Author name: Ajay Gulia

"Ajay Kumar Gulia is the lead editor at gknow.in. With a deep background in competitive exam coaching, he has helped thousands of students stay updated with daily current affairs. He meticulously vets every MCQ to ensure it meets the standards of UPSC and SSC boards."

ATM Withdrawals to Cost More Starting May 1, 2025

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has raised interchange fees, making ATM transactions more expensive across the country from May 1,2025.

Key points:
👉 Financial transactions beyond the free limit will now cost Rs 19 per transaction, up from Rs 17.
👉 Non-financial services like balance inquiries will cost Rs 7 per transaction, a Rs 1 hike.

This move comes after requests from white-label ATM operators citing rising operational costs. Smaller banks, reliant on larger institutions for ATM infrastructure, are expected to feel the pinch.

📉 The Shift to Digital:
ATMs, once the backbone of banking convenience, face challenges as digital wallets and UPI take center stage. Digital transactions in India have skyrocketed, growing from Rs 952 lakh crore in FY14 to Rs 3,658 lakh crore in FY23.

💡 What This Means for You:
Prepare for higher costs if you rely on ATMs for cash withdrawals. This may encourage further adoption of cashless alternatives, aligning with India’s growing digital economy. 🚀

Parliament Passes Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill 2024

The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill 2024 has been passed by both houses of Parliament, with the Rajya Sabha approving it on 25 March 2025. It amends the Disaster Management Act, 2005, aiming to enhance the efficiency of the National and State Disaster Management Authorities (NDMA and SDMA).

Key highlights:

  • The NDMA and SDMA will now prepare disaster plans at national and state levels, replacing the role of executive committees.
  • States can establish Urban Disaster Management Authorities for capitals and cities with municipal corporations.
  • A disaster database will be created at both national and state levels.

India develops first indigenous MRI machine, set to be installed at AIIMS Delhi for clinical trials

India has developed its first indigenous Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) machine. This machine is set to be installed at AIIMS Delhi by October 2025 for clinical trials.

The MRI machine, developed in collaboration with SAMEER (Society for Applied Microwave Electronics Engineering and Research) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, aims to reduce India’s reliance on imported medical equipment, which currently accounts for 80-85% of devices. By producing MRI machines domestically, India is taking a major step toward self-reliance in medical technology and lowering healthcare costs.

The initiative is expected to make MRI scans more affordable and accessible to a larger population, addressing challenges in healthcare affordability and accessibility. This development aligns with India’s broader goals of fostering innovation and achieving self-sufficiency in critical sectors.

Rajiv Gauba Appointed Full-Time Member of NITI Aayog

Former Cabinet Secretary Rajiv Gauba has been appointed as a full-time member of the NITI Aayog, effective 25 March 2025. A distinguished 1982-batch IAS officer from the Jharkhand cadre, Mr. Gauba served as India’s top bureaucrat from 2019 to August 2024. During his tenure, he played a pivotal role in shaping India’s COVID-19 response and driving economic recovery strategies.

With an illustrious career that includes serving as Union Home Secretary, Secretary in the Ministry of Urban Development, and Chief Secretary of Jharkhand, Mr. Gauba’s appointment has been approved by the Prime Minister. He will continue to contribute to India’s growth and development under the same terms as other full-time members of the NITI Aayog, further solidifying his legacy in the nation’s administrative framework.

Centre Approves Salary and Allowance Hike for MPs, Effective April 2023

The Centre has officially announced a significant revision in the salaries, allowances, and pensions of Members of Parliament (MPs), effective from April 1, 2023. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs issued a gazette notification on March 24, 2025, confirming the changes.

Key highlights of the revision:

  • Monthly Salary: Increased from ₹1 lakh to ₹1.24 lakh.
  • Daily Allowance: Raised from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500.
  • Pensions for Former MPs: Revised from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 per month, with additional pensions for extended service increasing from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500 per year of service beyond five years.

This comprehensive adjustment ensures MPs’ compensation keeps pace with inflation and supports their legislative duties effectively. MPs also receive enhanced allowances for constituency-related work, office maintenance, and other perks such as free flights, train travel, and accommodations.

The last revision took place in 2018, making this a timely update to address rising living costs and economic shifts.

Ajay Seth Appointed as New Finance Secretary of India

The Government of India has designated Ajay Seth, a 1987-batch IAS officer of the Karnataka cadre, as the new Finance Secretary on March 24, 2025. This appointment follows the elevation of Tuhin Kanta Pandey to the position of SEBI Chairperson.

Ajay Seth, who previously served as the Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs, brings over three decades of expertise in public finance, taxation, and governance. Known for his pivotal role in shaping India’s economic policies, he has been instrumental in managing infrastructure investments, coordinating with global financial institutions, and steering macroeconomic strategies.

With a strong academic foundation, including a Master’s degree in Public Administration from Harvard University, Seth has also held key positions at the state level, such as Managing Director of Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Limited. His leadership during the COVID-19 pandemic was marked by critical contributions to Union Budgets and economic recovery initiatives.

Supreme Court Collegium Recommends Transfer of Justice Yashwant Varma

The Supreme Court Collegium has proposed the transfer of Justice Yashwant Varma, a sitting judge of the Delhi High Court, back to his parent court, the Allahabad High Court. This decision, taken during meetings on March 20 and March 24.

