddha.

    Qns 15 : Where did Gautama Buddha deliver his first sermon?

    (a) Bodh Gaya
    (b) Shravasti
    (c) Sarnath
    (d) Vaishali

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Sarnath

    Qns 16 : Where did Gautama Buddha attain Nirvana (enlightenment)?

    (a) Lumbini
    (b) Sarnath
    (c) Kushinagar
    (d) Bodh Gaya

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Bodh Gaya

    Qns 17 : Sarnath is in the state of

    (a) Kerala
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Gujarat
    (d) Uttar Pradesh

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Uttar Pradesh

    Qns 18 : Mahaparinirvana Temple is located at

    (a) Kushinagar
    (b) Sarnath
    (c) Bodh Gaya
    (d) Shravasti

    Answer
    Ans : (a) Kushinagar

    Qns 19: The Stupa site which is not connected with any incident of Lord Buddha’s life, is

    (a) Sarnath
    (b) Sanchi
    (c) Bodh Gaya
    (d) Kushinagar

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Sanchi

    Qns 20 : Name the ‘Mudra’ which is represented by the Gandharan Buddha image of Sarnath first Sermon.

    (a) Abhaya
    (b) Dhyana
    (c) Dharmachakra
    (d) Bhumisparsha

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Dharmachakra

    Qns 21 : Who of the following was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha?

    (a) Bhadrabahu
    (b) Chandragupta Maurya
    (c) Parshvanatha
    (d) Vardhamana Mahavira

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Vardhamana Mahavira

    Qns 22 : Which of the following statements is/are correct about Lord Buddha?
    I. He was born in Kapilvastu.
    II. He attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya.
    III. He discarded the Vedic religion.
    IV. He preached noble truths.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    (a) II and III
    (b) I and III
    (c) I, II and III
    (d) I, II, III and IV

    Answer
    Ans : (d) I, II, III and IV

    Qns 23 : Match the following.

             List I                                   List II
    (Event Related to Buddha)        (Place)
    A.  Birth of  Buddha                1. Bodh Gaya
    B.  Enlightenment                   2. Lumbini
    C.  First Sermon                    3. Kushinagar(Kasia)
    D.  Death of Buddha                 4. Sarnath
                                        5. Rajgriha
        Codes
        A B C D            A B C D
    (a) 2 1 3 4        (b) 1 3 4 5
    (c) 2 1 4 3        (d) 4 2 5 3
    Answer
    Ans : (c) 2 1 4 3

    Qns 24 : Why was Nalanda-University famous in the world?

    (a) Medical Science
    (b) Philosophy
    (c) Buddhist Religious Philosophy
    (d) Chemical Science

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Buddhist Religious Philosophy

    Qns 25 : Who was the author of ‘Buddha Charita’?

    (a) Asvaghosa
    (b) Nagasena
    (c) Nagarjuna
    (d) Vasumitra

    Answer
    Ans : (a) Asvaghosa

    Qns 26: ‘Tripitaka’ texts are related to which religion?

    (a) Vedic religion
    (b) Buddhism
    (c) Jainism
    (d) Shaivism

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Buddhism

    Qns 27 : Who was the founder of Nalanda University?

    (a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
    (b) Kumargupta
    (c) Dharmapal
    (d) Phushyagupta

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Kumargupta

    Qns 28 : Who founded the Lingayat Movement?

    (a) Basava
    (b) Ramanuja
    (c) Shankaracharya
    (d) Kambar

    Answer
    Ans : (a) Basava

    Qns 29 : Who were the first to worship Vasudeva Krishna?

    (a) Bhagavatas
    (b) Vedic Aryans
    (c) Tamilians
    (d) Abhirs

    Answer
    Ans : (a) Bhagavatas

    Qns 30 : The Rathyatra at Puri is celebrated in honour of which Hindu deity?

    (a) Lord Rama
    (b) Lord Vishnu
    (c) Lord Jagannath
    (d) Lord Shiva

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Lord Jagannath

    Qns 31 : Kumbh Mela at Nasik is held on which of the following river banks?

