Every year on March 20, we celebrate World Sparrow Day to raise awareness about the alarming decline of sparrows due to urbanization, pollution, and habitat loss. Sparrows play a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance by controlling insect populations, aiding in pollination, and dispersing seeds.
Founded in 2010 by the conservation group Nature Forever, World Sparrow Day is now recognized in over 50 countries, highlighting the urgent need for action. In India, where sparrows are lovingly known as Goraiya (Hindi), Kuruvi (Tamil), and Chirya (Urdu), their population has declined drastically.
🚨 Why Are Sparrows Disappearing?
Loss of Nesting Spaces: Modern infrastructure lacks the small nooks and crevices sparrows prefer.
Toxic Compounds: Unleaded petrol and pesticides reduce insect populations, the primary food source for sparrows.
Urban Expansion: Green spaces are shrinking, leaving little room for sparrows to thrive.
🌿 How Can We Help?
Plant native greenery to attract insects and provide food for sparrows.
Reduce the use of chemical pesticides.
Install nesting boxes in your garden or balcony.
Provide a small water source like a birdbath.
💡 Inspiring Conservation Efforts
The Koodugal Trust in Chennai has installed over 10,000 nests since 2020, significantly increasing sparrow populations.
In Mysuru, the Early Bird Campaign educates children through birdwatching trips and community events.
Delhi declared the house sparrow its state bird in 2012, symbolizing its commitment to conservation.
Indian Polity and Constitution GK MCQ questions answers in English for Competitive exams. Important MCQs on Political Science from previous year exam papers of SSC, UPSC examinations.
Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs
Q.1:Which of the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution? (A) B.R. Ambedkar (B) Alladi Krishnaswamy (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Gopalachari Ayyngar
Answer
Answer: (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.2:Constitutional monarchy means: (A) The king writes the constitution (B) The king interprets the constitution (C) The king exercises powers granted by the constitution (D) The king is elected by the people
Answer
Answer: (C) The king exercises powers granted by the constitution
Q.3:When was the first Central Legislative Assembly formed? (A) 1922 (B) 1923 (C) 1921 (D) 1920
Answer
Answer: (D) 1920
Q.4:The Constitution of India describes India as: (A) A federation (B) Semi-federal (C) Unitary (D) Union of States
Answer
Answer: (D) Union of States
Q.5: The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ is a characteristic of the constitutional system of: (A) Britain (B) USA (C) France (D) Switzerland
Answer
Answer: (A) Britain
Q.6:The method of amending the constitution through a popular veto is found in: (A) Britain (B) Switzerland (C) Russia (D) India
Answer
Answer: (B) Switzerland
Q.7:Which of the following is an essential feature of the parliamentary system of government? (A) Flexibility of the constitution (B) Fusion of executive and legislature (C) Judicial supremacy (D) Parliamentary sovereignty
Answer
Answer: (B) Fusion of executive and legislature
Q.8:Grassroots democracy relates to: (A) Devolution of powers (B) Decentralization of powers (C) Panchayati Raj system (D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: (D) All of the above
Q.9:The objective of democratic socialism is to: (A) Bring socialism through peaceful means (B) Bring socialism through both violent and peaceful means (C) Bring socialism through violent means (D) Bring socialism through democratic means
Answer
Answer: (D) Bring socialism through democratic means
Q.10:Which judge declared that ‘secularism’ and ‘federalism’ are basic features of the Indian Constitution? (A) Keshavananda Bharati case (B) S.R. Bommai case (C) Indira Sawhney case (D) Minerva Mills case
Answer
Answer: (B) S.R. Bommai case
Q.11:Universal adult suffrage reflects that India is a country that is: (A) Secular (B) Socialist (C) Democratic (D) Sovereign
Answer
Answer: (C) Democratic
Q.12:The Constitution of India came into force in: (A) 1951 (B) 1956 (C) 1950 (D) 1949
Answer
Answer: (C) 1950
Q.13:The Government of India Act, 1935, was based on: (A) Simon Commission (B) Lord Curzon Commission (C) Dimitrov Thesis (D) Lord Clive’s Report
Answer
Answer: (A) Simon Commission
Q.14:Who called the Government of India Act, 1935, the new charter of bondage? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Rajendra Prasad (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (D) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer
Answer: (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.15:Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution? (A) President of India (B) Chief Justice of India (C) Prime Minister of India (D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Answer
Answer: (B) Chief Justice of India
Q.16: Which of the following is an essential element of the state? (A) Sovereignty (B) Government (C) Territory (D) All of these
Answer
(D) All of these
Q.17:Which is the most important system in a democracy? (A) Social (B) Political (C) Economic (D) Governmental
Answer
(B) Political
Q.18: Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution? (A) Preamble (B) Part III (C) Part IV (D) Part I
Answer
(A) Preamble
Q.19:The phrase ‘equality before law’ in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from: (A) U.S.A. (B) Germany (C) Britain (D) Greece
Answer
(C) Britain
Q.20:The thinking and ideals of the Constitution makers are reflected in: (A) Preamble (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Fundamental Rights (D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer
(A) Preamble
Q.21: Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution? (A) Parliamentary form of government (B) Independence of judiciary (C) Presidential form of government (D) Federal government
Answer
(C) Presidential form of government
Q.22:What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution? (A) Right to Equality (B) Right against Exploitation (C) Right to Constitutional Remedies (D) Right to Religious Freedom
Answer
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Q.23:The concept of single citizenship in India is adopted from: (A) England (B) U.S.A. (C) Canada (D) France
Answer
(A) England
Q.24: The method of impeachment of the President of India is adopted from: (A) U.S.A. (B) U.K. (C) U.S.S.R. (D) France
Answer
(A) U.S.A.
Q.25: What was the basis for the formation of the Constituent Assembly of India? A) Mountbatten Plan B) Cabinet Mission Plan C) Indian National Congress D) Simla Agreement
Answer
B) Cabinet Mission Plan
Q.26: Which of the following can be called a ‘secular’ state? (A) A state that follows a particular religion (B) A state that is anti-religion (C) A state that does not discriminate between religions (D) A state that accepts all religions as the state religion
Answer
Answer: (C) A state that does not discriminate between religions
Q.27: Initially, how many Fundamental Rights were provided? (A) Six (B) Seven (C) Four (D) Five
Answer
Answer: (B) Seven
Q.28: Which type of equality is not in line with the ideals of a liberal state? (A) Legal equality (B) Political equality (C) Social equality (D) Economic equality
Answer
Answer: (D) Economic equality
Q.29: What does political freedom mean? (A) People’s control over the government (B) Free political activities of the people (C) Cooperation between politics and democracy (D) Voters can form and dismiss their government
Answer
Answer: (B) Free political activities of the people
Q.30: Which of the following is included in the list of fundamental duties of Indian citizens in the Constitution? (A) Practicing secularism (B) Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform (C) Regularly and correctly paying all taxes to the government (D) Not attacking any public servant while performing their duties
Answer
Answer: (B) Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform
Q.31: When were Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution? (A) 1975 (B) 1976 (C) 1977 (D) 1979
Answer
Answer: (B) 1976
Q.32: The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country’s constitution? (A) USA (B) UK (C) USSR (D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (A) USA
Q.33: Which of the following is a political right? (A) Right to work (B) Right to education (C) Right to freedom of expression (D) Right to vote
Answer
Answer: (D) Right to vote
Q.34: The provisions of citizenship in the Indian Constitution came into force in: (A) 1950 (B) 1949 (C) 1951 (D) 1952
Answer
Answer: (A) 1950
Q.35: What does social justice mean? (A) Everyone should have equal economic rights. (B) Everyone should have equal political rights. (C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated. (D) Everyone should be given the right to religious freedom.
Answer
Answer: (C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated.
Q.36: The right to vote falls under which category? (A) Human rights (B) Civil rights (C) Natural rights (D) Political rights
Answer
Answer: (D) Political rights
Q.37: Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of our Constitution? (A) Justice (B) Fraternity (C) Equality of status (D) Adult suffrage
Answer
Answer: (D) Adult suffrage
Q.38: At what age can Indian citizens vote? (A) 18 years (B) 21 years (C) 22 years (D) 25 years
Answer
Answer: (A) 18 years
Q.39: According to the Preamble, ultimate power lies in the hands of: (A) Parliament (B) Constitution (C) President (D) People
Answer
Answer: (D) People
Q.40: Dual citizenship is a key feature of which type of government? (A) Parliamentary (B) Federal (C) Unitary (D) Authoritarian
Answer
Answer: (B) Federal
Q.41: ‘Dual citizenship’ is a feature of: (A) Unitary government (B) Federal government (C) Parliamentary government (D) Presidential government
Answer
Answer: (B) Federal government
Q.42: Which case is related to Fundamental Rights? (A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967) (B) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963) (C) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959) (D) State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)
Answer
Answer: (A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
Q.43: According to the Indian Constitution, the right to property is a: (A) Fundamental right (B) Natural right (C) Legal right (D) Moral right
Answer
Answer: (C) Legal right
Q.44: The success of democracy depends on: (A) Right to criticize (B) Right of association (C) Right to personal liberty (D) Right to property
Answer
Answer: (C) Right to personal liberty
Q.45: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the constitution of: (A) Britain (B) Ireland (C) USA (D) Canada
Answer
Answer: (B) Ireland
Q.46: How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution? (A) 1 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 8
Answer
Answer: (C) 12
Q.47: The Directive Principles of State Policy were adopted from: (A) British Constitution (B) Swiss Constitution (C) American Constitution (D) Irish Constitution
Answer
Answer: (D) Irish Constitution
Q.48: When were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens included in the Constitution? (A) 1952 (B) 1976 (C) 1979 (D) 1981
Answer
Answer: (B) 1976
Q.49: The Directive Principles included in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the constitution of: (A) Australia (B) Ireland (C) USA (D) Canada
Answer
Answer: (B) Ireland
Q.50: During whose rule was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights? (A) Indira Gandhi government (B) Morarji Desai government (C) Narasimha Rao government (D) Vajpayee government
World Geography GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for Competitive Exams. Important questions selected from previous year exam questions papers of SSC, UPSC and other examinations.