However, the transfer has sparked controversy, with the Allahabad High Court Bar Association raising objections. Justice Varma is currently under scrutiny following allegations of a large stash of cash being discovered at his Delhi residence after a fire broke out on March 14. Reports suggest that firefighters found the cash while extinguishing the flames, though Justice Varma was not present at the time.

In response to the allegations, Chief Justice of India Sanjiv Khanna has formed a three-member inquiry committee to investigate the matter. The committee includes:

  • Justice Sheel Nagu (Chief Justice, Punjab & Haryana High Court)
  • Justice G.S. Sandhawalia (Chief Justice, Himachal Pradesh High Court)
  • Justice Anu Sivaraman (Judge, Karnataka High Court)

Meanwhile, Delhi High Court Chief Justice Devendra Upadhyaya has been directed not to assign any judicial work to Justice Varma until further notice.

Justice Varma has strongly denied the allegations, claiming that this is a deliberate attempt to tarnish his reputation. He clarified that the room where the cash was allegedly found is an outhouse, separate from his main residence.

The Supreme Court has emphasized that the transfer decision is unrelated to the ongoing controversy, aiming to maintain transparency and fairness.

World Tuberculosis Day : 24th March

Observed on 24th March every year, World Tuberculosis Day aims to raise awareness about the severe health, social, and economic impact of Tuberculosis (TB) and to mobilize efforts to eliminate this global epidemic. The date commemorates the historic discovery of the TB bacteria by Dr. Robert Koch in 1882, paving the way for understanding and treating the disease.

This year’s theme, “Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, and Deliver”, inspires deeper commitment to ending TB worldwide. It emphasizes combating drug-resistant TB and strengthening efforts at local, national, and international levels to save lives.

In India, the central government has launched several initiatives to eradicate TB:

  • Ni-Kshay Poshan Yojana: Providing ₹1,000 per month as nutritional support to TB patients.
  • Free drugs and diagnostics: Ensuring accessible treatment for all.
  • 100-day TB Elimination Campaign: Prioritizing districts to find and treat missing cases, reduce deaths, and prevent new infections.

According to the WHO’s Global TB Report 2024, India has made significant progress with a 17.7% decline in TB incidence rates from 237 per lakh population in 2015 to 195 per lakh population in 2023.

March 24th: Assam Rifles Commemorates 190th Raising Day

“Assam Rifles, India’s oldest paramilitary force, commemorated its Raising Day on March 24, 2025, with profound pride and solemnity. This day marked the 190th Raising day, and celebrated the rich history and unwavering dedication of the “Sentinels of the Northeast.”

Here’s a glimpse into the significance of Assam Rifles Raising Day:

A Legacy of Service:

  • Established in 1835 as the ‘Cachar Levy,’ the Assam Rifles has evolved through numerous historical events, playing a crucial role in safeguarding the northeastern region.
  • Their contributions span from maintaining law and order to counter-insurgency operations and border security.
  • They also perform vital humanitarian aid during natural disasters.

Guardians of the Northeast:

  • The Assam Rifles are deeply integrated with the local communities, fostering trust and cooperation.
  • Their presence ensures stability and security in a region known for its diverse cultures and challenging terrain.

India Triumphs at Kabaddi World Cup 2025

On March 23, 2025, India made history by winning both the Men’s and Women’s Kabaddi World Cup titles at Wolverhampton, England.

  • The Indian Men’s Team secured a thrilling victory against England with a score of 44-41.
  • The Indian Women’s Team dominated England with a commanding 57-34 win.

This tournament was special as it was the first Kabaddi World Cup held outside Asia, with matches across cities like Birmingham, Coventry, and Walsall.

With this remarkable double victory, India has once again showcased its kabaddi supremacy, following its previous wins in the 2019 World Cup in Malaysia.

Shaheed Diwas (Martyrs’ Day) on March 23

Shaheed Diwas, also known as Martyrs’ Day, is observed on March 23rd every year in India to pay tribute to the brave freedom fighters Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar, and Shivaram Rajguru. On this day in 1931, these three revolutionary heroes were executed by the British Government in the Lahore Central Jail. Their sacrifice remains a symbol of India’s fight for independence.

Significance of Shaheed Diwas

The day serves as a solemn reminder of the sacrifices made by countless patriots who laid down their lives for the freedom of the country. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were part of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), a revolutionary organization that fought against British colonial rule. Their courage and unwavering commitment to the nation continue to inspire generations.

Key Events Leading to Their Martyrdom

  • 1928: Bhagat Singh and his associates protested against the Simon Commission, which did not include any Indian representation. During a protest, Lala Lajpat Rai was brutally assaulted by the police under the supervision of James A. Scott.
  • 1929: Seeking justice, Bhagat Singh and Rajguru assassinated J.P. Saunders, mistaking him for Scott, to avenge Lala Lajpat Rai’s death.
  • 1929: Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly to protest oppressive laws and willingly courted arrest.
  • 1931: After a controversial trial, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were sentenced to death. Despite numerous appeals, they were executed on March 23rd.