    (a) Tapti River
    (b) Narmada River
    (c) Koyna RIver
    (d) Godavari River

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Godavari River

    Qns 32 : The first human statue worshipped in India where those of

    (a) Brahma
    (b) Vishnu
    (c) Buddha
    (d) Shiva

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Buddha

    Qns 33 : ‘Saptaparni Cave’ is situated in

    (a) Sanchi
    (b) Nalanda
    (c) Rajgriha
    (d) Pawapuri

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Rajgriha
  • Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ for Competitive Exams

    Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

    Neighbouring Countries of India MCQs

    Question 1: With how many countries does India share its borders in total?

    A) 5
    B) 6
    C) 7
    D) 8

    Answer
    Answer: C) 7

    Explanation: India shares its borders with a total of 7 countries. These countries are:

    Question 2: What type of border exists between India and Sri Lanka?

    A) Land border
    B) Sea border
    C) Border formed by rivers
    D) Border formed by mountains

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sea border

    Explanation: The border between India and Sri Lanka is a sea border. There is a maritime boundary in the sea between the two countries, defined by a sea border between the islands of ‘Daman and Nicobar’ and Sri Lanka. The major points of this border are known as ‘Adam’s Bridge’ or ‘Ram Setu’, which indicate the sea route between India and Sri Lanka.

    Question 3: Which neighboring country is located in the northwest of India?

    A) Nepal
    B) Bhutan
    C) Pakistan
    D) Myanmar

    Answer
    Answer: C) Pakistan

    Explanation: Pakistan is located in the northwest of India and shares its western border with India.

    Question 4: In which direction is the border between India and Bangladesh located?

    A) North
    B) South
    C) East
    D) West

    Answer
    Answer: C) East

    Explanation: The border between India and Bangladesh is in the east. Bangladesh is located to the east of India.

    Question 5: Which country is located in the north of India?

    A) Bhutan
    B) Sri Lanka
    C) Bangladesh
    D) Myanmar

    Answer
    Answer: A) Bhutan

    Explanation: Bhutan is located in the north of India. Bhutan’s border is in the north of India, while the borders of other countries are in different directions of India.

    Question 6: What is the length of the border between India and Bhutan?

    A) 699 kilometers
    B) 500 kilometers
    C) 400 kilometers
    D) 700 kilometers

    Answer
    Answer: A) 699 kilometers

    Explanation: The length of the border between India and Bhutan is approximately 600 kilometers.

    Question 7: What is the total length of India’s land border?

    A) 15,200 kilometers
    B) 14,800 kilometers
    C) 15,700 kilometers
    D) 16,000 kilometers

    Answer
    Answer: A) 15,200 kilometers

    Explanation: The length of its land borders is approximately 15,200 km. While the total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.

    Question 8: What is the total length of the border between India and Bangladesh?

    a) 4906 kilometers
    b) 5096 kilometers
    c) 7094 kilometers
    d) 6096 kilometers

    Answer
    Answer: a) 4906 kilometers

    Explanation: Bangladesh and India share a 4,096 kilometer (2,545 mi) international border, which is the fifth-longest land border in the world.

    Question 9: What type of border exists between India and Nepal?

    A) Sea border
    B) International border
    C) Provincial border
    D) Border formed by rivers

    Answer
    Answer: B) International border

    Explanation: The border between India and Nepal is an open international border that demarcates the boundaries of Nepal with various Indian states.

    Question 10: What is the name of the major border line between India and Pakistan?

    A) Durand Line
    B) Line of Actual Control (LoC)
    C) Raja Line
    D) Radcliffe Line

    Answer
    Answer: D) Radcliffe Line

    Explanation: The major border line between India and Pakistan is called the “Radcliffe Line”. This line was drawn in 1947 by British official Sir Cyril John Radcliffe during the partition of India and Pakistan. It defines the international border between India and Pakistan.

    Question 11: The border of Afghanistan touches which one Union Territory of India?

    a) Ladakh
    b) Jammu and Kashmir
    c) Himachal Pradesh
    d) Uttarakhand

    Answer
    Answer: A) Ladakh

    Explanation: The border of Afghanistan touches only the Union Territory of Ladakh in India. A small part of Ladakh, commonly known as the Wakhan Corridor, borders Afghanistan. There is no direct border post or line of control in this area, but geographically, the border meets here.