World Geography MCQ
Q.1: Which of the following countries has the longest underground tunnel? (A) Germany (B) Switzerland (C) Spain (D) France
Answer
(B) Switzerland
Q.2: Which of the following holds over 50% of the world’s coal reserves? (A) USA, Russia, and China (B) China, India, and Russia (C) India, Russia, and the USA (D) China, India, and the USA
Answer
(A) USA, Russia, and China
Q.3: The Panama Canal was constructed in (A) 1869 AD (B) 1980 AD (C) 1905 AD (D) 1914 AD
Answer
(D) 1914 AD
Q.4: Which is the hottest place on Earth? (A) Death Valley-California (B) El Azizia-Libya (C) Jacobabad-Pakistan (D) Atacama-Peru
Answer
(B) El Azizia-Libya
Q.5: What was the name of the cyclone that caused devastation in Bangladesh? (A) Shary (B) Sidr (C) Wendy (D) Erin
Answer
(B) Sidr
Q.6: What is the longest mountain range on Earth? (A) Andes Mountains (B) Mid-Atlantic Ridge (C) Western Cordillera (D) Himalayan Range
Answer
(A) Andes Mountains
Q.7: The Sunda Trench is located in: (A) Indian Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Gulf of Mexico
Answer
(A) Indian Ocean
Q.8: Which of the following is an abiotic factor? (A) Mites (B) Humidity (C) Insects (D) Rodents
Answer
(B) Humidity
Q.9: The lake created by the Aswan Dam in Africa is: (A) Chad (B) Victoria (C) Nasser (D) Tanganyika
Answer
(C) Nasser
Q.10: The temperate grasslands of North America are called (A) Pampas (B) Downs (C) Steppes (D) Prairies
Answer
(D) Prairies
Q.11: The Panama Canal differs from the Suez Canal as it has: (A) A lock system (B) A shorter route (C) A busier route (D) A less busy route
Answer
(A) A lock system
Q.12: Llanos grasslands are found in: (A) Guiana Highlands (B) Brazilian Highlands (C) Argentina (D) Chile
Answer
(D) Chile
Q.13: Approximately what percentage of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest? (A) 2 percent (B) 7 percent (C) 10 percent (D) 15 percent
Answer
(B) 7 percent
Q.14: Which continent is located in both the Northern-Southern and Eastern-Western hemispheres? (A) Australia (B) Africa (C) Europe (D) South America
Answer
(B) Africa
Q.15: The Sahara is located in which part of Africa? (A) Eastern (B) Western (C) Northern (D) Southern
Answer
(C) Northern
Q.16: The longest river in the world is: (A) Ganges (B) Nile (C) Brahmaputra (D) Amazon
Answer
(B) Nile
Q.17: Which city is the capital of the desert country Mali? (A) Damascus (B) Bamako (C) Adrar (D) Ankara
Answer
(B) Bamako
Q.18: Peshawar is near: (A) Karakoram Pass (B) Zoji La Pass (C) Namika-La Pass (D) Khyber Pass
Q.20: ‘Yosemite’ is: (A) A river (B) A peak (C) A waterfall (D) A dam
Answer
(C) A waterfall
Q.21: Which strait separates Australia and Tasmania? (A) Bass (B) Bab-el-Mandeb (C) Palk (D) Bering
Answer
Answer: (A) Bass
Q.22: The world’s largest coral reef is found off the coast of: (A) Brazil (B) Australia (C) Sri Lanka (D) Cuba
Answer
Answer: (B) Australia
Q.23: The longest river in Europe is: (A) Rhine (B) Rhone (C) Danube (D) Volga
Answer
Answer: (D) Volga
Q.24: Asia and North America are separated by: (A) Bass Strait (B) Dover Strait (C) Bering Strait (D) Cook Strait
Answer
Answer: (C) Bering Strait
Q.25: The Grand Canyon is located on which river? (A) Colorado (B) Columbia (C) Ohio (D) Mississippi
Answer
Answer: (A) Colorado
Q.26: On September 23, when day and night are of equal length worldwide, it is called: (A) Autumnal Equinox (B) Celestial Equinox (C) Winter Equinox (D) Spring Equinox
Answer
Answer: (A) Autumnal Equinox
Q.27: The region famous for various types of wine and champagne is: (A) Eastern Europe (B) Western Europe (C) Mediterranean (D) Grasslands
Answer
Answer: (C) Mediterranean
Q.28: The river with the largest water flow in the world is: (A) Huang-Ho (B) Amazon (C) Zaire (D) Nile
Answer
Answer: (B) Amazon
Q.29: The world’s largest delta is: (A) Sundarbans (B) Amazon Basin (C) Greenland (D) Congo Basin
Answer
Answer: (A) Sundarbans
Q.30: The canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is: (A) Suez (B) Malacca (C) Panama (D) Gibraltar
Answer
Answer: (C) Panama
Q.31: The strait connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea is: (A) Panama Strait (B) Suez Strait (C) Palk Strait (D) Bering Strait
Answer
Answer: (B) Suez Strait
Q.32: The temperate grasslands of South America are called: (A) Prairies (B) Pampas (C) Downs (D) Steppes
Answer
Answer: (B) Pampas
Q.33: Volcanic activity is most common in: (A) Hawaii (B) Japan (C) Columbia (D) New Zealand
Answer
Answer: (A) Hawaii
Q.34: The world’s largest freshwater lake is: (A) Lake Victoria (B) Lake Michigan (C) Lake Balkhash (D) Lake Superior
Answer
Answer: (D) Lake Superior
Q.35: Which of the following volcanoes is located in Mexico? (A) Colima (B) Purace (C) Semeru (D) Etna
Answer
Answer: (A) Colima
Q.36: In July 2007, the highest peak of Halmahera Island, Mount Gamkonora Volcano, erupted in which country? (A) Japan (B) Indonesia (C) Russia (D) France
Answer
Answer: (A) Japan
Q.37: The Black Forest is found in: (A) France (B) Germany (C) Czechoslovakia (D) Romania
Answer
Answer: (B) Germany
Q.38: Greenland, the world’s largest island, is an integral part of: (A) Norway (B) North America (C) Denmark (D) Canada
Answer
Answer: (C) Denmark
Q.39: Kangaroos, platypuses, and koala bears are wildlife native to: (A) Australia (B) South America (C) Europe (D) Africa
Answer
Answer: (A) Australia
Q.40: Which of the following regions has no rainfall at any time of the year? (A) Central Europe (B) Central North America (C) Polar region (D) Sub-Saharan region
Answer
Answer: (C) Polar region
Q.41: The world’s tallest gravity dam is: (A) Beas Dam (B) Nangal Dam (C) Bhakra Dam (D) Hirakud Dam
Answer
Answer: (C) Bhakra Dam
Q.42: “The climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic herders.” This statement is true for which region? (A) African Savannah (B) Central Asian Steppes (C) Siberian Tundra (D) North American Prairies
Answer
Answer: (B) Central Asian Steppes
Q.43: The world’s largest desert is: (A) Arabian (B) Kalahari (C) Sahara (D) Thar
Answer
Answer: (C) Sahara
Q.44: Which two countries are connected by an underwater tunnel? (A) England and Spain (B) Malaysia and Singapore (C) England and Belgium (D) France and England
Answer
Answer: (D) France and England
Q.45: The world’s largest archipelago country is: (A) Philippines (B) Indonesia (C) Sweden (D) Greenland
Answer
Answer: (B) Indonesia
Q.46: Which of the following is a landlocked sea? (A) Timor Sea (B) Arafura Sea (C) Greenland Sea (D) Aral Sea
Answer
Answer: (D) Aral Sea
Q.47: Where is the Normandy beach located? (A) France (B) Netherlands (C) Spain (D) Belgium
Answer
Answer: (A) France
Q.48: ‘Dykes’ are specifically constructed in: (A) Norway (B) Holland (C) France (D) United Kingdom
Answer
Answer: (B) Holland
Q.49: Colorado in America is famous for this landform _______________ (A) Grand Canyon (B) Grand Craters (C) Great Valleys (D) Great Basin
Answer
Answer: (B) Grand Craters
Q.50: The largest island in the world is: (A) New Guinea (B) Madagascar (C) Greenland (D) Iceland
Physics (General Physics science) GK MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs selected from the previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.
Physics GK MCQ Questions in English
Q.1: If the velocity of a moving object increases by 1.5 times, its kinetic energy will: A) Increase by 1.5 times. B) Increase by 3 times. C) Increase by 2.25 times. D) Increase by 6 times.
Answer
Answer: C) Increase by 2.25 times K = 1/2 mv² K ∝ v² When velocity increases by 1.5 times, the kinetic energy will increase by (1.5)² = 2.25 times.
Q.2: Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquakes? A) Richter Scale B) Metric Scale C) Centigrade Scale D) Newton Scale
Answer
Answer: A) Richter Scale
Q.3: When a bottle of scent is opened in a corner of a room, its fragrance spreads to all parts of the room due to? A) Evaporation B) Absorption C) Diffusion D) Sublimation
Answer
Answer: C) Diffusion
Q.4: When a ray of light passes from one medium to another, its? A) Wavelength remains constant B) Frequency remains constant C) Frequency increases D) None of these
Answer
Answer: B) Frequency remains constant
Q.5: The unit of resistance is? A) Ampere B) Coulomb C) Henry D) Ohm
Answer
Answer: D) Ohm
Q.6: What is the unit of a light-year? A) Intensity of light B) Time C) Distance D) Speed of light
Answer
Answer: C) Distance
Q.7: Who invented the telescope? A) Galileo B) Gutenberg C) Edison D) Graham Bell
Answer
Answer: A) Galileo
Q.8: What type of mirror is used by a dentist to examine a patient’s teeth? A) Concave B) Convex C) Plane D) Cylindrical
Answer
Answer: A) Concave
Q.9: Which of the following is not a unit of heat? A) Calorie B) Kilocalorie C) Kilojoule D) Watt
Answer
Answer: D) Watt
Q.10: What is used to correct farsightedness? A) Concave lens B) Convex lens C) Convex mirror D) Concave mirror
Answer
Answer: B) Convex lens
Q.11: Which instrument is used to measure the humidity of the air? A) Hygrometer B) Hydrometer C) Manometer D) Odometer
Answer
Answer: B) Hydrometer
Q.12: Why is red color used as an emergency or danger signal? A) It is an attractive color B) It has the longest wavelength C) It is scattered D) It has the highest energy
Answer
Answer: B It has the longest wavelength
Q.13: What is the velocity of the fastest object? A) Speed of sound B) Speed of light C) Speed of an electron D) Speed of an atom
Answer
Answer: B Speed of light Explanation: The speed of light is the highest speed, which is 3 × 10^8 meters per second in a vacuum.
Q.14: What is the unit of speed? A) Newton B) Watt C) Meter/second D) Joule
Answer
Answer: C Meter/second Explanation: The unit of speed is meter per second (m/s).
Q.15: What is the standard unit of volume? A) Kilogram B) Second C) Liter D) Meter
Answer
Answer: C Liter Explanation: The standard unit of volume is liter (L).
Q.16: What is the difference between displacement and distance? A) Displacement is always greater than distance B) Displacement is a scalar quantity, while distance is a vector quantity C) Displacement is a vector, while distance is a scalar D) Both are the same
Answer
Answer: C Displacement is a vector, while distance is a scalar Explanation: Displacement is a vector quantity as it includes direction, while distance is just a magnitude.
Q.17: Who gave the laws of motion? A) Newton B) Galileo C) Einstein D) Darwin
Answer
Answer: A Newton Explanation: Newton formulated the three laws of motion.
Q.18: What is Newton’s third law of motion? A) An object will maintain its state unless acted upon by an external force B) The direction and magnitude of force are always the same C) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction D) The magnitude of force is proportional to the mass of an object
Answer
Answer: C For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction Explanation: Newton’s third law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Q.19: What form of energy is converted in solar panels? A) Mechanical energy B) Kinetic energy C) Electrical energy D) Thermal energy
Answer
Answer: C Electrical energy Explanation: Solar panels convert the energy from the sun into electrical energy.
Q.20: What does the speed of sound depend on? A) Air pressure B) Air temperature C) Air humidity D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: D All of the above Explanation: The speed of sound depends on air pressure, temperature, and humidity.
Q.21: What causes gravitational force? A) Mass B) Friction C) Reflection D) Motion
Answer
Answer: (A) Mass Explanation: Gravitational force arises due to mass.
Q. 22: What is thermal energy related to? A) Temperature B) Motion C) Velocity D) Force
Answer
Answer: (A) Temperature Explanation: Thermal energy is related to temperature, which is associated with the motion of the molecules of a substance.
Q.23: What is the unit of electric current? A) Watt B) Ohm C) Ampere D) Volt
Answer
Answer: (C) Ampere Explanation: The unit of electric current is Ampere (A).
Q.24: How is electrical resistance calculated? A) Ohm’s Law B) Newton’s Law C) Galileo’s Law D) Hooke’s Law
Answer
Answer: (A) Ohm’s Law Explanation: Electrical resistance is calculated using Ohm’s Law.
Q.25: In which state is the speed of sound the greatest? A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: (A) Solid Explanation: The speed of sound is greatest in solids because the molecules are closely packed and transmit vibrations faster.
Q.26: What is the unit of magnetic force? A) Newton B) Kilogram C) Tesla D) Watt
Answer
Answer: (C) Tesla Explanation: The unit of magnetic force is Tesla (T).
Q.27: What travels at the same speed as light? A) Electron B) Proton C) Neutron D) Photon
Answer
Answer: (D) Photon Explanation: The speed of a photon is equal to the speed of light, which is 3 × 10^8 meters per second.
Q.28: Who gave the principle of induction? A) Michael Faraday B) James Clerk Maxwell C) Luigi Galvani D) Albert Einstein
Answer
Answer: (A) Michael Faraday Explanation: The principle of induction was given by Michael Faraday.
Q.29: What is the unit of energy conversion? A) Joule B) Watt C) Volt D) Meter
Answer
Answer: (A) Joule Explanation: The unit of energy or work conversion is Joule (J).
Q.30: What does ‘molecular motion’ refer to in physics? A) Overall motion of particles B) Intrinsic motion of molecules C) Mechanical motion of an object D) Motion of force
Answer
Answer: (B) Intrinsic motion of molecules Explanation: ‘Molecular motion’ refers to the intrinsic motion of molecules, which depends on temperature.
Q.31: What is the difference between speed and velocity? A) Speed is only magnitude, while velocity has direction. B) Speed and velocity are the same. C) Velocity is only magnitude, while speed has direction. D) Speed has direction, while velocity is only magnitude.
Answer
Answer: A) Speed is only magnitude, while velocity has direction. Explanation: Speed is a scalar quantity that only has magnitude, whereas velocity is a vector quantity that includes direction.
Q.32: What is the unit for measuring mass? A) Kilogram B) Meter C) Joule D) Watt
Answer
Answer: A) Kilogram Explanation: The unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
Q.33: What is the unit of speed? A) Meter/second B) Kilogram/meter C) Newton D) Watt
Answer
Answer: A) Meter/second Explanation: The unit of speed is meter per second (m/s).
Q.34: What is the unit of frequency for sound waves? A) Hertz B) Newton C) Watt D) Joule
Answer
Answer: A) Hertz Explanation: The unit of frequency for sound waves is Hertz (Hz).
Q.35: Which property of light is responsible for polarization? A) Wave nature B) Particle nature C) Motion D) Sound
Answer
Answer: A) Wave nature Explanation: Light can be polarized due to its wave nature.
Q.36: In which state of matter is the speed of sound the greatest? A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: A) Solid Explanation: The speed of sound is greatest in solids because the molecules are closely packed.
Q.37: What is the definition of gravitational force? A) The attractive force between two objects B) The repulsive force between two objects C) The sustainability of an object D) The motion of an object
Answer
Answer: A) The attractive force between two objects Explanation: Gravitational force is the attractive force between two objects.
Q.38: How many laws are there in thermodynamics? A) Three B) Four C) Two D) Five
Answer
Answer: B) Four Explanation: There are four main laws in thermodynamics.
Q.39: What is the formula for electric current? A) Voltage/Resistance B) Voltage × Resistance C) Voltage/Current D) Resistance × Current
Answer
Answer: A) Voltage/Resistance Explanation: Electric current (I) = Voltage (V) / Resistance (R).
Q.40: In which field is resonance used? A) Radio B) Chemistry C) Biology D) Mathematics
Answer
Answer: A) Radio Explanation: Resonance is used in radio and other communication devices.
Q. 41: What is the property of vibration known as? A) Frequency B) Voltage C) Resistance D) Temperature
Answer
Answer: A) Frequency Explanation: The qualitative measure of vibrations is frequency.