World Water Day 2025: Focusing on Glacier Preservation

World Water Day is observed annually on 22 March to highlight the importance of freshwater and advocate for sustainable water management. This year’s theme, “Glacier Preservation,” emphasizes the vital role of glaciers in maintaining global freshwater supplies and calls for urgent conservation efforts amid climate change.

Established by the United Nations in 1992 during the Rio de Janeiro Conference, World Water Day was first celebrated in 1993. It serves as a reminder of the ongoing global water crisis, with 2.2 billion people lacking access to clean drinking water.

Vinod Kumar Shukla Honored with Jnanpith Award

Renowned Hindi poet and writer Vinod Kumar Shukla has been honored with the prestigious Jnanpith Award — India’s highest literary accolade!

Hailing from Raipur, Chhattisgarh, Mr. Shukla has enriched Hindi literature for over five decades. His thought-provoking works, including “Naukar Ki Kameez,” “Khilega To Dekhenge,” and “Deewar Mein Ek Khidki”, are cherished as some of the finest Hindi novels. His poetry and stories have touched hearts across generations.

The announcement was made on 22nd March 2025 in New Delhi, bringing immense pride to Chhattisgarh and the literary world. Upon receiving the award, Mr. Shukla expressed his gratitude and acknowledged the responsibility that comes with this esteemed recognition.

Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Vishnudev Sai extended his heartfelt congratulations, calling it a proud moment for the state.

Indian Premier League 2025 Begins: What’s New in the 18th Edition?

The 18th edition of the Indian Premier League (IPL) kicks off on 22nd March 2025 with defending champions Kolkata Knight Riders taking on Royal Challengers Bengaluru at Eden Gardens at 7:30 PM IST.

The opening ceremony will feature dazzling performances by Disha Patani, Shreya Ghoshal, and Karan Aujla. With 10 teams competing in 74 matches until the final on 25th May, fans can expect non-stop cricketing action!

📌 Key Updates for IPL 2025:

  • Saliva Ban Lifted: Bowlers can now shine the ball using saliva.
  • Ball Change Rule: Teams can request a ball change after the 10th over due to dew.
  • New Code of Conduct: A demerit points system with suspension risks will be enforced.
  • Expanded DRS: Height-based no-ball and wide-ball reviews are now available.

Commonwealth Games 2030 in Ahmedabad : India Bids to Host

India has officially submitted its expression of interest to host the Centenary Commonwealth Games in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, in 2030. This significant step marks India’s growing presence on the global sports stage.

🌟 Why Ahmedabad?

  • The city has showcased its organizational capabilities through events like the 2023 ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup Final and major concerts.
  • World-class infrastructure and vibrant local support make Ahmedabad a prime choice.

👤 Led by PT Usha

  • Commonwealth Games Association of India President PT Usha confirmed the bid, which has been acknowledged by the Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF).

📈 Strengthening India’s Sports Ambitions

  • Hosting the 2030 Games would bolster India’s position in global sports management.
  • The bid also complements India’s larger vision of securing the 2036 Olympic Games.

🚀 With other potential hosts like Singapore and Malaysia stepping back, Ahmedabad is emerging as a strong contender.

Kirsty Coventry Elected President of the International Olympic Committee (IOC)

Kirsty Coventry from Zimbabwe has been elected as the President of the International Olympic Committee (IOC), becoming the first woman and the first African to hold this esteemed position. 🥇

🏊‍♀️ A celebrated Olympian with seven medals, Coventry’s remarkable leadership journey includes her role as Zimbabwe’s Minister of Youth, Sport, Arts, and Recreation and her tenure as Chair of the IOC Athletes’ Commission. She has consistently championed athlete welfare, grassroots sports development, and fair competition.

📍 Elected at the 144th IOC Session in Greece, Coventry won a decisive 49 out of 97 votes in the first round. In her acceptance speech, she emphasized her commitment to fostering inclusivity, sustainability, and mental health support for athletes.

💡 Coventry’s leadership comes at a critical time, as the IOC navigates challenges like gender equality, environmental sustainability, and global sports development. Her presidency is expected to bring a fresh perspective and drive positive change within the Olympic movement.

International Day of Forests 2025: Theme – Forests and Food

Observed annually on March 21, the International Day of Forests emphasizes the critical role forests play in sustaining ecosystems. This year’s theme, “Forests and Food,” highlights the connection between forests, food security, biodiversity, and climate resilience.

🌱 Forest Protection Initiatives in India

India has implemented various programs to safeguard forests while supporting livelihoods and biodiversity. Key initiatives include:

1️⃣ National Agroforestry Policy (2014)

  • Promotes tree planting alongside crops for enhanced agricultural productivity.
  • Supports soil fertility and offers additional income for farmers.

2️⃣ Green India Mission (GIM)

  • Part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
  • Aims to expand and improve 10 million hectares of forest and non-forest land.
  • Focuses on biodiversity conservation, carbon storage, and ecosystem restoration.

3️⃣ Forest Fire Prevention & Management Scheme (FFPM)

  • Provides state support to prevent and manage forest fires.
  • Utilizes remote sensing, GPS, and GIS technologies for real-time fire detection.

4️⃣ Van Dhan Yojana (2018)

  • Enhances tribal livelihoods through sustainable forest produce collection and value addition.
  • Establishes Van Dhan Vikas Kendras (VDVKs) for skill training, processing, and marketing of Minor Forest Produce (MFPs).