    Question 12: Which state does not share a border with Nepal?

    a) Bihar

    b) Uttar Pradesh

    c) Sikkim

    d) Assam

    Answer
    Answer: d) Assam

    Explanation: Assam does not share its border with Nepal. The border between India and Nepal is an open international border between India and Nepal.

    Question 13: Which is the smallest neighboring country of India in terms of area?

    a) Bhutan
    b) China

    c) Sikkim

    d) Assam

    Answer
    Answer: a) Bhutan

    Explanation: Bhutan is the smallest among India’s neighboring countries.

    Question 14: The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states of India?

    A) 5
    B) 6
    C) 7
    D) 8

    Answer
    Answer: B) 8

    Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through a total of eight states of India (Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram).

    Question 15: At which latitude is the Equator located?

    A) 0°
    B) 23.5° North
    C) 23.5° South
    D) 45°

    Answer
    Answer: A) 0°

    Explanation: The Equator divides the Earth into the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere, and its latitude is zero degrees (0°).

    Question 16: Which hemisphere is located to the north of the Equator?

    a) Southern Hemisphere
    b) Northern Hemisphere
    c) Arctic Hemisphere
    d) Antarctic Hemisphere

    Answer
    Answer: B) Northern Hemisphere

    Explanation: The Northern Hemisphere is to the north of the Equator, and the Southern Hemisphere is to the south.

    Question 17: At which latitude is the Tropic of Cancer located?

    A) 20° North
    B) 23.5° North
    C) 25° North
    D) 30° North

    Answer
    Answer: B) 23.5° North

    Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer is located at 23.5° North latitude and is a major line of latitude in the Northern Hemisphere.

    Question 18: Which countries are located to the east of India?

    a) Nepal and Bhutan
    b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
    c) Bangladesh and Myanmar
    d) Sri Lanka and Maldives

    Answer
    Answer: C) Bangladesh and Myanmar

    Explanation: Bangladesh and Myanmar are located to the east of India. Bangladesh is situated on India’s eastern border, and Myanmar is also located in India’s northeast direction.

    Question 19: Which state of India is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides?

    a) Maharashtra
    b) Kathmandu
    c) Chennai
    d) Tripura

    Answer
    Answer: d) Tripura

    Explanation: Tripura is situated between the river valleys of Bangladesh and Myanmar. It is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides and is connected to Assam and Mizoram only in the northeast.

    Question 20: What was the old name of Myanmar?

    a) Sri Lanka
    b) Burma
    c) Yavadvipa
    d) Thailand

    Answer
    Answer: b) Burma

    Explanation: In 1989, the official English name of the country was changed from the Union of Burma to the Union of Myanmar.

    Question 21: By what name was Sri Lanka formerly known?

    a) Siam
    b) Salisbury
    c) Ceylon
    d) Sandwich Islands

    Answer
    Answer: c) Ceylon

    Explanation: Until 1972, its name was Ceylon, which was changed to Lanka in 1972, and in 1978, the honorific “Sri” was added before it, making it Sri Lanka.

    Question 22: How many states of India are on the coast of the sea?

    a) 7
    b) 8
    c) 9
    d) 10

    Answer
    Answer: c) 9

    Explanation: The Indian seacoast touches nine states – Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, and two Union Territories – Daman and Diu and Puducherry.

    Question 23: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following states?

    a) Odisha
    b) Gujarat
    c) Rajasthan
    d) West Bengal

    Answer
    Answer: a) Odisha

    Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through the state of Odisha.

    Question 24: Which state of India does the Tropic of Cancer pass through?

    a) Jammu and Kashmir
    b) Himachal Pradesh
    c) Bihar
    d) Jharkhand

    Answer
    Answer: d) Jharkhand

    Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through several states of India, including Jharkhand.

    Question 25: Which place is located closest to the Equator?

    a) Cape Comorin
    b) Rameswaram
    c) Indira Point
    d) Indira Col

    Answer
    Answer: c) Indira Point

    Explanation: Indira Point, located in the southern part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is the closest point to the Equator.