Q.42: What is the fundamental principle of the table theory? A) The relationship between the frequency of a wave and its speed B) The relationship between force and motion of an object C) The relationship between electric current and resistance D) The relationship between the speed of sound and temperature
Answer
Answer: A) The relationship between the frequency of a wave and its speed Explanation: Table theory shows the relationship between the frequency and speed of a wave.
Q.43: What are the two main types of mechanical energy? A) Kinetic and Potential B) Thermal and Electrical C) Sound and Light D) Mass and Force
Answer
Answer: A) Kinetic and Potential Explanation: Mechanical energy is primarily kinetic (motion) and potential (position).
Q.44: What is the formula for electrical power? A) Voltage × Current B) Current × Resistance C) Voltage / Current D) Voltage / Resistance
Answer
Answer: A) Voltage × Current Explanation: Electrical Power (P) = Voltage (V) × Current (I)
Q.45: Traditionally, what type of waves are sound waves? A) Three-dimensional B) Two-dimensional C) One-dimensional D) All
Answer
Answer: C) One-dimensional Explanation: Traditional sound waves are one-dimensional, meaning they propagate in one direction.
Q.46: What is the mathematical formula for displacement? A) Final position – Initial position B) Final position + Initial position C) Distance × Time D) Time / Distance
Answer
Answer: A) Final position – Initial position Explanation: Displacement is the difference between the final and initial position.
Q.47: Which type of energy is lost during the cooling process? A) Mechanical energy B) Thermal energy C) Electrical energy D) Chemical energy
Answer
Answer: B) Thermal energy Explanation: In the cooling process, thermal energy is lost.
Q.48: What determines the direction of displacement? A) Direction of motion B) Direction of force C) Initial and final position D) All
Answer
Answer: C) Initial and final position Explanation: The direction of displacement depends on the initial and final position.
Q.49: Which law of thermodynamics states the principle of energy conservation? A) First law B) Second law C) Third law D) Fourth law
Answer
Answer: A) First law Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics is the law of energy conservation, which states that energy cannot be created or destroyed.
Question 50: Who proposed the theory of emission? A) Herschel B) Planck C) Henry D) Newton
Answer
Answer: B) Planck Explanation: The theory of emission was proposed by Planck.
Q.51: What happens when force is applied in the direction of motion? A) Speed increases B) Speed decreases C) Speed remains constant D) No effect
Answer
Answer: A) Speed increases Explanation: Applying force in the direction of motion increases the speed of the object.
Q.52: What is the definition of electrical resistance? A) The ability to resist current B) The ability to conduct current C) Voltage capacity D) Energy capacity
Answer
Answer: A) The ability to resist current Explanation: Electrical resistance measures the ability to resist current.
Q.53: At what frequency do sound waves have the most energy? A) High frequency B) Low frequency C) Medium frequency D) All the same
Answer
Answer: A) High frequency Explanation: Sound waves have the most energy at high frequencies.
Q.54: Which law of Newton is used to calculate motion? A) First law B) Second law C) Third law D) All
Answer
Answer: B) Second law Explanation: Newton’s second law is used to calculate motion.
Q.55: Which law describes the relationship between mass and force? A) Newton’s first law B) Newton’s second law C) Newton’s third law D) Newton’s fourth law
Answer
Answer: B) Newton’s second law Explanation: Newton’s second law describes the relationship between mass and force.
Q.56: What is involved in the maximum displacement of an object? A) Work B) Force C) Energy D) Speed
Answer
Answer: C) Energy Explanation: The maximum displacement of an object involves energy.
Q.57: What does the speed of sound not depend on? A) Type of medium B) Temperature C) Frequency of sound D) Amplitude of sound
Answer
Answer: D) Amplitude of sound Explanation: The speed of sound does not depend on the amplitude of sound, but it depends on the type of medium and temperature.
Q.58: What is the Table Theory related to? A) Properties of waves B) Properties of sound C) Properties of electricity D) Properties of light
Answer
Answer: A) Properties of waves Explanation: The Table Theory is related to the properties and behavior of waves.
Q.59: What type of laws are the laws of motion? A) Static B) Diffraction C) Mechanical D) Electrical
Answer
Answer: C) Mechanical Explanation: The laws of motion are mechanical.
Q.60: What is the unit of sound intensity? A) Decibel B) Hertz C) Watt D) Joule
Answer
Answer: A) Decibel Explanation: The unit of sound intensity is Decibel (dB).
Q.61: What type of energy is electricity? A) Thermal B) Mechanical C) Chemical D) Electrical
Answer
Answer: D) Electrical Explanation: The energy of electricity is in the form of electrical energy.
Indian Economy GK MCQ Question answer for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs on Economics of India from previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.
Medium : English
Indian Economy MCQ in English
Q.1: Which Five-Year Plan’s objectives were influenced by the Gadgil Formula in India? (A) Second Five-Year Plan (B) Fourth Five-Year Plan (C) Third Five-Year Plan (D) Seventh Five-Year Plan
Answer
Answer: (B) Fourth Five-Year Plan
Q.2: When was the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) established? (A) 1934 (B) 1935 (C) 1936 (D) 1949
Answer
Answer: (B) 1935
Q.3: Name the Indian state with the highest tax revenue. (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Karnataka (D) Maharashtra
Answer
Answer: (D) Maharashtra
Q.4: Which of the following public sector banks will receive a loan from the BRICS New Development Bank? (A) Canara Bank (B) Punjab National Bank (C) ICICI (D) State Bank of India
Answer
Answer: (A) Canara Bank
Q.5: Which of the following countries recently overtook Thailand as the world’s largest rice exporter in 2015? (A) India (B) Myanmar (C) China (D) Vietnam
Answer
Answer: (A) India
Q.6: The Government of India has recently decided to integrate the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana with: (A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (B) National Rural Livelihood Mission (C) Hariyali (D) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program
Answer
Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
Q.7: The PURA scheme, which envisages the provision of urban amenities in rural areas, was first advocated by: (A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (B) Shri A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (C) Dr. Arvind Subramanian (D) Prof. Dinshaw Mistry
Answer
Answer: (B) Shri A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Q.8: National income can be calculated by all of the following methods except: (A) Sum of all expenditures (B) Sum of all outputs (C) Sum of all savings (D) Sum of all incomes
Answer
Answer: (C) Sum of all savings
Q.9: In a national context, which of the following indicates a macroeconomic perspective? (A) Inflation in India (B) Sales of Bata Shoe Company (C) Mango exports to the UK (D) Income from Railways
Answer
Answer: (C) Mango exports to the UK
Q.10: State Bank of India was previously known by this name: (A) Imperial Bank of India (B) Canara Bank (C) Syndicate Bank (D) Indian Cooperative Bank
Answer
Answer: (A) Imperial Bank of India
Q.11: Whose signature appears on a one-rupee note? (A) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (B) Finance Minister (C) Secretary, Ministry of Finance (D) None of the above
Answer
Answer: (C) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
Q.12: The full form of NABARD is: (A) National Business for Accounting and Review (B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural (C) National Bank for Aeronautics and Radar Development (D) National Bureau for Air and Road Transport
Answer
Answer: (B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Q.13: When was the Reserve Bank of India nationalized? (A) 1949 (B) 1951 (C) 1947 (D) 1935
Answer
Answer: (A) 1949
Q.14: Which of the following indicates a microeconomic perspective in national terms? (A) Per capita income in India (B) Study of TISCO’s sales (C) Inflation in India (D) Educated unemployment in India
Answer
Answer: (B) Study of TISCO’s sales
Q.15: How does agriculture promote industrial development in India? (A) By opening markets for industrial products (B) By providing food and clothing to workers (C) By supplying raw materials (D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: (D) All of the above
Q.16: The Industrial Development Bank of India was established in: (A) July 1968 (B) July 1966 (C) July 1964 (D) July 1962
Answer
Answer: (C) July 1964
Q.17: The slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was included in: (A) Second Plan (B) First Plan (C) Fifth Plan (D) Fourth Plan
Answer
Answer: (C) Fifth Plan
Q.18: Which bank is limited to the needs of agricultural and rural finance? (A) RBI (B) SBI (C) IFC (D) NABARD
Answer
Answer: (D) NABARD
Q.19: The Indian economy is a/an: (A) Free economy (B) Mixed economy (C) Capitalist economy (D) Communist economy
Answer
Answer: (B) Mixed economy
Q.20: The P. Rama Rao Committee is related to: (A) Taxation (B) Defense (C) Industry (D) Agriculture
Answer
Answer: (B) Defense
Q.21: The lender of last resort is: (A) SBI (B) IDBI (C) NABARD (D) RBI
Answer
Answer: (D) RBI
Q.22: The period of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan is: (A) January 1, 2012 to December 31, 2017 (B) April 1, 2011 to March 31, 2016 (C) January 1, 2011 to December 31, 2016 (D) April 1, 2012 to March 31, 2017
Answer
Answer: (D) April 1, 2012 to March 31, 2017
Q.23: In which year was the Imperial Bank established? (A) 1930 (B) 1935 (C) 1955 (D) 1921
Answer
Answer: (D) 1921
Q.24: Which Five-Year Plan had a duration of only four years? (A) Third (B) Fourth (C) Fifth (D) Seventh
Answer
Answer: (C) Fifth
Q.25: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for food grains was introduced in which year? (A) 1944 (B) 1964 (C) 1974 (D) 1954
Answer
Answer: (C) 1974
Q.26: In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all nationalized commercial banks is determined by: (A) Finance Minister of India (B) Central Finance Commission (C) Indian Banks’ Association (D) Reserve Bank of India
Answer
Answer: (D) Reserve Bank of India
Q.27: Which of the following provides long-term loans to private industries in India? (A) Food Corporation of India (B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (C) Primary Credit Society (D) Land Development Bank
Answer
Answer: (D) Land Development Bank
Q.28: “Agriculture should serve as a means of income, livelihood, and opportunities for local communities” – This statement was made by: (A) Dr. Madhavan Nair (B) Dr. Manmohan Singh (C) Dr. Abdul Kalam (D) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
Answer
Answer: (D) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
Q.29: Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs was the focus of the Brundtland Commission. It is called: (A) Sustainable Development (B) Mitigation (C) Disaster Management (D) Capacity Building
Answer
Answer: (A) Sustainable Development
Q.30: SEBI was established in: (A) 1992 (B) 1980 (C) 1984 (D) 1988
Answer
Answer: (D) 1988
Q.31: India exports electricity to: (A) Bangladesh (B) Myanmar (C) Pakistan (D) Bhutan
Answer
Answer: (A) Bangladesh
Q.32: The largest single item of current government expenditure in India is: (A) Defense expenditure (B) Interest payment on loans (C) Subsidy payment (D) Investment in social overheads
Answer
Answer: (B) Interest payment on loans
Q.33: The ‘More Mega Store’ retail chain is related to which Indian industry? (A) Reliance Industries (B) Bharti Enterprises (C) Aditya Birla Group (D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (C) Aditya Birla Group
Q.34: Which spice tops in value as an export commodity of India? (A) Black Pepper (B) Chili (C) Turmeric (D) Cardamom
Answer
Answer: (B) Chili
Q.35: In which year was the nationalization of fourteen major banks in India? (A) 1967 (B) 1968 (C) 1969 (D) 1971
Answer
Answer: (C) 1969
Q.36: One rupee notes are issued by: (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) President of India (D) Government of India
Answer
Answer: (D) Government of India
Q.37: India adopted the decimal currency system in: (A) 1955 (B) 1956 (C) 1957 (D) 1958
Answer
Answer: (C) 1957
Q.38: The number of nationalized banks in India is: (A) 14 (B) 21 (C) 20 (D) 22
Answer
Answer: (C) 20
Q.39: Maruti cars are mainly based on: (A) Japanese technology (B) Korean technology (C) Russian technology (D) German technology
Answer
Answer: (A) Japanese technology
Q.40: Which measure has not been undertaken by the government to curb inflation? (A) Increase in consumption (B) Increase in production (C) Reduction in deficit financing (D) Taxation measures
Answer
Answer: (A) Increase in consumption
Q.41: In the Indian economy, the ‘slack season’ refers to: (A) March-April (B) September-December (C) January-June (D) February-April
Answer
Answer: (C) January-June
Q.42: Which of the following is not a qualitative credit control by a country’s central bank? (A) Rationing of credit (B) Regulation of consumer credit (C) Variation in margin requirements (D) Regulation of margin requirements
Answer
Answer: (C) Variation in margin requirements
Q.43: The market where funds can be borrowed is called: (A) Reserved market (B) Institutional market (C) Money market (D) Exchange market
Answer
Answer: (C) Money market
Q.44: If the marginal return increases at a decreasing rate, then the total return: (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) Becomes income
Answer
Answer: (B) Decreases
Q.45: According to newspaper reports, the government plans to disinvest what percentage of its stake in Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL)? (A) 5% (B) 50% (C) 10% (D) 12%
Answer
Answer: (C) 10%
Q.46: Ownership of RRB (Regional Rural Bank) is held by: (A) Central Government (B) State Government (C) Sponsor Bank (D) Jointly by all of the above
Answer
Answer: (D) Jointly by all of the above
Q.47: Which of the following methods is not used to determine the national income of a country? (A) Income method (B) Output method (C) Input method (D) Investment method
Answer
Answer: (D) Investment method
Q.48: Which scheme of the Government of India makes Indian cities slum-free? (A) Indira Awas Yojana (B) Central Rural Sanitation Program MME (C) Rajiv Awas Yojana (D) Antyodaya
Answer
Answer: (C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
Q.49: The current fiscal deficit percentage in the GDP is: (A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 1
Answer
Answer: (B) 4
Q.50: The term ‘Tragedy of the Commons’ related to the overuse of resources was propounded by: (A) Garrett Hardin (B) Seligman (C) Adolf Wagner (D) A.P. Lemierre
Books and Authors GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for preparation of Competitive exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.