Important Days GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Important National and International Days GK MCQs Questions for Competitive Exams.
Medium: English

Important Days and Dates GK MCQs

Question 1: When is Republic Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 2nd October
C) 26th January
D) 14th November

Answer
Answer: C) 26th January
Explanation: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January in India because the Indian Constitution was implemented on this day in 1950.

Question 2: When is Independence Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 26th January
C) 2nd October
D) 5th September

Answer
Answer: A) 15th August
Explanation: India gained independence from British rule on 15th August 1947, so this day is celebrated as Independence Day.

Question 3: When is Gandhi Jayanti celebrated?

A) 5th September
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 1st May

Answer
Answer: C) 2nd October
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was born on 2nd October 1869, so this day is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti.

Question 4: When is Teacher’s Day celebrated?

A) 5th September
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 26th January

Answer
Answer: A) 5th September
Explanation: Teacher’s Day is celebrated on 5th September to honor Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, India’s first Vice President and second President.

Question 5: When is Children’s Day celebrated?

A) 2nd October
B) 14th November
C) 26th January
D) 1st May

Answer
Answer: B) 14th November
Explanation: Children’s Day is celebrated on 14th November, the birth anniversary of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, reflecting his love for children.

Question 6: When is National Unity Day celebrated?

A) 31st October
B) 8th March
C) 5th September
D) 1st July

Answer
Answer: A) 31st October
Explanation: National Unity Day is celebrated on 31st October to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Question 7: When is Constitution Day celebrated?

A) 26th November
B) 15th August
C) 26th January
D) 14th April

Answer
Answer: A) 26th November
Explanation: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November as the Indian Constitution was adopted on this day in 1949.

Question 8: When is Doctor’s Day celebrated?

A) 1st July
B) 5th September
C) 14th November
D) 21st June

Answer
Answer: A) 1st July
Explanation: Doctor’s Day is celebrated on 1st July in honor of Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy, a renowned physician and former Chief Minister of West Bengal.

Question 9: When is International Women’s Day celebrated?

A) 8th March
B) 14th November
C) 31st October
D) 1st May

Answer
Answer: A) 8th March
Explanation: International Women’s Day is celebrated on 8th March to raise awareness of women’s rights and equality.

Question 10: When is World Environment Day celebrated?

A) 22nd April
B) 5th June
C) 1st July
D) 14th November

Answer
Answer: B) 5th June
Explanation: World Environment Day is celebrated on 5th June to promote awareness about environmental conservation.

Question 11: When is International Workers’ Day celebrated?

A) 1 May
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 2 October

Answer
Answer: A) 1 May
Explanation: International Workers’ Day is celebrated on 1 May to honor the rights and contributions of workers.

Question 12: When is National Science Day celebrated?

A) 28 February
B) 14 March
C) 5 June
D) 12 January

Answer
Answer: A) 28 February
Explanation: National Science Day is celebrated on 28 February to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect by Dr. C.V. Raman.

Question 13: When is International Yoga Day celebrated?

A) 21 June
B) 1 July
C) 15 August
D) 5 September

Answer
Answer: A) 21 June
Explanation: International Yoga Day is celebrated on 21 June to promote the benefits of yoga.

Question 14: When is National Youth Day celebrated?

A) 12 January
B) 5 September
C) 2 October
D) 26 January

Answer
Answer: A) 12 January
Explanation: National Youth Day is celebrated on 12 January in honor of the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.

Question 15: When is World AIDS Day celebrated?

A) 1 December
B) 14 November
C) 5 June
D) 31 March

Answer
Answer: A) 1 December
Explanation: World AIDS Day is celebrated on 1 December to raise awareness about HIV/AIDS.

Question 16: When is World Water Day celebrated?

A) 22 March
B) 5 June
C) 1 May
D) 8 March

Answer
Answer: A) 22 March
Explanation: World Water Day is celebrated on 22 March to highlight the importance of water conservation and management.

Question 17: When is National Sports Day celebrated?

A) 29 August
B) 24 September
C) 15 August
D) 5 July

Answer
Answer: A) 29 August
Explanation: National Sports Day is celebrated on 29 August to honor the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand.

Question 18: When is World Population Day celebrated?

A) 11 July
B) 1 May
C) 14 November
D) 2 October

Answer
Answer: A) 11 July
Explanation: World Population Day is celebrated on 11 July to raise awareness about population-related issues and challenges.

Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?

A) 22 April
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 July

Answer
Answer: A) 22 April
Explanation: Earth Day is celebrated on 22 April to raise awareness about environmental protection and sustainable development.

Question 20: When is International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women celebrated?

A) 25 November
B) 8 March
C) 10 December
D) 5 June

Answer
Answer: A) 25 November
Explanation: The International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women is celebrated on 25 November to aim at ending violence against women.

Question 21: When is World Book Day celebrated?

A) 23 April
B) 22 March
C) 1 May
D) 14 November

Answer
Answer: A) 23 April
Explanation: 23 April is celebrated as World Book and Copyright Day to raise awareness about literature and reading.

Question 22: When is World Mother’s Day celebrated?

A) Second Sunday of May
B) 21 June
C) 14 November
D) 31 October

Answer
Answer: A) Second Sunday of May
Explanation: Mother’s Day is celebrated on the second Sunday of May in honor of mothers.