    Question 26: Where is New Moore Island located?

    a) Arabian Sea
    b) Bay of Bengal
    c) Gulf of Mannar
    d) Andaman Sea

    Answer
    Answer: b) Bay of Bengal

    Explanation: New Moore Island is a submerged island located in the Bay of Bengal. This island is situated to the south of Bangladesh and to the east of West Bengal.

    Question 27: Which water body separates India and Sri Lanka?

    a) Great Channel
    b) Palk Strait
    c) 8 Degree Channel
    d) 10 Degree Channel

    Answer
    Answer: b) Palk Strait

    Explanation: The Palk Strait is a strait located between the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Jaffna District of the Northern Province of Sri Lanka. This strait connects the Palk Bay in the northeast with the Gulf of Mannar in the southwest.

    Question 28: Which line forms the border between India and China?

    a) Radcliffe Line
    b) McMahon Line
    c) Durand Line
    d) Stateford Line

    Answer
    Answer: b) McMahon Line

    Explanation: The McMahon Line marks the boundary between the Chinese-occupied and Indian-occupied regions of the eastern Himalayan region. This border line was the center and cause of the Sino-Indian War.

    Question 29: India does not have a land international border with which country?

    a) Pakistan
    b) Bangladesh
    c) Bhutan
    d) Sri Lanka

    Answer
    Answer: d) Sri Lanka

    Explanation: India does not share a land international border with Sri Lanka.

    Question 30: India has the shortest land border with which country?

    a) Pakistan
    b) Nepal
    c) Myanmar
    d) Bhutan

    Answer
    Answer: d) Bhutan

    Explanation: Bhutan, a Buddhist kingdom on the eastern edge of the Himalayas, is known for its monasteries, fortresses (or dzongs), and dramatic landscapes.

    Question 31: Which place in India is currently known as ‘White Water’?

    a) Leh
    b) Ladakh
    c) Kargil
    d) Siachen

    Answer
    Answer: d) Siachen

    Explanation: Situated in rugged mountains, this place is always covered with snow, which is why it is also known as White Water.

    Question 32: What is the area of India?

    a) 3,257,405 sq km
    b) 3,268,276 sq km
    c) 3,287,263 sq km
    d) 3,287,679 sq km

    Answer
    Answer: c) 3,287,263 sq km

    Explanation: The area of India is 3,287,263 sq km, stretching from the snow-capped Himalayas in the north to the equatorial rainforests in the south.

    Question 33: In which hemisphere is India located?

    a) Northern and Eastern
    b) Southern and Eastern
    c) Northern and Western
    d) Northern and Southern

    Answer
    Answer: a) Northern and Eastern

    Explanation: It is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, between latitudes 8° 4′ and 37° 6′ north of the Equator, and longitudes 68° 7′ and 97° 25′ east.

    Question 34: Which state was formerly known as NEFA?

    a) Nagaland
    b) Manipur
    c) Arunachal Pradesh
    d) Assam

    Answer
    Answer: c) Arunachal Pradesh

    Explanation: The North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA), originally known as the North-East Frontier Tracts (NEFT), was one of the political divisions1 in British India, and later the Republic of India until 20 January 1972, when it became2 a Union Territory. It comprised present-day Arunachal Pradesh and parts of Assam. Its administrative headquarters was Shillong (until 1974, when it was transferred to Itanagar). It attained statehood on 20 February 1987.

    Question 35: Port Blair is located in?

    a) North Andaman
    b) South Andaman
    c) Middle Andaman
    d) Little Andaman

    Answer
    Answer: b) South Andaman

    Explanation: Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in South Andaman Island.

    Question 36: The McMahon Line, which demarcates the border between India and China, is drawn on the northern border of which of the following provinces?

    a) Jammu and Kashmir
    b) Uttar Pradesh
    c) Himachal Pradesh
    d) Arunachal Pradesh

    Answer
    Answer: d) Arunachal Pradesh

    Explanation: The McMahon Line defines the border between India and China, and this line is drawn on the northern border of Arunachal Pradesh.

    Question 37: The only cold desert in India is?

    a) Ladakh
    b) East Kameng
    c) Lachen
    d) Chamba

    Answer
    Answer: a) Ladakh

    Explanation: Ladakh is the only cold desert in India, located in the Himalayas. It is not affected by monsoons as it lies in the rain shadow region of the Himalayas.