Books and Authors MCQs in English
Q.1: Who is the author of the novel ‘When the River Sleeps’? (A) Easterine Kire (B) Anuradha Roy (C) Vikram Seth (D) Shobha De
Answer
Answer: (A) Easterine Kire
Q.2: Which of the following books is written by Sachin Tendulkar? (A) Playing It My Way (B) Untold Story (C) Train to Pakistan (D) India of My Dreams
Answer
Answer: (A) Playing It My Way
Q.3: The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ is related to whom? (A) William Wordsworth (B) John Keats (C) Dr. Charles Dickens (D) Dr. Jonathan Swift
Answer
Answer: (B) John Keats
Q.4: Who is the author of the book ‘Zest for Life’? (A) Emile Zola (B) H.G. Wells (C) Virginia Woolf (D) Mark Twain
Answer
Answer: (A) Emile Zola
Q.5: Who wrote the famous novel The Guide? (A) R.K. Narayan (B) Chetan Bhagat (C) Arundhati Roy (D) Satyajit Ray
Answer
Answer: (A) R.K. Narayan
Q.6: Who is the author of the book Magic Seeds? (A) Cyrus Mistry (B) V.S. Naipaul (C) Jhumpa Lahiri (D) Vikram Seth
Answer
Answer: (B) V.S. Naipaul
Q.7: Who is the author of the book Romancing with Life? (A) Kapil Dev (B) Dev Anand (C) Shashi Tharoor (D) Bill Clinton
Answer
Answer: (B) Dev Anand
Q.8: Who is the author of Indica? (A) Megasthenes (B) Fa-Hien (C) Seleucus (D) Hiuen Tsang
Answer
Answer: (A) Megasthenes
Q.9: Who wrote The Discovery of India? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer
Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.10: Who wrote the book The Kingdom of God is Within You? (A) Leo Tolstoy (B) Henry David (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) John Ruskin
Answer
Answer: (A) Leo Tolstoy
Q.11: In which year was the book ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ published? (A) 1930 (B) 1932 (C) 1934 (D) 1936
Answer
Answer: (D) 1936
Q.12: Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom from Fear’? (A) Benazir Bhutto (B) Corazon Aquino (C) Aung San Suu Kyi (D) Nayantara Sahgal
Answer
Answer: (C) Aung San Suu Kyi
Q.13: Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty-Four’? (A) J.M. Barrie (B) Walter Scott (C) George Orwell (D) Thomas Hardy
Answer
Answer: (C) George Orwell
Q.14: Who wrote ‘Mein Kampf’? (A) Hitler (B) Mussolini (C) Bismarck (D) Mazzini
Answer
Answer: (A) Hitler
Q.15: Who is the author of the book ‘The Life Divine’? (A) M.K. Gandhi (B) Rabindranath Tagore (C) S. Radhakrishnan (D) Sri Aurobindo
Answer
Answer: (D) Sri Aurobindo
Q.16: Who wrote ‘Das Kapital’? (A) Asian Drama (B) Emma (C) Das Kapital (D) The Good Earth
Answer
Answer: (C) Das Kapital
Q.17: Who wrote ‘Meghaduta’? (A) Humayun Kabir (B) Khushwant Singh (C) Banabhatta (D) Kalidasa
Answer
Answer: (D) Kalidasa
Q.18: Which of the following is a famous English author? (A) Amrita Pritam (B) Mahadevi Verma (C) Ashapoorna Devi (D) Mulk Raj Anand
Answer
Answer: (D) Mulk Raj Anand
Q.19: Who wrote ‘Indica’? (A) Kautilya (B) Megasthenes (C) Aryabhata (D) Seleucus
Answer
Answer: (B) Megasthenes
Q.20: In which author’s book is the character ‘Rusty’ found? (A) R.K. Narayan (B) Ruskin Bond (C) R.K. Laxman (D) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer
Answer: (B) Ruskin Bond
Q.21: Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’? (A) Lamarck (B) Buffon (C) Darwin (D) Linnaeus
Answer
Answer: (D) Linnaeus
Q.22: Who wrote the book ‘Narendra Modi: A Political Biography’? (A) Andy Marino (B) David Irving (C) Jeffrey Dale (D) Kingsley Amis
Answer
Answer: (A) Andy Marino
Q.23: Who is the author of ‘A Suitable Boy’? (A) Vikram Seth (B) Arundhati Roy (C) Khushwant Singh (D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (A) Vikram Seth
Q.24: Which of the following books was not written by Jawaharlal Nehru? (A) Discovery of India (B) My Experiments with Truth (C) An Autobiography (D) Glimpses of World History
Answer
Answer: (B) My Experiments with Truth
Q.25: Who wrote the book ‘The Hindus: An Alternative History’? (A) Shobhaa De (B) B.R. Ambedkar (C) Wendy Doniger (D) Salman Rushdie
Answer
Answer: (C) Wendy Doniger
Q.26: Who wrote ‘The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian’? (A) R.K. Narayan (B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri (C) R.K. Laxman (D) Rajmohan Gandhi
Answer
Answer: (B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
Q.27: Who is the author of ‘India of My Dreams’? (A) J.B. Kripalani (B) M.K. Gandhi (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer
Answer: (B) M.K. Gandhi
Q.28: Who is the author of ‘Arthashastra’? (A) Chandragupta (B) Megasthenes (C) Chanakya (D) Seleucus Nicator
Answer
Answer: (C) Chanakya
Q.29: Who wrote the book ‘Beyond the Lines: An Autobiography’? (A) Khushwant Singh (B) General J.J. Singh (C) Kuldip Nayar (D) Ray Bradbury
Answer
Answer: (C) Kuldip Nayar
Q.30: Who is the author of ‘Harsha Charitra’? (A) Banabhatta (B) Amarasimha (C) Kalidasa (D) Harisena
Answer
Answer: (A) Banabhatta
Q.31: Who wrote the book ‘Employment, Interest, and Money’? (A) J.M. Keynes (B) A. Marshall (C) D. Patinkin (D) A. Smith
Answer
Answer: (A) J.M. Keynes
Q.32: Who wrote the famous play ‘Nil Darpan’, depicting the atrocities of British indigo planters? (A) Premchand (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (C) Dinabandhu Mitra (D) Subramania Bharati
Answer
Answer: (C) Dinabandhu Mitra
Q.33: Who wrote ‘One Straw Revolution’? (A) Rachel Carson (B) M.S. Swaminathan (C) Norman Borlaug (D) Masanobu Fukuoka
Answer
Answer: (D) Masanobu Fukuoka
Q.34: Who wrote ‘Natyashastra’? (A) Bharat Muni (B) Narad Muni (C) Jandu Muni (D) Vyas Muni
Answer
Answer: (A) Bharat Muni
Q.35: Who is the author of the book ‘A Cricketing Life’?
(A) Christopher Martin Jenkins (B) Sunil Gavaskar (C) Kapil Dev (D) Tony Greig
Answer
Answer: (A) Christopher Martin Jenkins
Q.36: Which of the following works was Salman Rushdie’s first novel? (A) Shame (B) Midnight’s Children (C) The Satanic Verses (D) The Moor’s Last Sigh
Answer
Answer: (B) Midnight’s Children
Q.37: Which film directed by Satyajit Ray is based on Rabindranath Tagore’s story ‘Nastanirh’? (A) Aparajito (B) Charulata (C) Pather Panchali (D) Apur Sansar
Answer
Answer: (B) Charulata
Q.38: Which of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan? (A) Malgudi Days (B) Swami and Friends (C) The Guide (D) The Gardener
Answer
Answer: (D) The Gardener
Q.39: Which literary work was written by Krishna Devaraya? (A) Kavirajamarga (B) Ushaparinayam (C) Amuktamalyada (D) Kathasaritsagara
Answer
Answer: (C) Amuktamalyada
Q.40: Who is the author of the book ‘The State of the Nation’? (A) Mark Tully (B) Vinod Mehta (C) Kuldip Nayar (D) Fali S. Nariman
Answer
Answer: (D) Fali S. Nariman
Q.41: Who wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’? (A) Amrita Pritam (B) Rajmohan Gandhi (C) Kapil Dev (D) R.K. Karanjia
Answer
Answer: (C) Kapil Dev
Q.42: Who is the author of the famous book ‘A Better India: A Better World’? (A) Azim Premji (B) Rajiv Sikri (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy (D) Prema Mahajan
Answer
Answer: (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy
Q.43: Who wrote the book ‘The Satanic Verses’? (A) Agatha Christie (B) Gunnar Myrdal (C) Gabriela Sabatini (D) Salman Rushdie
Answer
Answer: (D) Salman Rushdie
Q.44: Which of the following books was written by Atiq Rahimi? (A) Earth and Ashes (B) This Savage Rite (C) The Red Devil (D) Witness the Night
Answer
Answer: (A) Earth and Ashes
Q.45: ‘Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India’ was recently in the news and banned in some Indian states including Gujarat. Who is the author of this book? (A) Joseph Lelyveld (B) Michael Ondaatje (C) Jack Welch (D) Duncan Green
Answer
Answer: (A) Joseph Lelyveld
Q.46: Who is the author of the book ‘The Zigzag Way’? (A) Anita Desai (B) Salman Sodhi (C) Jahnavi Barua (D) Lisa Genova
Answer
Answer: (A) Anita Desai
Q.47: Who wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence’?
Q.48: Who wrote the Sanskrit grammar? (A) Kalidasa (B) Charaka (C) Panini (D) Aryabhata
Answer
Answer: (C) Panini
Q.49: Which of the following famous books is related to Austin? (A) Lectures on Jurisprudence (B) Leviathan (C) The Social Contract (D) The Problem of Sovereignty
Answer
Answer: (A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
Q.50: Who is the author of the book ‘India Wins Freedom’? (A) Kuldip Nayar (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Indira Gandhi
Q. How long was the extended mission of NASA astronauts Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore in space?
a) 8 days b) 286 days c) 1 year d) 365 days
Show Answer
Ans: b) 286 days After an extended mission of 286 days in space, NASA astronauts Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore safely returned to Earth on March 18, 2025.
Q. Which spacecraft was used for the astronauts’ return journey to Earth?
a) Boeing Starliner b) Space Shuttle c) SpaceX Crew Dragon d) Soyuz capsule
Show Answer
Ans: c) SpaceX Crew Dragon Return Journey: The astronauts traveled aboard SpaceX’s Crew Dragon capsule, which successfully splashed down in the Gulf of Mexico off the Florida coast
Q. What was the primary purpose of the phone call between Trump and Putin on March 18, 2025?
a) To discuss economic sanctions b) To convince Moscow to agree to a 30-day ceasefire in Ukraine c) To negotiate trade agreements d) To plan a diplomatic summit in Russia
Show Answer
Answer: b) To convince Moscow to agree to a 30-day ceasefire in Ukraine On March 18, 2025, U.S. President Donald Trump and Russian President Vladimir Putin held a crucial phone call to address the ongoing Ukraine war.
Q. How will the Election Commission proceed with linking EPIC with Aadhaar ?
a) Based on personal preferences of the Chief Election Commissioner. b) As per the provisions of Article 326, Representation of the People Act, 1950, and relevant Supreme Court judgements. c) Based on the majority vote of the Election Commission members. d) Without any legal or constitutional basis.
Show Answer
Ans: b) As per the provisions of Article 326, Representation of the People Act, 1950, and relevant Supreme Court judgements.
Q. According to Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, who has the right to vote?
A) Any resident of India B) Citizens of India C) Holders of an Aadhaar card D) Persons above 16 years of age
Show Answer
Answer: B) Citizens of India
Q. What is the name of the new boxing body recognized by the IOC for LA 2028?
A) International Boxing Federation B) Global Boxing Alliance C) World Boxing D) Olympic Boxing Association
Show Answer
Answer: C) World Boxing In 2023, the International Boxing Association (IBA) was stripped of IOC recognition due to governance and financial issues, leading to the creation of World Boxing, which now has over 80 national federations.
The International Olympic Committee (IOC) executive board has recommended the inclusion of boxing in the Los Angeles 2028 Olympics, ending uncertainty over the sport’s Olympic future. The recommendation will be voted on at an IOC session in Greece this week, with approval expected.
In 2023, the International Boxing Association (IBA) was stripped of IOC recognition due to governance and financial issues, leading to the creation of World Boxing, which now has over 80 national federations. The IOC has stated that only athletes from federations affiliated with World Boxing by the start of the 2028 qualification events will be eligible to compete.
The IOC had previously run boxing at Tokyo 2021 and Paris 2024 after suspending the IBA in 2019. The Russian Olympic Committee (ROC) also remains banned due to its recognition of Russian-occupied Ukrainian regions. However, Russia may return to the Olympics if it complies with the Olympic Charter.
On March 18, 2025, the Election Commission announced major steps to enhance electoral process!
Voter ID & Aadhaar Linking: 🤝 The EC will soon begin technical consultations with UIDAI to explore linking Voter IDs with Aadhaar, ensuring a more robust and accurate voter database. This will be done in accordance with Article 326, the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and Supreme Court judgments.
Duplicate Voter IDs Resolved: 🔍 Say goodbye to duplicate voter ID issues! The EC is committed to resolving these problems within the next three months.