Question 23: When is World Peace Day celebrated?

A) 21 September
B) 1 May
C) 8 March
D) 31 December

Answer
Answer: A) 21 September
Explanation: 21 September is celebrated as World Peace Day to dedicate efforts towards peace and non-violence.

Question 24: When is World Human Rights Day celebrated?

A) 10 December
B) 1 May
C) 5 June
D) 14 November

Answer
Answer: A) 10 December
Explanation: 10 December is observed as World Human Rights Day to honor the United Nations’ declaration on human rights.

Question 25: When is International Labour Organization Day celebrated?

A) 28 April
B) 1 May
C) 8 March
D) 22 March

Answer
Answer: A) 28 April
Explanation: 28 April is observed as International Labour Organization Day to raise awareness about workplace safety and health.

Question 26: When is World Food Day celebrated?

A) 16 October
B) 1 July
C) 22 April
D) 5 September

Answer
Answer: A) 16 October
Explanation: 16 October is celebrated as World Food Day to raise awareness about food security and hunger issues.

Question 27: When is National Safety Day celebrated?

A) 4 March
B) 15 August
C) 26 January
D) 5 September

Answer
Answer: A) 4 March
Explanation: 4 March is celebrated as National Safety Day to spread awareness about industrial safety.

Question 28: When is World Red Cross Day celebrated?

A) 8 May
B) 14 June
C) 1 December
D) 16 October

Answer
Answer: A) 8 May
Explanation: 8 May is observed as World Red Cross Day to honor the work of the International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement.

Question 29: When is World Blood Donor Day celebrated?

A) 14 June
B) 1 July
C) 5 June
D) 8 March

Answer
Answer: A) 14 June
Explanation: 14 June is observed as World Blood Donor Day to raise awareness about the importance of blood donation and saving lives.

Question 30: When is International Nurses Day celebrated?

A) 12 May
B) 5 July
C) 14 November
D) 31 August

Answer
Answer: A) 12 May
Explanation: 12 May is celebrated as International Nurses Day on the birth anniversary of Florence Nightingale.

Question 31: When is World TB (Tuberculosis) Day celebrated?

A) 24 March
B) 5 June
C) 14 November
D) 1 July

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 24 March
Explanation: World TB Day is celebrated on 24 March to raise awareness about tuberculosis disease.

Question 32: When is World Tiger Day celebrated?

A) 29 July
B) 5 June
C) 1 May
D) 21 June

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 29 July
Explanation: World Tiger Day is celebrated on 29 July to raise awareness for tiger conservation.

Question 33: When is World Consumer Rights Day celebrated?

A) 15 March
B) 1 May
C) 2 October
D) 24 January

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 15 March
Explanation: World Consumer Rights Day is celebrated on 15 March to promote consumer rights.

Question 34: When is International Literacy Day celebrated?

A) 8 September
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 July

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 8 September
Explanation: International Literacy Day is celebrated on 8 September to promote the importance of education and literacy.

Question 35: When is World Health Day celebrated?

A) 7 April
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 December

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 7 April
Explanation: World Health Day is celebrated on 7 April, commemorating the foundation of the World Health Organization (WHO).

Question 36: When is World Hepatitis Day celebrated?

A) 28 July
B) 5 June
C) 14 November
D) 21 June

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 28 July
Explanation: World Hepatitis Day is celebrated on 28 July to raise awareness about hepatitis.

Question 37: When is World Malaria Day celebrated?

A) 25 April
B) 7 April
C) 1 May
D) 5 June

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 25 April
Explanation: World Malaria Day is celebrated on 25 April to raise awareness about malaria.

Question 38: When is International Family Day celebrated?

A) 15 May
B) 5 June
C) 14 April
D) 8 March

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 15 May
Explanation: International Family Day is celebrated on 15 May to highlight the importance of families.

Question 39: When is World Cancer Day celebrated?

A) 4 February
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 8 March

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: A) 4 February
Explanation: World Cancer Day is celebrated on 4 February to raise awareness about cancer.

Question 40: When is National Space Day celebrated in India?

A) 20 July
B) 23 August
C) 15 September
D) 4 October

Answer
Answer]
Correct Answer: B) 23 August
Explanation: National Space Day is celebrated on 23 August to highlight India’s achievements in space exploration.

Question 41: When is National Voters’ Day celebrated?

A) 25th January
B) 1st July
C) 14th November
D) 31st May

Answer
Answer: A) 25th January
Explanation: National Voters’ Day is celebrated on 25th January to promote the importance of voting.

Question 42: When is World Sight Day celebrated?

A) Second Thursday of October
B) 5th June
C) 14th November
D) 1st May

Answer
Answer: A) Second Thursday of October
Explanation: World Sight Day is celebrated on the second Thursday of October to raise awareness about eye health.

Question 43: When is International Day of the Girl Child celebrated?

A) 11th October
B) 14th November
C) 8th March
D) 21st June

Answer
Answer: A) 11th October
Explanation: International Day of the Girl Child is celebrated on 11th October to raise awareness about girls’ rights and education.

Question 44: When is Constitution Maker Day celebrated?