    Question 38: Adam’s Bridge is located between which two countries?

    a) India and Pakistan
    b) India and Bangladesh
    c) India and Sri Lanka
    d) India and Myanmar

    Answer
    Answer: c) India and Sri Lanka

    Explanation: There is a chain of shoals in the shallows between the islands of Mannar, near northwestern Sri Lanka, and Rameswaram on the southeastern coast of India.

  • Gupta Empire MCQ for Competitive exams

    The Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period Empire MCQ for Competitive exams. The Gupta Age objective question answer in English are selected from the previous year exam question paper of UPSC, SSC CGL, CHSL and UPSSSC PET.

    Gupta Empire MCQ

    Qns 1 : Ajanta caves were built during period of

    (a) Gupta
    (b) Kushana
    (c) Maurya
    (d) Chalukya

    Answer
    (a) Gupta

    Qns 2 : Who is called the Napoleon of Ancient India?

    (a) Chandragupta Maurya
    (b) Pushyamitra
    (c) Kanishka
    (d) Samudragupta

    Answer
    (d) Samudragupta

    Qns 3 : The Gupta Emperor who defeated the ‘Hunas’ was

    (a) Samudragupta
    (b) Chandragupta-II
    (c) Skandagupta
    (d) Ramagupta

    Answer
    (c) Skandagupta

    Qns 4 : Which Gupta ruler had issued the largest varieties of coins?

    (a) Chandragupta
    (b) Kumaragupta
    (c) Chandragupta
    (d) Samudragupta

    Answer
    (b) Kumaragupta

    Qns 5 : With reference to the history of India, the terms ‘Kulyavapa‘ and ‘Dronavapa‘ denote

    (a) Measurement of land
    (b) Coins of different monetary value
    (c) Classification of urban land
    (d) Religious rituals

    Answer
    (a) Measurement of land

    Qns 6 : Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

    (a) Swapnavasavadatta
    (b) Malvikagnimitra
    (c) Meghaduta
    (d) Ratnavali

    Answer
    (b) Malvikagnimitra

    Qns 7 : The ancient Indian Play Mudrarakshasa of Vishakhadatta has its subject on

    (a) A conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient Hindu lore.
    (b) A romantic story of an aryan prince and a tribal woman.
    (c) The story of the power struggle between two Aryan tribes.
    (d) The court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya.

    Answer
    (d) The court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya.

    Qns 8 : Which of the following drama was not written by Kalidas?

    (a) Malvikagnimitram
    (b) Abhigyan Shakuntalam
    (c) Kumarasambhavam
    (d) Janaki Haranam

    Answer
    (d) Janaki Haranam

    Qns 9 : Which one of the following literary works did not belong to the Gupta period?

    (a) Abhijnana shakuntalam
    (b) Amarakosha
    (c) Charaka Samhita
    (d) Mrichakatika

    Answer
    (c) Charaka Samhita

    Qns 10 : Which of the following classical works of literature were written during the Gupta era?
    I. Amarkosh
    II. Kamasutra
    III. Meghadutta
    IV. Madrarakshasa
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
    (a) I and II only
    (b) II and III only
    (c) I, II and III only
    (d) I, II, III and IV

    Answer
    (d) I, II, III and IV

    Qns 11 : Among the four works mentioned below which one is encyclopedic in nature?

    (a) Amarakosha
    (b) Siddhanta Shiromani
    (c) Brihat Samhita
    (d) Ashtanga Hridayam

    Answer
    (d) Ashtanga Hridayam

    Qns 12 : Which of the following clearly define ‘Mitaksara”?

    (a) A work on astronomy.
    (b) A treatise on ancient Hindu law of inheritance.
    (c) A text on agriculture.
    (d) A compendium of medicine.

    Answer
    (b) A treatise on ancient Hindu law of inheritance.

    Qns 13 : With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

    (a) It was considered a source of income for the state, a sort of tax paid by the people.
    (b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
    (c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
    (d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

    Answer
    (a) It was considered a source of income for the state, a sort of tax paid by the people.

    Qns 14 : Centres located in Gujarat, Bengal, Deccan and Tamil country during the Gupta period were associated with which of the following?