Empowering Political Agents: 📚 Field-level political agents (booth, polling, counting, and election agents) will receive comprehensive training to better understand their vital roles.
Shorter Polling Queues: ⏳ To reduce waiting times, future polling booths will be limited to a maximum of 1,200 electors.
On March 18, 2025, U.S. President Donald Trump and Russian President Vladimir Putin held a crucial phone call to address the ongoing Ukraine war. The discussion aimed to convince Moscow to agree to a 30-day ceasefire and explore pathways toward a permanent peace deal.
Key Highlights:
The call began at 10 a.m. ET (1400 GMT) and was described as “going well” by White House Deputy Chief of Staff Dan Scavino.
Ukraine has already agreed to the U.S.-proposed ceasefire, marking a potential turning point in Europe’s largest conflict since World War II.
Russian President Putin expressed conditional support for the truce but emphasized the need to address several key issues before halting military operations.
President Trump also hinted at a longer-term peace plan, which could involve territorial concessions by Kyiv and discussions over the Zaporizhzhia nuclear power plant.
Broader Implications:
The Kremlin highlighted a “certain understanding” between the two leaders, building on their previous phone call on February 12, 2025, and subsequent high-level contacts.
Kirill Dmitriev, Putin’s special envoy, praised the leadership of Trump and Putin, stating that their efforts have made the world a safer place.
After an extended mission of 286 days in space, NASA astronauts Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore safely returned to Earth on March 18, 2025. Their journey back marked the conclusion of an extraordinary mission aboard the International Space Station (ISS).
Key Highlights:
Mission Duration: Originally planned as an eight-day mission starting in June 2024, their stay was extended due to technical issues with the Boeing Starliner capsule.
Return Journey: The astronauts traveled aboard SpaceX’s Crew Dragon capsule, which successfully splashed down in the Gulf of Mexico off the Florida coast.
Achievements: During their extended mission, the duo conducted critical scientific experiments, performed equipment repairs, and participated in spacewalks. Sunita Williams set a record for the most career spacewalking time by a female astronaut, logging 62 hours over nine excursions.
Q. What was one of the key topics discussed during Luxon’s meeting with Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
a) Space exploration b) Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations c) Environmental conservation d) Sports partnerships
Show Answer
Answer: b) Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations From March 16 to March 20, 2025, New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon embarked on a significant five-day visit to India.
Q. Who is the US Director of National Intelligence who visited India in March 2025?
Answer: (A) Tulsi Gabbard On March 17, 2025, Defense Minister Rajnath Singh met with US Director of National Intelligence Tulsi Gabbard in New Delhi.
Q. Which prestigious award did the Reserve Bank of India win in 2025 from Central Banking, London?
a) Best Financial Inclusion Award b) Digital Transformation Award c) Global Economic Leadership Award d) Innovation in Banking Award
Show Answer
Answer: b) Digital Transformation Award The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been honored with the Digital Transformation Award 2025 by Central Banking, London, in recognition of its groundbreaking digital initiatives, Sarthi and Pravaah.
Q. Who was the chief guest at the Raisina Dialogue 2025?
a) US President Joe Biden b) UK Prime Minister Rishi Sunak c) New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon d) Japanese Prime Minister Fumio Kishida
Show Answer
Answer: c) New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon The 10th edition of the Raisina Dialogue, India’s premier conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, took place from March 17 to March 19, 2025, in New Delhi.
The 10th edition of the Raisina Dialogue, India’s premier conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, took place from March 17 to March 19, 2025, in New Delhi. Organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs, this flagship event brought together leaders, policymakers, and experts from around the world to address pressing global challenges.
Key Highlights:
Theme: The 2025 edition was centered around the theme “Kālachakra – People, Peace, and Planet”, emphasizing the interconnectedness of humanity, sustainability, and global harmony.
Inauguration: The event was inaugurated by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, with New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon as the chief guest, who delivered the keynote address.
Participation: Over 3,500 participants from 125 countries, including ministers, former heads of state, military commanders, industry leaders, academics, and youth, engaged in vibrant discussions.
Thematic Pillars: The dialogue revolved around six key areas:
Politics Interrupted: Shifting political dynamics and rising global challenges.
Resolving the Green Trilemma: Addressing environmental sustainability.
Digital Planet: Governance in the digital age.
Militant Mercantilism: Trade, supply chains, and economic resilience.
The Tiger’s Tale: Reimagining development strategies.
Investing in Peace: Leadership and institutions driving global peace.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been honored with the Digital Transformation Award 2025 by Central Banking, London, in recognition of its groundbreaking digital initiatives, Sarthi and Pravaah.
Key Highlights:
Sarthi, launched in January 2023, revolutionized RBI’s internal workflows by digitizing document sharing, enhancing data analysis, and improving record management across its vast network.
Pravaah, introduced in May 2024, streamlined external regulatory applications, offering real-time tracking and analytics for over 70 regulatory processes.
These initiatives have significantly reduced paper-based submissions, increased efficiency, and modernized RBI’s operations, making it one of the most digitally advanced central banks globally. The award reflects RBI’s commitment to innovation and its vision of a future-proof financial ecosystem.
From March 16 to March 18, 2025, US Director of National Intelligence Tulsi Gabbard visited India, marking a significant step in enhancing bilateral relations between the two nations.
Key highlights of the visit:
March 16, 2025: Gabbard arrived in New Delhi and held discussions with National Security Advisor Ajit Doval, focusing on intelligence-sharing, cybersecurity, and counter-terrorism strategies.
March 17, 2025: Gabbard met with Defence Minister Rajnath Singh to explore ways to bolster defense and security ties. Later, she had a meeting with Prime Minister Narendra Modi, where they exchanged symbolic gifts—Gangajal and a Tulsi Mala—emphasizing cultural and diplomatic goodwill.
March 18, 2025: Gabbard participated in the Raisina Dialogue, delivering a keynote address on global security challenges and the importance of India-US collaboration.
This visit underscored:
Strengthening intelligence cooperation and defense relations.
Addressing emerging threats in cybersecurity and artificial intelligence.
Enhancing the India-US strategic partnership in the Indo-Pacific region.
From March 16 to March 20, 2025, New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon embarked on a significant five-day visit to India, marking a new chapter in the bilateral relationship between the two nations.
Key highlights of the visit:
March 17, 2025: PM Luxon held wide-ranging discussions with Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi, focusing on trade, economic ties, and regional security. He also attended the inaugural session of the prestigious Raisina Dialogue as the chief guest.
March 19-20, 2025: Luxon visited Mumbai, where he engaged with business leaders and promoted trade and investment opportunities.
This visit emphasized:
Launching negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA).
Facilitating the mobility of professionals and skilled workers.
Strengthening collaboration in defense, education, and disaster resilience.
Addressing shared concerns about China’s influence in the Indo-Pacific region.
Q. Where was the cryogenic engine hot test for LVM3-M6 conducted by ISRO?
a) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Kerala b) Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Andhra Pradesh c) ISRO Propulsion Complex, Tamil Nadu d) DRDO Test Facility, Karnataka
Show Answer
Answer: c) ISRO Propulsion Complex, Tamil Nadu
Q. Who was the captain of Mumbai Indians during their second Women’s Premier League title victory in March 2025?
a) Mithali Raj b) Harmanpreet Kaur c) Smriti Mandhana d) Jemimah Rodrigues
Show Answer
Answer: b) Harmanpreet Kaur The Mumbai Indians have won their second Women’s Premier League title, they beat the Delhi Capitals by 8 runs on 16 March 2025 at the Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai.
Q. Which country is hosting the Kabaddi World Cup 2025?
a) India b) Malaysia c) England d) Australia
Show Answer
Answer: c) England The Kabaddi World Cup 2025 will begin on 17 March 2025 in England.
Q. What is the date of World Consumer Rights Day?
a) March 10 b) March 15 c) March 20 d) March 25
Show Answer
Answer: b) March 15 World Consumer Rights Day 2025 was observed on 15 March to highlight the importance of consumer rights and protection.
ISRO has successfully completed the flight acceptance hot test of the cryogenic engine for the LVM3-M6 mission at the ISRO Propulsion Complex, Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu.
The LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3) is a three-stage medium-lift launch vehicle, and each mission’s cryogenic engine undergoes hot testing before flight.
ISRO stated that an innovative test method has reduced setup time and effort, enabling faster delivery of cryogenic stages.
The CE20 engine performed as expected, meeting all test objectives. It will now be integrated into the Cryogenic Upper Stage of the LVM3-M6 mission, set for the second half of 2025.
The Mumbai Indians have won their second Women’s Premier League title! In an exciting final, they beat the Delhi Capitals by 8 runs on 16 March 2025 at the Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai.
Key highlights:
Harmanpreet Kaur led from the front with a scintillating 66 off 44 balls, anchoring Mumbai’s innings to a competitive 149/7.
Nat Sciver-Brunt showcased her all-round brilliance, contributing 30 runs and taking 3 crucial wickets.
Despite a valiant effort by Marizanne Kapp (40 off 26 balls), the Delhi Capitals fell short, finishing at 141/9.
The Kabaddi World Cup 2025 will begin on 17 March 2025 in England. The Indian Men’s team will start their campaign against Italy in Wolverhampton at 5:30 PM IST.
The tournament will last seven days, featuring over 60 matches in Birmingham, Coventry, Walsall, and Wolverhampton (West Midlands, UK).
The Men’s competition has 10 teams, divided into Group A and Group B. India is in Group B with Italy, Scotland, Wales, and China.
The Women’s competition has six teams, divided into Group D and Group E. India is in Group D with Wales and Poland.
This is the second edition of the World Kabaddi-hosted Kabaddi World Cup. In the 2019 inaugural edition (Malaysia), India won both the men’s and women’s titles.
This is also the first time the tournament is hosted outside Asia. Notably, this event is different from the IKF Kabaddi World Cup, which has always been held in India.
World Consumer Rights Day 2025 was observed on 15 March to highlight the importance of consumer rights and protection. The theme for 2025 is “A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles.”
The Government of India has implemented several measures to protect consumer rights and ensure quick grievance redressal. The Jaago Grahak Jaago campaign raises consumer awareness, and the National Consumer Helpline collaborates with over 1,000 companies for faster complaint resolution.
To tackle unfair trade practices in e-commerce, the Consumer Protection (E-commerce) Rules, 2020 outline responsibilities and liabilities for marketplace and inventory-based e-commerce platforms, ensuring proper grievance redressal mechanisms.
Important Indian Art and Culture MCQ Questions for competitive exams. General Knowledge MCQs in English for the preparation of UPSC, SSC and all Govt jobs competitive exams.