A) 26th November
B) 14th April
C) 15th August
D) 2nd October

Answer
Answer: B) 14th April
Explanation: Constitution Maker Day is celebrated on 14th April, the birth anniversary of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution.

Question 45: When is Universal Children’s Day celebrated?

A) 20th November
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 1st May

Answer
Answer: A) 20th November
Explanation: Universal Children’s Day is celebrated on 20th November to raise awareness about children’s rights and welfare.

Question 46: When is International Day of Older Persons celebrated?

A) 1st October
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 5th September

Answer
Answer: A) 1st October
Explanation: International Day of Older Persons is celebrated on 1st October to honor the elderly and reflect on society’s responsibilities toward them.

Question 47: When is International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction celebrated?

A) Second Wednesday of October
B) 5th June
C) 31st May
D) 1st July

Answer
Answer: A) Second Wednesday of October
Explanation: International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction is celebrated on the second Wednesday of October to promote disaster preparedness.

Question 48: When is Human Rights Day celebrated?

A) 10th December
B) 1st July
C) 14th November
D) 22nd March

Answer
Answer: A) 10th December
Explanation: Human Rights Day is celebrated on 10th December to raise awareness about human rights and their protection.

Question 49: When is World Heart Day celebrated?

A) 29th September
B) 5th June
C) 31st May
D) 14th November

Answer
Answer: A) 29th September
Explanation: World Heart Day is celebrated on 29th September to raise awareness about heart health and related diseases.

Question 50: When is World Hearing Day celebrated?

A) 3rd March
B) 5th June
C) 8th March
D) 14th November

Answer
Answer: A) 3rd March
Explanation: World Hearing Day is celebrated on 3rd March to raise awareness about hearing health.

Question 51: When is World Tourism Day celebrated?

A) 27th September
B) 1st May
C) 5th June
D) 14th November

Answer
Answer: A) 27th September]
Explanation: World Tourism Day is celebrated on 27th September to highlight the importance of tourism and the preservation of cultural heritage.

Question 52: When is World Wildlife Day celebrated?

A) 3rd March
B) 5th June
C) 1st May
D) 21st June

Answer
Answer: A) 3rd March]
Explanation: World Wildlife Day is celebrated on 3rd March to raise awareness about wildlife conservation and biodiversity.

Question 53: When is Hindi Day celebrated?

A) 14th September
B) 15th August
C) 26th January
D) 2nd October

Answer
Answer: A) 14th September]
Explanation: Hindi Day is celebrated on 14th September as on this day in 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted Hindi as the official language of the country.

Question 54: When is Partition Horrors Remembrance Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 14th August
C) 26th January
D) 2nd October

Answer
Answer: B) 14th August]
Explanation: Partition Horrors Remembrance Day, also known as Partition Horrors Memorial Day, is observed on 14th August every year in India.

Question 55: When is Kargil Vijay Diwas celebrated?

A) 26th June
B) 26th July
C) 26th August
D) 26th September

Answer
Answer: B) 26th July]
Explanation: Kargil Vijay Diwas is celebrated on 26th July every year to commemorate the success of “Operation Vijay” in 1999, during which the Indian Army recaptured strategic positions in the Kargil sector from Pakistani intruders.

Question 56: When is National Navy Day celebrated in India?

A) 26th January
B) 15th August
C) 4th December
D) 10th November

Answer
Answer: C) 4th December]
Explanation: National Navy Day is celebrated on 4th December in India to commemorate the success of “Operation Trident” during the 1971 Indo-Pak war, when the Indian Navy attacked Pakistan’s Karachi port.

Question 57: When is International Ozone Day celebrated?

A) 5th June
B) 16th September
C) 22nd April
D) 10th December

Answer
Answer: B) 16th September]
Explanation: International Ozone Day is observed on 16th September every year to mark the adoption of the “Montreal Protocol,” which represents global efforts to protect the ozone layer.

Question 58: When is Farmer’s Day celebrated in India?

A) 26th January
B) 15th August
C) 23rd December
D) 5th June

Answer
Answer: C) 23rd December]
Explanation: Farmer’s Day is celebrated on 23rd December in India to honor the contributions of farmers. The day marks the birth anniversary of Chaudhary Charan Singh, the 5th Prime Minister of India.

Question 59: When is Biodiversity Day celebrated?

A) 22nd May
B) 5th July
C) 12th March
D) 28th February

Answer
Answer: A) 22nd May]
Explanation: Biodiversity Day is celebrated on 22nd May every year. It marks the anniversary of the adoption of the Convention on Biological Diversity at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.

Question 60: When is “Constitution Murder Day” observed?

A) 26th January
B) 25th June
C) 15th August
D) 2nd October

Answer
Answer: B) 25th June]
Explanation: The Government of India declared that 25th June will be observed as “Constitution Murder Day” to honor those who opposed and fought against the injustice during the Emergency period.

Japan Secures Spot in 2026 FIFA World Cup!

On March 20, 2025, Japan became the first non-host nation to qualify for the 2026 FIFA World Cup after a 2-0 victory over Bahrain. Goals by Daichi Kamada and Takefusa Kubo sealed the win, marking Japan’s eighth consecutive World Cup appearance since 1998.