    (a) Textile manufacture
    (b) Gems and precious stones
    (c) Handicrafts
    (d) Opium cultivation

    Answer
    (a) Textile manufacture

    Qns 15 : Which of the following inscriptions reveals information about silk weavers guild?

    (a) Dashpur Inscription
    (b) Prayag Prashasti
    (c) Eran Inscription
    (d) Hathigumpha Inscription

    Answer
    (a) Dashpur Inscription

    Qns 16 : Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists.

    List I (Type of Land)List II (Meaning)
    A. Urvara1. Land watered by a river
    B. Maru2. Fertile land
    C. Nadimatrika3. Land watered by rain
    D. Devamatrika4. Desert land

    (a) 2, 1, 4, 3
    (b) 3, 4, 1, 2
    (c) 3, 1, 4, 2
    (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

    Answer
    (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

    Qns 17 : Who accepts only perception?

    (a) Jaina
    (b) Charvaka
    (c) Buddha
    (d) Samkhya

    Answer
    (b) Charvaka

    Qns 18 : There was different causes for the downfall of the Gupta Empire. Which one was not the cause among the statements given below?

    (a) Huna invasion
    (b) Feudal set-up of administration
    (c) Acceptance of Buddhism by the later Guptas
    (d) Arab invasion

    Answer
    (d) Arab invasion

    Qns 19 : Which one of the following inscriptions mentions Pulakeshin-II military success against Harshavardhana?

    (a) Allahabad Pillar Inscription
    (b) Aihole Inscription
    (c) Damodarpur Copper-Plate Inscription
    (d) Bilsad Inscription

    Answer
    (b) Aihole Inscription

    Qns 20 : Which of the following is not the work of Harsha?

    (a) Ratnavali
    (b) Nagananda
    (c) Harshacharit
    (d) Priyadarshika

    Answer
    (c) Harshacharit

    Qns 21 : In whose reign-period the Chinese traveller Hiuen-Tsang visited India?

    (a) Chandragupta-II
    (b) Harsha
    (c) Chandragupta Maurya
    (d) Chandragupta-I

    Answer
    (b) Harsha

    Qns 22 : During Hiuen-Tsang tour in India most famous city for the production of cotton clothes was

    (a) Varanasi
    (b) Mathura
    (c) Pataliputra
    (d) Kanchi

    Answer
    (b) Mathura

    Qns 23 : The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang), who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    I. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
    II. As regards punishment for offences ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
    III. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    (a) Only I
    (b) Only II
    (c) II and III
    (d) All of these

    Answer
    (c) II and III

    Qns 24 : Which of the following was the most powerful ruler of Maitraka dynasty?

    (a) Dhruvsen-I
    (b) Dhruvsen-II
    (c) Vigrahapal
    (d) Yashodharman

    Answer
    (b) Dhruvsen-II

    Qns 25 : Generally, which one of the following, had the first right over ‘stridhan’, in case of succession?

    (a) Husband
    (b) Son
    (c) Daughters
    (d) Daughter-in-law

    Answer
    (c) Daughters

    Qns 26 : During post Gupta period, main business centre was

    (a) Kannauj
    (b) Ujjain
    (c) Dhar
    (d) Devgiri

    Answer
    (a) Kannauj

    Qns 27 : Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?

    (a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates.
    (b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts.
    (c) A bill of exchange
    (d) An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates.

    Answer
    (c) A bill of exchange

    Qns 28 : Human sacrifice was prevalent in which of the following sect?

    (a) Pasupat
    (b) Kapalik
    (c) Aghori
    (d) Lingayat

    Answer
    (b) Kapalik

    Qns 29 : The rulers of which of the following dynasty have been called as ‘Shriparvatiya’ in Puranas?

    (a) Vakatakas
    (b) Ikshvakus
    (c) Shakas
    (d) Kharavelas

    Answer
    (b) Ikshvakus

    Qns 30 : The coins of which of the following reveal their love for music?

    (a) Mauryas
    (b) Nandas
    (c) Guptas
    (d) Cholas

    Answer
    (c) Guptas

    Thanks for attempt online practice set of Gupta Empire MCQ for the preparation of upcoming Competitive exams.

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