Art and Culture MCQs
Q.1: Papeti is a festival of which religion? (a) Parsi (b) Jain (c) Sikh (d) Buddhist
Answer
(a) Parsi
Q.2: Which of the following is a famous Assamese festival? (a) Makar Sankranti (b) Yugadi (c) Onam (d) Rongali Bihu
Answer
(d) Rongali Bihu
Q.3: The most popular festival in Tamil Nadu is: (a) Gudi Padwa (b) Onam (c) Bihu (d) Pongal
Answer
(d) Pongal
Q.4: Which of the following languages has been granted the status of a classical language by the Central Government? (a) Gujarati (b) Tamil (c) Marathi (d) Malayalam
Answer
(b) Tamil
Q.5: Who initiated the famous Persian festival Nowruz? (a) Alauddin Khalji (b) Iltutmish (c) Firoz Tughlaq (d) Balban
Answer
(d) Balban
Q.6: Ganesh Chaturthi is celebrated with great enthusiasm in which state? (a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Maharashtra (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer
(c) Maharashtra
Q.7: Where is the ‘Pushkar Fair’ held? (a) Jodhpur (b) Ajmer (c) Jaipur (d) Udaipur
Answer
(b) Ajmer
Q.8: What language is spoken by the people of Lakshadweep? (a) Malayalam (b) Tamil (c) Kannada (d) Telugu
Answer
(a) Malayalam
Q.9: The folk painting style ‘Madhubani’ is popular in which of the following states of India? (a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal
Answer
(a) Bihar
Q.10: The Lalit Kala Akademi is dedicated to promoting: (a) Fine Arts (b) Literature (c) Music (d) Dance and Drama
Answer
(a) Fine Arts
Q.11: Who was the painter of the famous painting ‘Bharat Mata’? (a) Gaganendranath Tagore (b) Abanindranath Tagore (c) Nandalal Bose (d) Jamini Roy
Answer
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
Q.12: The birthplace of the distinguished personality Amrita Sher-Gil is: (a) Hungary (b) India (c) Austria (d) Poland
Answer
(a) Hungary
Q.13: Raja Ravi Varma from Kerala was a distinguished: (a) Dancer (b) Painter (c) Poet (d) Singer
Answer
(b) Painter
Q.14: Jamini Roy made a name for himself in which field? (a) Badminton (b) Painting (c) Theater (d) Sculpture
Answer
(b) Painting
Q.15: Who painted the masterpiece ‘Hamsa Damayanti’? (a) Anjolie Ela Menon (b) Abanindranath Tagore (c) Amrita Sher-Gil (d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer
(d) Raja Ravi Varma
Q.16: In which field did Prodosh Dasgupta distinguish himself? (a) Sculpture (b) Painting (c) Instrumental Music (d) Hindustani Vocal Music
Answer
(a) Sculpture
Q.17: Who was the founder of the Bengal School of Art? (a) Nandalal Bose (b) B.C. Sanyal (c) Jamini Roy (d) Abanindranath Tagore
Answer
(d) Abanindranath Tagore
Q.18: Rajasthani and Pahari art styles are famous for: (a) Music (b) Dance (c) Sculpture (d) Painting
Answer
(d) Painting
Q.19: In which state is the folk painting ‘Madhubani’ popular? (a) West Bengal (b) Odisha (c) Bihar (d) Assam
Answer
(c) Bihar
Q.20: During which period did the Gandhara art develop? (a) Gupta (b) Maurya (c) Satavahana (d) Kushan
Answer
(d) Kushan
Q.21: What do the paintings of Ajanta depict? (a) Ramayana (b) Mahabharata (c) Jataka (d) Panchatantra
Answer
Answer (c) Jataka
Q.22: Where did the miniature painting of Indian heritage develop? (a) Guler (b) Mewar (c) Bundi (d) Kishangarh
Answer
Answer (d) Kishangarh
Q.23: In which field did Jamini Roy earn fame? (a) Sculpture (b) Music (c) Painting (d) Drama
Answer
Answer (c) Painting
Q.24: Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh, was a citizen of which country? (a) Netherlands (b) Portugal (c) UK (d) France
Answer
Answer (d) France
Q.25: Who among the following is famous in the field of painting? (a) Parveen Sultana (b) Prof. T.N. Krishnan (c) Ramkinkar (d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer
Answer (d) Raja Ravi Varma
Q.26: Who among the following is famous in the field of sculpture? (a) Manjit Bawa (b) Saroja Vaidyanathan (c) Ramkinkar (d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer
Answer (c) Ramkinkar
Q.27: Who among the following is a renowned painter? (a) Amrita Sher-Gil (b) N Rajam (c) Kamla Dasgupta (d) U Srinivas
Answer
Answer (a) Amrita Sher-Gil
Q.28: Which of the following Sikh heritage sites is not in India? (a) Nanded (b) Kesgarh Sahib (c) Paonta Sahib (d) Nankana Sahib
Answer
Answer (d) Nankana Sahib
Q.29: The oldest form of Hindustani classical music composition is: (a) Dhrupad (b) Thumri (c) Ghazal (d) None of the above
Answer
Answer (a) Dhrupad
Q.30: Raga Kameshwari was composed by: (a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan (b) None of the above (c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) Uday Shankar
Answer
Answer (c) Pandit Ravi Shankar
Q.31: The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is: (a) Kuchipudi (b) Odissi (c) Bharatanatyam (d) Kathakali
Answer
Answer (a) Kuchipudi
Q.32: Who directed the film based on the bandit queen Phoolan Devi? (a) Abbas-Mustan (b) Shashi Kapoor (c) Shekhar Kapur (d) Anil Kapoor
Answer
Answer (c) Shekhar Kapur
Q.33: Which of the following is a folk dance of India? (a) Mohiniyattam (b) Kathakali (c) Manipuri (d) Garba
Answer
Answer (d) Garba
Q.34: What was the first Indian talkie film? (a) Kisan Kanya (b) Raja Harishchandra (c) Bharat Mata (d) Alam Ara
Answer
Answer (d) Alam Ara
Q.35: Hariprasad Chaurasia is a renowned player of: (a) Shehnai (b) Tabla (c) Sarod (d) Flute
Answer
Answer (d) Flute
Q.36: The Kathakali dance form is associated with which state? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Manipur (d) Kerala
Answer
Answer (d) Kerala
Q.37: The religious text of the Jewish people is: (a) Analects (b) Torah (c) Tripitaka (d) Zend-Avesta
Answer
Answer (b) Torah
Q.38: Shiv Kumar Sharma is famous for playing which instrument? (a) Santoor (b) Sitar (c) Sarod (d) Flute
Answer
Answer (a) Santoor
Q.39: The great Indian maestro Ustad Bismillah Khan is associated with: (a) Shehnai (b) Tabla (c) Sarod (d) Flute
Answer
Answer (a) Shehnai
Q.40: What is the name of the famous folk theatre of the Bhils? (a) Gawarl (b) Swang (c) Tamasha (d) Rammat
Answer
Answer (a) Gawarl
Q.41: Sanjukta Panigrahi was famous for which dance? (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kathak (c) Manipuri (d) Odissi
Answer
Answer: (a) Bharatanatyam
Q.42: Kathakali classical dance originated from: (a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
Answer
Answer: (c) Kerala
Q.43: ‘Bhangra’ is a dance form of: (a) Haryana (b) Rajasthan (c) Delhi (d) Punjab
Answer
Answer: (d) Punjab
Q.44: ‘Dandiya’ is a popular dance of: (a) Gujarat (b) Assam (c) Jharkhand (d) Maharashtra
Answer
Answer: (a) Gujarat
Q.45: ‘Sattriya Dance’ was recognized as a classical dance of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi only in 2000. It originated from: (a) Assam (b) Karnataka (c) Gujarat (d) Tripura
Answer
Answer: (a) Assam
Q.46: In which of the following films did Pran act as a character artist instead of a villain? (a) Ram Aur Shyam (b) Zanjeer (c) Madhumati (d) Himalay Ki God Mein
Answer
Answer: (b) Zanjeer
Q.47: Which of the following films was not directed by Satyajit Ray?
Q: Which mission was launched in March 2025 to bring back stranded astronauts Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore?
A) Artemis II B) Crew-9 C) Crew-10 D) Starliner Rescue
Show Answer
Answer: C) Crew-10 SpaceX and NASA have launched the Crew-10 mission to bring back US astronauts Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore, who have been stranded on the International Space Station (ISS) for nine months.
Q: Holi is celebrated to mark the victory of:
a) Winter over summer b) Evil over good c) Good over evil d) Darkness over light
Show Answer
Ans: c) Good over evil The festival of colors, Holi, was celebrated with immense enthusiasm across India on 14 March 2025.
Q. What does SpaDEx stand for?
A) Space Deployment Experiment B) Space Docking Experiment C) Satellite Docking Exploration D) Space Dynamic Experiment
Show Answer
Answer: B) Space Docking Experiment The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully completes the undocking experiment under the Space Docking Experiment (SpaDEx) mission.
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully completes the undocking experiment under the Space Docking Experiment (SpaDEx) mission. This marks a significant milestone in developing autonomous docking and undocking technologies, essential for future space stations, deep-space missions, and satellite servicing.
Key Highlights of SpaDEx Mission:
✅ Satellites Involved:SDX-01 (Chaser) & SDX-02 (Target) ✅ Undocking Date:March 13, 2025 ✅ Orbit Altitude:460 km with 45° inclination ✅ Successful power transfer between satellites before undocking – a crucial step for long-term space operations
This accomplishment places India alongside global space leaders like the United States, Russia, and China, proving ISRO’s technical excellence in orbital docking and separation.
Future Missions Boosted by SpaDEx
Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh congratulated ISRO, emphasizing that this achievement will pave the way for major upcoming missions, including: 🚀 Bharatiya Antriksh Station (India’s future space station) 🌕 Chandrayaan-4 (Next lunar mission) 👨🚀 Gaganyaan (India’s first human spaceflight program)
The festival of colors, Holi, was celebrated with immense enthusiasm across India on 14 March 2025. Streets were filled with vibrant hues, people danced to festive beats, and traditional sweets added to the joy of the occasion.
🌸 Highlights from Across India:
🔹 Uttar Pradesh: From Braj Mandal to Ayodhya Dham, Holi was celebrated with grandeur. CM Yogi Adityanath, while flagging off the Bhagwan Nrisinh Vishwa Yatra in Gorakhpur, emphasized that festivals should symbolize harmony, peace, and equality.
🔹 Unity in Diversity: People from all communities—Hindus, Muslims, and Sikhs—joined the celebrations, applying colors, dancing together, and sharing sweets, showcasing India’s cultural harmony.
🔹 Security Forces Join the Festivities: The Army, BSF, and CRPF personnel celebrated Holi even at forward locations, adding warmth and joy to the occasion.
SpaceX and NASA have launched the Crew-10 mission to bring back US astronauts Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore, who have been stranded on the International Space Station (ISS) for nine months.
This mission not only aims to rescue Williams and Wilmore but also delivers four new astronauts to the ISS: ✅ Anne McClain & Nichole Ayers (NASA) ✅ Takuya Onishi (JAXA – Japan) ✅ Kirill Peskov (Roscosmos – Russia)
Why Were Williams & Wilmore Stranded?
🛰️ They arrived at the ISS in June 2024 aboard Boeing’s Starliner capsule, which was meant to be a short test flight. ⚠️ However, helium leaks & thruster failures led to months of investigation, delaying their return.
NASA & Boeing’s Efforts
After extensive analysis, NASA and Boeing, along with SpaceX, devised a solution to safely return the astronauts. The Crew-10 mission is a significant step in ensuring the success of future space operations.
History of Modern India MCQ questions for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from the previous year exam question paper of SSC, UPSSSC and other govt jobs examinations.
Modern Indian History MCQs
European Companies
Q.1 What is the name of the fort built by the British in Calcutta? a) Fort St. David b) Fort St. Andrew c) Fort William d) Fort Victoria
Answer
Answer: c) Fort William
Q.2 Which was the first trading center established by the British? a) Calcutta b) Surat c) Madras d) Bombay
Answer
Answer: b) Surat
Q.3 Which of the following is not a French settlement in India? a) Pondicherry b) Mahe c) Goa d) Chandernagore
Answer
Answer: c) Goa
Q.4 In 1651, where did the Mughal rulers allow the East India Company to trade and build a factory in Bengal? a) Calcutta b) Kasim Bazar c) Singur d) Bardhaman
Answer
Answer: b) Kasim Bazar
Q.5 Who introduced the cultivation of potatoes in India? a) The British b) The Dutch c) The Portuguese d) The French
Answer
Answer: c) The Portuguese
Q.6 Which of the following was the main headquarters of the Portuguese in India? a) Cochin b) Goa c) Calicut d) Kannur
Answer
Answer: b) Goa
Q.7 When was the French East India Company founded? a) 1600 AD b) 1620 AD c) 1664 AD d) 1604 AD
Answer
Answer: c) 1664 AD
Q.8 Which European nation was the first to establish and influence trade in India? a) British b) French c) Dutch d) Portuguese
Answer
Answer: d) Portuguese
Q.9 Who discovered the sea route to India via the Cape of Good Hope? a) Vasco da Gama b) Amundsen c) Christopher Columbus d) John Cabot
Answer
Answer: a) Vasco da Gama
Q.10 Who was the greatest Portuguese governor who laid the real foundation of Portuguese power in India? a) Almeida b) Francis Drake c) Albuquerque d) Vasco da Gama
Answer
Answer: c) Albuquerque
Regional State
Q.11 Which of the following treaties did Tipu Sultan sign with the British to end the Third Anglo-Mysore War? a) Treaty of Mangalore b) Treaty of Srirangapatnam c) Treaty of Mysore d) Treaty of Bidnur
Answer
b) Treaty of Srirangapatnam
Q.12 Who founded the ‘Khalsa’? a) Guru Gobind Singh b) Guru Ramdas c) Guru Nanak d) Arjun Dev
Answer
a) Guru Gobind Singh
Q.13 The Baisakhi festival of 1999 holds special historical significance for Punjab because – a) It marks the 300th anniversary of the founding of the Khalsa b) It is the last festival of the 20th century c) A large number of non-resident Indians are participating d) None of the above
Answer
a) It marks the 300th anniversary of the founding of the Khalsa
Q.14 Who initiated the military sect of Sikhs known as ‘Khalsa’? a) Har Rai b) Har Kishan c) Gobind Singh d) Tegh Bahadur
Answer
c) Gobind Singh
Q.15 Where was Guru Nanak born? a) Gurdaspur b) Amritsar c) Lahore d) Talwandi
Answer
d) Talwandi
Q.16 Lahore was Ranjit Singh’s political capital. Which city was known as his religious capital? a) Amritsar b) Anandpur Sahib c) Gujranwala d) Peshawar
Answer
a) Amritsar
Q.17 Which Governor-General greeted Ranjit Singh with great honor at Ropar? a) Minto I b) William Bentinck c) Hastings d) Auckland
Answer
b) William Bentinck
Q.18 Which Mughal emperor among the following overthrew the Sayyid Brothers? a) Bahadur Shah I b) Rafi-ud-Daulah c) Shah Jahan II d) Muhammad Shah
Answer
d) Muhammad Shah
Q.19 In which of the following battles did Nadir Shah defeat Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah? a) Delhi b) Karnal c) Panipat d) Kanpur
Answer
b) Karnal
Q.20 Which Governor fought against Tipu Sultan in the Third Mysore War? a) Lord Wellesley b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord Cornwallis d) Lord Wellington
Answer
c) Lord Cornwallis
Q.21 In which year did the British annex Punjab? a) 1828 b) 1831 c) 1849 d) 1856
Answer
c) 1849