With this win, Japan has claimed one of the two automatic qualification spots from Group C in the Asian qualifiers, with three matches still remaining. The expanded 48-team format will see the Asian Football Confederation (AFC) sending at least eight teams to the tournament, co-hosted by Canada, Mexico, and the United States.

Other Teams to Watch

  • Australia is in a strong position in Group C.
  • Iran leads Group A, followed by Uzbekistan and the UAE.
  • South Korea tops Group B, with Iraq and Jordan trailing.

🚀 The qualification process continues until June 2025, leading to a fourth round and an inter-confederation play-off offering one more Asian nation a final shot at qualifying.

Parsi New Year, Navroz 2025 : Celebrated on March 20

The Parsi New Year, also known as Navroz or Nowruz, is observed on March 20, coinciding with the spring equinox, a time when day and night are of equal length. This ancient festival has its roots in Zoroastrianism, one of the world’s oldest monotheistic religions, founded by Prophet Zoroaster in ancient Persia (modern-day Iran).

History and Significance

Navroz, meaning “new day” in Persian, has been celebrated for over 3,000 years. It marks the beginning of the Persian calendar and symbolizes the triumph of good over evil, as well as the renewal of nature. The festival is named Jamshedi Navroz in honor of King Jamshed, who is credited with introducing the Parsi calendar.

The Parsi community in India, which migrated from Persia during the Islamic invasion in the 7th century, has preserved this tradition with great fervor. Navroz is recognized by UNESCO as an Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, highlighting its cultural and historical importance.

ISTAF Sepak Takraw 2025 World Cup in Patna: March 20–25

Chief Minister of Bihar, Nitish Kumar inaugurated ISTAF “Sepak Takraw 2025” World Cup in Patna on March 20, 2025. The tournament, organized by the International Sepak Takraw Federation (ISTAF), is taking place at the Pataliputra Sports Complex Indoor Stadium in Kankarbagh. This six-day event, running from March 20 to March 25, 2025, has brought together teams from 20 countries, including India, Thailand, Singapore, and others.

Highlights of the Event

  • 150 Matches: The tournament features a total of 150 matches across various categories, including quad, regular, doubles, and mixed doubles.
  • India’s Performance: The Indian women’s team has already made a strong start, defeating China and Iran in the quad matches.
  • Global Participation: Countries like Thailand, Indonesia, Japan, and Brazil are showcasing their talent in this unique sport.

About Sepak Takraw

Sepak Takraw, often referred to as “kick volleyball,” is a dynamic sport with roots in Southeast Asia. Players use their feet, head, knees, and chest to hit a rattan or synthetic ball over a net. The game has gained international recognition, especially after being included in the Asian Games.

Char Dham Yatra 2025: The Sacred Journey Begins on April 30

The Char Dham Yatra is a revered pilgrimage in India, encompassing visits to four sacred shrines in Uttarakhand: Yamunotri, Gangotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath. These sites are nestled in the Himalayas and hold immense spiritual significance in Hinduism. The journey is believed to cleanse the soul and pave the way for salvation. The Yatra traditionally begins at Yamunotri, followed by Gangotri, Kedarnath, and concludes at Badrinath.

Registration for Char Dham Yatra

To participate in the Yatra, registration is mandatory. Here’s how you can register:

Online Registration:

  • Visit the official website: registrationandtouristcare.uk.gov.in.
  • Create an account and provide your personal details, including a valid ID proof (Aadhaar, Passport, etc.).
  • Select your preferred dates and complete the process by downloading your e-pass.

Offline Registration:

  • Visit designated counters in cities like Haridwar, Rishikesh, or Dehradun.
  • Provide your documents and receive a QR code or registration letter.

The Yatra begins with the opening of the Gangotri and Yamunotri Dhams on April 30, followed by Kedarnath on May 2 and Badrinath on May 4.

Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams for free online practice. Collection of Important previous year questions for preparation of upcoming SSC,RRB examinations.

Chemistry GK MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following dietary components provides the maximum energy per gram to humans?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Fats
C) Fibers
D) Proteins

Answer
Answer: B) Fats]
Explanation: Fats are the primary source of energy in our diet. 1 gram of fat provides 9.5 kilocalories of energy, which is the highest among food components.

Question 2: Which of the following is a noble gas?

A) Ozone
B) Nitrogen
C) Hydrogen
D) Helium

Answer
Answer: D) Helium]
Explanation: A noble gas is one that typically does not participate in chemical reactions and is always available in a free state.

Question 3: Which of the following elements belongs to the d-block of the modern periodic table?

A) Na
B) Fe
C) Ca
D) Mg

Answer
Answer: B) Fe]
Explanation: From the electronic configurations of elements, it is evident that Fe belongs to the d-block because its outermost electron occupies the d-orbital.

Question 4: According to the modern periodic table, which element has the atomic number 30?

A) Co
B) Ni
C) Zn
D) Fe

Answer
Answer: C) Zn]
Explanation: Zinc is a chemical element with the symbol Zn and atomic number 30.

Question 5: Which iron ore contains the highest amount of iron?

A) Magnetite
B) Hematite
C) Limonite
D) Siderite

Answer
Answer: A) Magnetite]
Explanation: Magnetite contains the highest iron content, followed by other ores in the listed order.

Question 6: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the neutron?