Q.22 Who among the following was the Portuguese who captured Goa? a) Francisco de Almeida b) Afonso de Albuquerque c) Vasco da Gama d) Roberto de Nobili
Answer
b) Afonso de Albuquerque
Q.23 Which of the following countries was Indonesia a colony of? a) Dutch b) Spain c) Portugal d) Belgium
Answer
a) Dutch
Q.24 In which of the following battles did the British completely defeat the French? a) Battle of Wandiwash b) Battle of Buxar c) Battle of Plassey d) Battle of Adyar
Answer
a) Battle of Wandiwash
Cultural and Social Reform Movements
Q.25 Arya Samaj is against which of the following? a) The existence of God b) Religious rituals and idol worship c) Hinduism d) Islam
Answer
Answer: b) Religious rituals and idol worship
Q.26 Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission? a) Vivekananda b) Ramakrishna c) M.G. Ranade d) Keshavchandra Sen
Answer
Answer: a) Vivekananda
Q.27 Who was the first to propose the concept of Basic Education? a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer
Answer: c) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.28 Who founded the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh? a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah b) Muhammad Ali c) Shaukat Ali d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Answer
Answer: d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Q.29 Who is called the ‘Prophet of New India’? a) Dayanand Saraswati b) Sri Ramakrishna c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Swami Vivekananda
Answer
Answer: c) Raja Rammohan Roy
Q.30 Who among the following was a pioneer in social reform movements in 19th century India? a) Aurobindo Ghosh b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Devendranath Tagore d) Keshavchandra Sen
Answer
Answer: b) Raja Rammohan Roy
Q.31 Who was the founder of ‘Prarthana Samaj’? a) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa b) Swami Vivekananda c) Atmaram Pandurang d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer
Answer: c) Atmaram Pandurang
Q.32 Whose main efforts led to the abolition of the Sati practice? a) British Viceroy b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Religious preachers d) Maharshi Karve
Answer
Answer: b) Raja Rammohan Roy
Q.33 Raja Rammohan Roy organized a historic movement against which of the following? a) Caste system b) The evil practice of Sati c) The degrading status of women in society d) Following unnecessary religious rituals
Answer
Answer: b) The evil practice of Sati
Q.34 Why did Gandhi oppose the Communal Award, and what was the reason behind it? a) Communal bias b) It would create differences within Hindu society c) Economic deterioration of India d) Destruction of handicrafts
Answer
Answer: b) It would create differences within Hindu society
Q.35 Which among the following was the first commission to focus on primary and secondary education in India? a) Macaulay Commission b) Charles Commission c) Hunter Commission d) Bentinck Commission
Answer
Answer: b) Charles Commission
Q.36 ‘Sarvodaya’ means: a) Complete revolution b) Non-cooperation c) Upliftment of all d) Non-violence
Answer
Answer: c) Upliftment of all
Q.37 Who was the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal (established in 1784)? a) Warren Hastings b) Sir William Jones c) Sir James Mackintosh d) James Prinsep
Answer
Answer: b) Sir William Jones
Q.38 The 19th-century Indian Renaissance was limited to which of the following classes? a) Royal class b) Upper middle class c) Wealthy farmers d) Urban landlords (landowners)
Answer
Answer: b) Upper middle class
Q.39 The Indian Universities Act of 1904 was passed under the dominion of which Viceroy? a) Lord Lytton b) Lord Curzon c) Lord Ripon d) Lord Hardinge-I
Answer
Answer: b) Lord Curzon
Nicknames, Statements, and Books
Q.40 Who composed Gandhiji’s favorite song “Vaishnav Jan To…”? a) Narsi Mehta b) Premanand c) Chunilal d) Dharmik Lal
Answer
Answer: a) Narsi Mehta
Q.41 Who is the author of the book “The Indian War of Independence”? a) Krishna Varma b) Madal Kamma c) B.G. Tilak d) V.D. Savarkar
Answer
Answer: d) V.D. Savarkar
Q.42 Who developed the idea that “means justify the ends”? a) Kautilya b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer
Answer: d) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.43 Who is referred to as the ‘Nightingale of India’? a) Vijayalakshmi Pandit b) Sarojini Naidu c) Aruna Asaf Ali d) Sucheta Kriplani
Answer
Answer: b) Sarojini Naidu
Q.44 Who is known as the ‘Bismarck of India’? a) Vallabhbhai Patel b) Subhas Chandra Bose c) Bhagat Singh d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer
Answer: a) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.45 Who first estimated the national income of India? a) Mahalanobis b) Dadabhai Naoroji c) V.K.R.V. Rao d) Sardar Patel
Answer
Answer: b) Dadabhai Naoroji
Q.46 Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons? a) Lord Sinha b) S.N. Tagore c) W.C. Banerjee d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer
Answer: d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Q.47 Who propounded the theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ from India to Britain? a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale b) Dadabhai Naoroji c) Surendranath Banerjee d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer
Answer: b) Dadabhai Naoroji
Q.48 Gandhi is considered as – a) Philosophical Anarchist b) Original Anarchist c) Marxist d) Fabian
Answer
Answer: a) Philosophical Anarchist
Q.49 Who is the author of the book ‘Anandmath’? a) Rabindranath Tagore b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay c) Sarojini Naidu d) Sri Aurobindo
Answer
Answer: b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Q.50 Who referred to Mahatma Gandhi as the “Half-naked Fakir”? a) Winston Churchill b) Lord Mountbatten c) Lord Wavell d) Lord Linlithgow
Answer
Answer: a) Winston Churchill
Q.51 During which movement did Gandhi give the slogan “Do or Die” to the nation? a) Rowlatt Satyagraha b) Salt Satyagraha c) Quit India Movement d) Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer
Answer: c) Quit India Movement
Q.52 Who gave the famous slogan “Do or Die”? a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Vallabhbhai Patel c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer
Answer: a) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.53 Who called for a return to the Vedas? a) Swami Vivekananda b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati c) Aurobindo Ghosh d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer
Answer: b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Q.54 Who was the first European to translate the Bhagavad Gita into English? a) Sir Alexander Cunningham b) William Jones c) Charles Wilkins d) James Prinsep
Answer
Answer: c) Charles Wilkins
Q.55 Who compiled the holy book of the Sikhs, the ‘Adi Granth’? a) Guru Tegh Bahadur b) Guru Nanak c) Guru Arjun Dev d) Guru Angad
Answer
Answer: c) Guru Arjun Dev
Q.56 What was the main goal of Jyotiba Phule’s ‘Satyashodhak Samaj’ in the last century? a) To protect lower castes from the exploitative Brahmins and their opportunistic religious texts b) To attack the caste system c) To lead the anti-landlord and anti-moneylender rebellion in Satara d) To demand separate representation for untouchables
Answer
Answer: a) To protect lower castes from exploitative Brahmins
Q.57 After the Urdu weekly ‘Al-Hilal’ started by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad in 1912 was banned by the government, when did he establish ‘Al-Balagh’? a) In 1913 b) In 1914 c) In 1915 d) In 1916
Answer
Answer: a) In 1913
Q.58 Who is associated with the title ‘Deshbandhu’? a) B.R. Ambedkar b) C.R. Das c) V.C. Pal d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer
Answer: b) C.R. Das
Q.59 Whose famous statement is “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it”? a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Bhagat Singh c) Lokmanya Tilak d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer
Answer: c) Lokmanya Tilak
Q.60 Who was the editor of ‘Young India’ and ‘Harijan’? a) Nehru b) Ambedkar c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer
Answer: c) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.61 Who composed the famous national song ‘Vande Mataram’? a) Rabindranath Tagore b) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay d) Surendranath Bandopadhyay
Answer
Answer: c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Q.62 Who is associated with the title “Frontier Gandhi”? a) Mohandas K. Gandhi b) Abdul Wali Khan c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer
Answer: c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Q.63 Who is famously known as the “Lady with the Lamp”? a) Sarojini Naidu b) Florence Nightingale c) Indira Gandhi d) Mayawati
Answer
Answer: b) Florence Nightingale
Q.64 Who wrote the patriotic song “Sare Jahan Se Achha”? a) Mohammad Iqbal b) Bahadur Shah Zafar c) Amir Khusro d) Mirza Ghalib
Answer
Answer: a) Mohammad Iqbal
Q.65 Which of the following works is not associated with Mahatma Gandhi? a) My Experiments with Truth b) Harijan c) The Holy Family d) Hind Swaraj
Answer
Answer: c) The Holy Family
Q.66 What was the name of the first newspaper published in India? a) The Calcutta Chronicle b) The Calcutta Gazette c) The Oriental Magazine of Calcutta d) The Bengal Gazette
Answer
Answer: d) The Bengal Gazette
Q.67 Who said, “Give me blood, and I will give you freedom”? a) Subhas Chandra Bose b) Lala Lajpat Rai c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer
Answer: a) Subhas Chandra Bose
Q.68 Match the following:
(A) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
1. Mahatma
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
2. Frontier Gandhi
(C) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
3. Grand Old Man of India
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
4. Gurudev
a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Answer
b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Q.69 Under what name was the song ‘Jana Gana Mana,’ written by Rabindranath Tagore, first published in January 1912? a) Rashtra Jagriti b) Tatva Bodhini c) Bharat Bhagya Vidhata d) None of the above
Answer
Answer: c) Bharat Bhagya Vidhata
Revolutionary Activities: History of Modern India MCQ
Q.70 Which of the following revolutionaries was sentenced to death by the British? a) Jatin Das b) Chandrashekhar Azad c) Rajguru d) Kalpana Dutt
Answer
Answer:c) Rajguru
Q.71 Who was the author of the play ‘Neel Darpan,’ which depicted the revolt of indigo farmers? a) Dinabandhu Mitra b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee c) Rabindranath Tagore d) Nabin Chandra Sen
Answer
Answer:a) Dinabandhu Mitra
Q.72 Which of the following novels became a source of inspiration for Indian freedom fighters? a) Pariksha Guru b) Anandamath c) Rangbhoomi d) Padmarag
Answer
Answer: b) Anandamath
Q.73 Who was the leader of the armed attack on the Chittagong government armory in 1930? a) Chandrashekhar Azad b) Bhagat Singh c) Surya Sen d) Sukhdev
Answer
Answer: c) Surya Sen
Q.74 Which of the following British personalities acknowledged that the revolt of 1857 was a national uprising? a) Lord Dalhousie b) Lord Canning c) Lord Ellenborough d) Disraeli
Answer
Answer: d) Disraeli
Q.75 Where is ‘India House’ located? a) New Delhi b) Kolkata c) London d) New York
Answer
Answer: c) London
Q.76 Against whom was the Lahore Conspiracy Case registered? a) V.D. Savarkar b) Bhagat Singh c) Chandrashekhar Azad d) Aurobindo Ghosh
Answer
Answer: b) Bhagat Singh
Q.77 Who was a prominent leader of the Ghadar Party? a) P. Mitra b) Lala Har Dayal c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak d) Bipin Chandra Pal
Answer
Answer: b) Lala Har Dayal
Q.78 Har Dayal, a great intellectual, was associated with: a) Home Rule Movement b) Ghadar Movement c) Swadeshi Movement d) Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer
Answer: b) Ghadar Movement
Q.79 Who founded the Indian National Party in Berlin in 1914? a) Subhash Chandra Bose b) W.C. Bonnerjee c) Surendranath Banerjee d) Champakaraman Pillai
Answer
Answer: d) Champakaraman Pillai
Q.80 In which region was Birsa Munda’s movement against the British taking place? a) Punjab b) Chota Nagpur c) Terai d) Manipur
Answer
Answer: b) Chota Nagpur
1857 Revolution
Q.81 Who among the following leaders was the first to sacrifice his life in 1857? a) Kunwar Singh b) Tatya Tope c) Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi d) Mangal Pandey
Answer
d) Mangal Pandey
Q.82 When did the British government start directly ruling India? a) After the Battle of Plassey b) After the Battle of Panipat c) After the Mysore Wars d) After the Sepoy Mutiny
Answer
d) After the Sepoy Mutiny
Q.83 The administrative outcome of the 1857 rebellion was the transfer of power from: a) East India Company to the British Crown b) British Crown to the East India Company c) East India Company to the Governor-General d) British Crown to the Board of Directors
Answer
a) East India Company to the British Crown
Q.84 Who was the Governor-General of India during the 1857 rebellion? a) Lord Dalhousie b) Lord Canning c) Lord Mayo d) Lord Ripon
Answer
b) Lord Canning
Q.85 Arrange the following places where the 1857 rebellion took place in the correct order: 1)Jhansi 2)Meerut 3)Delhi 4)Barrackpore a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 4, 3 c) 2, 3, 4, 1 d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer
d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Q.86 Who among the following advocated reconciliation between the British and Muslims while analyzing the causes of the 1857 revolt? a) Syed Ahmad Barelvi b) Shah Waliullah c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan d) Syed Amir Ali
Answer
c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
Q.87 Who led the 1857 rebellion in Lucknow? a) Kunwar Singh b) Tatya Tope c) Rani Lakshmibai d) Hazrat Mahal
Answer
d) Hazrat Mahal
Q.88 Where was the royal court held on 1st November 1858 to issue the Queen’s Proclamation? a) Lucknow b) Kanpur c) Delhi d) Allahabad
Answer
d) Allahabad
Q.89 What was Nana Sahib’s second name? a) Ramchandra Panduranga b) Dhondu Pant c) Tatya Tope d) Kunwar Singh
Answer
b) Dhondu Pant
Q.90 Which of the following events inspired the British monarch to take control of Indian administration? a) Battle of Plassey b) Battle of Buxar c) Violent War d) Sepoy Mutiny
Answer
d) Sepoy Mutiny
Governor General
Q.91 Who attended the Imperial Durbar of 1877 wearing hand-spun Khadi clothes? a) M.K. Gandhi b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak c) Bipin Chandra Pal d) G.V. Joshi
Answer
d) G.V. Joshi
Q.92 Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal? a) Clive b) Hastings c) Wellesley d) Cornwallis
Answer
d) Cornwallis
Q.93 Who introduced the ‘Ryotwari System’ in the then Madras Presidency during British rule? a) Macartney b) Elphinstone c) Thomas Munro d) John Lawrence
Answer
c) Thomas Munro
Q.94 Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal? a) Lord Clive b) Warren Hastings c) Lord John Shore d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer
b) Warren Hastings
Q.95 Why did the British introduce railways in India? a) To promote heavy industries in India b) To facilitate British commerce and administrative control c) To transport food grains during famines d) So that Indians could travel freely within the country
Answer
b) To facilitate British commerce and administrative control
Q.96 In which year was the first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra opened? a) 1852 b) 1853 c) 1854 d) 1855
Answer
b) 1853
Q.97 Which Indian state was not annexed by the “Doctrine of Lapse”? a) Satara b) Nagpur c) Jhansi d) Punjab
Answer
d) Punjab
Q.98 Who was the first Indian selected for the Indian Civil Service? a) Satyendranath Tagore b) Sarojini Naidu c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) C.R. Das
Answer
a) Satyendranath Tagore
Q.99 Which Governor introduced civil services in India for the first time? a) Lord Cornwallis b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord Wellesley d) Lord Hastings
Answer
a) Lord Cornwallis
Q.100 Match the following:
(A) Lord Clive
1. Subsidiary Alliance
(B) Lord Wellesley
2. Indian Universities Act
(C) Lord Dalhousie
3. Doctrine of Lapse
(D) Lord Curzon
4. Dual Government in Bengal
A B C D a) 2 3 4 1 b) 4 1 3 2 c) 4 3 2 1 d) 1 4 2 3
Answer
b) 4 1 3 2
Q.101 Who was the first Viceroy of India? a) Lord Cornwallis b) Pitt c) Lord Canning d) Robert Clive
”Answer”
Q.102 Who implemented the “Doctrine of Lapse”? a) Lord Canning b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord Hastings d) Lord Ripon
[su_spoiler class=”my-custom-spoiler” su_spoiler title=”Answer” style=”fancy”Answer: b) Lord Dalhousie
Q.103 Who was the last Viceroy of India? a) Lord Linlithgow b) Lord Mountbatten c) Lord Wavell d) Clement Attlee
Answer
Answer: b) Lord Mountbatten
Q.104 Who was the first Governor-General of independent India? a) Lord Attlee b) Lord Mountbatten c) C. Rajagopalachari d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer
Answer: b) Lord Mountbatten
Q.105 Who was the first Governor-General of independent India? a) C. Rajagopalachari b) S. Radhakrishnan c) Lord Mountbatten d) Lord Wavell
Answer
Answer: c) Lord Mountbatten
Q.106 During which Governor-General’s tenure was the Indian National Congress formed? a) Lord Ripon b) William Bentinck c) Lord Dufferin d) Lord Curzon
Answer
Answer: c) Lord Dufferin
Q.107 Which of the following can be considered Lord Curzon’s most useful and important reform, especially concerning the people of undivided Punjab province? a) Educational reforms b) Police reforms c) Industrial reforms d) Agricultural reforms
Answer
Answer: d) Agricultural reforms
Q.108 Which British Viceroy is associated with the partition of Bengal? a) Lord Canning b) Lord Curzon c) Lord Hardinge d) Lord Wellesley
Answer
Answer: b) Lord Curzon
Q.109 During Lord Curzon’s viceroyalty, which of the following events did not occur? a) Partition of Bengal b) Establishment of the Archaeological Department c) Second Delhi Durbar d) Formation of the Indian National Congress
Answer
Answer: d) Formation of the Indian National Congress
Q.110 Who is referred to as the “Father of Local Self-Government” in India? a) Lord Ripon b) Lord Hardinge c) Lord Dalhousie d) Lord Lytton
Answer
Answer: a) Lord Ripon
Constitutional Development
Q.111 Under the ‘Pitt’s India Act,’ which of the following was established? a) Foreigners’ Court b) Board of Control c) Board of Revenue d) Permanent Council
Answer
Answer: b) Board of Control
Q.112 Which Charter Act ended the East India Company’s trade monopoly with China? a) Charter Act, 1793 b) Charter Act, 1813 c) Charter Act, 1833 d) Charter Act, 1853
Answer
Answer: c) Charter Act, 1833
Q.113 In India, who introduced the system of communal electorates? a) Indian Councils Act of 1892 b) Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909 c) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer
Answer: b) Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909
Q.114 The popular name of the Indian Councils Act of 1909 is: a) Parliament Act b) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms c) Minto-Morley Reforms d) Judiciary Act
Answer
Answer: c) Minto-Morley Reforms
Q.115 Which Act’s important feature was provincial autonomy? a) 1935 b) 1919 c) 1909 d) 1858
Answer
Answer: a) 1935
Q.116 Who introduced the concept of ‘Dyarchy’ in the 1919 Act? a) Montagu b) Tej Bahadur Sapru c) Lionel Curtis d) Chelmsford
Answer
Answer: a) Montagu
Q.117 Who inaugurated the Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal) in 1921? a) Lord Curzon b) Lord Wellesley c) Duke of Connaught d) Duke of Wellington
Answer
Answer: c) Duke of Connaught
Q.118 During whose tenure was the Rowlatt Act of 1919 implemented? a) Lord Chelmsford b) Lord William c) Lord Minto d) Lord Bentinck
Answer
Answer: a) Lord Chelmsford
Q.119 The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on: a) Simon Commission b) Lord Curzon Commission c) Dimitrov Thesis d) Lord Clive’s Report
Answer
Answer: a) Simon Commission
Economic Condition
Q.120 Who was the President of the Indian National Congress during 1940-46? a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) Maulana Azad
Answer
Answer: d) Maulana Azad
Q.121 Which system relates to the Ryotwari system of land tenure? a) The ryot is the landowner who pays land revenue directly to the government for the land he occupies. b) The ryot is a tenant farmer who pays land revenue to the landlord. c) The person cultivates the land leased by the landlord and pays rent to the landlord. d) The land is collectively owned and cultivated on a cooperative basis.
Answer
Answer: a) The ryot is the landowner who pays land revenue directly to the government for the land he occupies.
Q.122 Who benefitted the most from the British land revenue system in India? a) Sharecroppers b) Farmers c) Zamindars d) Agricultural laborers
Answer
Answer: c) Zamindars
National Movement : History of Modern India MCQs
Q.123 What was the aim of Gandhiji’s movement to boycott foreign goods? a) Complete independence b) To create anti-British sentiment c) To promote a welfare state d) To encourage cottage industries
Answer
d) To encourage cottage industries
Q.124 What was meant by ‘Secretary of State for India’ during British rule? a) The officer who worked like the secretary of the Viceroy of India b) A secretary-level officer appointed for each presidency region of India c) A British minister under whose control the Government of India worked d) A senior officer appointed by the Viceroy to oversee the internal administration of India
Answer
c) A British minister under whose control the Government of India worked
Q.125 Which of the following are the most important teachings of Gandhiji? 1. Truth 2. Non-violence 3. Religion 4. Satyagraha a) Only 1 and 3 b) Only 2 and 4 c) Only 1 and 2 d) Only 1, 2, and 3
Answer
c) केवल 1 और 2
Q.126 Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party? 1. Motilal Nehru 2. Sardar Patel 3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale a) 1 and 2 b) Only 1 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer
b) Only 1
Q.127 C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ after- a) The Swadeshi Movement b) The Non-cooperation Movement c) The Civil Disobedience Movement d) The Quit India Movement
Answer
b) The Non-cooperation Movement
Q.128 In which zodiac sign was Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru born? a) Leo b) Capricorn c) Taurus d) Scorpio
Answer
d) Scorpio
Q.129 Who represented the Indian National Congress at the Congress of Oppressed Nationalities in Brussels in 1927? a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Mahatma Gandhi c) Dr. Ansari d) Motilal Nehru
Answer
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.130 Who was the first woman president of the Indian National Congress? a) Sarojini Naidu b) Bhikaiji Cama c) Annie Besant d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
Q: Who became the Chief Executive of the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) in March 2025?
a) Sunil Mehta b) Atul Kumar Goel c) Rajnish Kumar d) Arundhati Bhattacharya
Show Answer
Ans: b) Atul Kumar Goel Atul Kumar Goel assumed the role of Chief Executive (CE) of the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) on March 11, 2025.
Q: According to the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2025, how many Indian universities are among the world’s top 50?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 12
Show Answer
Answer: c) 9
Q: Which Indian institution secured the highest rank in the QS Subject Rankings 2025?
a) IIT Bombay b) IIT Delhi c) Indian School of Mines (ISM) Dhanbad d) IIM Ahmedabad
Show Answer
Answer: c) Indian School of Mines (ISM) Dhanbad
Q: Which two IITs ranked in the top 50 for Engineering and Technology?
a) IIT Madras and IIT Delhi b) IIT Kharagpur and IIT Roorkee c) IIT Delhi and IIT Bombay d) IIT Kanpur and IIT Guwahati
Show Answer
Answer: c) IIT Delhi and IIT Bombay
Q: Which Indian institutions ranked in the top 50 for Business and Management Studies?
a) IIM Ahmedabad and IIM Bangalore b) IIT Delhi and IIT Bombay c) IIM Calcutta and IIM Indore d) IIT Madras and IIT Kanpur
Show Answer
Answer: a) IIM Ahmedabad and IIM Bangalore
Q. Which test from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) AF MK1 prototype was successfully conducted in March 2025?
(A) BrahMos Missile Test (B) Astra BVRAAM Test (C) Prithvi-II Missile Test (D) Nirbhay Cruise Missile Test
Show Answer
Answer: (B) Astra BVRAAM Test India successful test launch of the Astra Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) AF MK1 prototype on 12 March 2025.
India has achieved a major milestone in its defense capabilities with the successful test launch of the Astra Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) AF MK1 prototype on 12 March 2025. The test was conducted off the coast of Chandipur, Odisha, marking a significant step toward the advancement of India’s indigenous defense technology.
Astra Missile Test: A Remarkable Success
The Astra missile, developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), successfully hit a flying target with pinpoint accuracy, demonstrating its advanced capabilities. All subsystems performed optimally, meeting the mission’s parameters and objectives.
Key Features of Astra Missile:
✔ Beyond Visual Range (BVR): Engages targets over 100 km away. ✔ Advanced Guidance & Navigation: Ensures high precision and effectiveness. ✔ Enhances IAF’s Combat Readiness: Already inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF).
A Step Toward LCA AF MK1A Induction
This successful test is a crucial step toward the induction of the LCA AF MK1A variant, reinforcing India’s commitment to strengthening its indigenous defense systems. The achievement was made possible by the dedicated efforts of ADA, DRDO, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), CEMILAC, DG-AQA, IAF, and the test range team.
Leaders Applaud the Achievement
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh congratulated the teams involved, while Dr. Samir V. Kamat, Chairman of DRDO, praised the collaborative efforts of scientists, engineers, and technicians from multiple organizations and industries.
India has made a remarkable achievement in the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2025, with nine prestigious universities securing positions among the world’s top 50 across various disciplines. According to the 15th edition of the QS rankings, announced on March 12, 2025, India celebrates 12 top 50 positions across different subjects and faculty areas.
Top Indian Universities in QS Subject Rankings 2025
Leading the way is the Indian School of Mines (ISM) Dhanbad, which ranks 20th globally in Engineering-Mineral and Mining, making it the highest-ranked subject area for India.
Other notable rankings include:
IIT Bombay – 28th position in Engineering-Mineral and Mining
IIT Kharagpur – 45th position in Engineering-Mineral and Mining
IIT Delhi – 26th position in Engineering and Technology
IIT Bombay – 28th position in Engineering and Technology
IIM Ahmedabad – 27th position in Business and Management Studies
IIM Bangalore – 40th position in Business and Management Studies
IIT Madras – Featured in the top 50 for Petroleum Engineering
Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) – Featured in the top 50 for Development Studies
India’s Higher Education Growth Reflected in QS Rankings
QS reports that a total of 79 Indian universities, 10 more than last year, have been featured 533 times across the 2025 QS subject rankings. This marks a 25.7% increase compared to the previous edition. India ranks 5th globally for the highest number of new entries, following China, the USA, the UK, and South Korea.
This growth highlights India’s expanding higher education ecosystem, both in terms of size and quality. With an increasing number of Indian institutions making their mark globally, the country continues to establish itself as a hub for world-class education and research.
Why These Rankings Matter?
The QS World University Rankings by Subject are highly regarded worldwide and help students, researchers, and academic institutions assess global educational excellence. India’s strong performance reflects improving academic standards, enhanced research output, and growing global recognition of its institutions.
MCQs on QS World University Rankings 2025
Q: According to the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2025, how many Indian universities are among the world’s top 50?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 12
Answer: c) 9
Q: Which Indian institution secured the highest rank in the QS Subject Rankings 2025?
a) IIT Bombay b) IIT Delhi c) Indian School of Mines (ISM) Dhanbad d) IIM Ahmedabad
Answer: c) Indian School of Mines (ISM) Dhanbad
Q: Which two IITs ranked in the top 50 for Engineering and Technology?
a) IIT Madras and IIT Delhi b) IIT Kharagpur and IIT Roorkee c) IIT Delhi and IIT Bombay d) IIT Kanpur and IIT Guwahati
Answer: c) IIT Delhi and IIT Bombay
Q: Which Indian institutions ranked in the top 50 for Business and Management Studies?
a) IIM Ahmedabad and IIM Bangalore b) IIT Delhi and IIT Bombay c) IIM Calcutta and IIM Indore d) IIT Madras and IIT Kanpur