A) Chadwick
B) Rutherford
C) Niels Bohr
D) Roentgen

Answer
Answer: A) Chadwick]
Explanation: Sir James Chadwick, a British physicist, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935 for his discovery of the neutron in 1932.

Question 7: What is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris?

A) Calcium hypochlorite
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Calcium oxide
D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate

Answer
Answer: D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate]
Explanation: Plaster of Paris is used for setting broken bones, making sculptures and toys, and producing chalk, among other uses.

Question 8: What is the chemical formula of washing soda?

A) Na2SO4
B) Ca(OH)2
C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O
D) NaHCO3

Answer
Answer: C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O]
Explanation: Sodium carbonate is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula Na2CO3. It is commonly known as washing soda or soda ash and is used for laundry due to its alkaline nature.

Question 9: In a water molecule, what is the ratio of the masses of hydrogen and oxygen?

A) 1:4
B) 1:8
C) 1:16
D) 1:2

Answer
Answer: B) 1:8]
Explanation: The atomic mass of hydrogen is 1 u, and the atomic mass of oxygen is 16 u. Since a water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom, their mass ratio is 2:16 or 1:8.

Question 10: α particles are doubly charged ions of ____________.

A) Beryllium
B) Hydrogen
C) Helium
D) Lithium

Answer
Answer: C) Helium]
Explanation: α particles consist of two protons and two neutrons. They are doubly charged helium ions.

Question 11: What is the atomic number of Copper?

A) 29
B) 26
C) 30
D) 32

Answer
Answer: A) 29
Explanation: The atomic number of Copper is 29.

Question 12: What is the most common isotope of Oxygen?

A) O-16
B) O-17
C) O-18
D) O-19

Answer
Answer: A) O-16
Explanation: The most common isotope of Oxygen is O-16, which is found in nature in the highest abundance.

Question 13: What is the chemical name of NH₃ (Ammonia)?

A) Nitrogen Trihydride
B) Hydrogen Nitride
C) Nitrogen Hydride
D) Hydrogen Trinitride

Answer
Answer: C) Nitrogen Hydride
Explanation: NH₃ is known as Nitrogen Hydride, commonly referred to as Ammonia.

Question 14: What is the chemical symbol for Mercury?

A) Hg
B) Pb
C) Au
D) Ag

Answer
Answer: A) Hg
Explanation: The chemical symbol for Mercury is Hg.

Question 15: Which acid is a harmful enzyme?

A) Hydrochloric Acid
B) Sulfuric Acid
C) Nitric Acid
D) Hydrofluoric Acid

Answer
Answer: A) Hydrochloric Acid
Explanation: Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) is essential for digestion in the human stomach, but at high concentrations, it can be harmful.

Question 16: What is the approximate pH value of water?

A) 1
B) 7
C) 14
D) 9

Answer
Answer: B) 7
Explanation: The pH value of water is around 7, making it neutral.

Question 17: Which element exhibits metallic properties?

A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Calcium
D) Sulfur

Answer
Answer: C) Calcium
Explanation: Calcium is a metal and shows properties similar to other metals.

Question 18: Which chemical is a strong acid?

A) Ethanol
B) Acetic Acid
C) Sulfuric Acid
D) Ammonia

Answer
Answer: C) Sulfuric Acid
Explanation: Sulfuric Acid (H₂SO₄) is a very strong acid.

Question 19: What is formed when carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in water?

A) Carbonic Acid
B) Hydrochloric Acid
C) Sulfuric Acid
D) Nitric Acid

Answer
Answer: A) Carbonic Acid
Explanation: When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, it forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).

Question 20: Which element has the highest relative atomic mass?

A) Hydrogen
B) Helium
C) Lithium
D) Uranium

Answer
Answer: D) Uranium
Explanation: Uranium has the highest relative atomic mass.

Question 21: Which element remains in a gaseous state at room temperature?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Nitrogen
D) Gold

Answer
Answer: C) Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen remains in a gaseous state at room temperature.

Question 22: Which metal is the lightest?

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium

Answer
Answer: A) Lithium
Explanation: Lithium is the lightest metal.

Question 23: What is formed when hydrochloric acid and ammonia react?

A) Ammonium Chloride
B) Ammonium Hydroxide
C) Hydrogen Chloride
D) Hydrochloric Acid

Answer
Answer: A) Ammonium Chloride
Explanation: Hydrochloric acid and ammonia combine to form ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl).

Question 24: In chemistry, what does ‘pH’ stand for?

A) Measurement of acidity
B) Measurement of basicity
C) Measurement of gaseous state
D) Measurement of solid state

Answer
Answer: A) Measurement of acidity
Explanation: pH measures acidity and basicity.

Question 25: Which acid is a natural acid found in fruits?

A) Sulfuric Acid
B) Acetic Acid
C) Citric Acid
D) Hydrochloric Acid

Answer
Answer: C) Citric Acid
Explanation: Citric acid is found in fruits, especially lemons and oranges.

Question 26: Which element has only one electron in its outer shell?

A) Helium
B) Hydrogen
C) Lithium
D) Boron

Answer
Answer: B) Hydrogen
Explanation: Hydrogen has only one electron in its outer shell.

Question 27: What is the atomic number of Iron (Fe)?

A) 20
B) 26
C) 29
D) 32

Answer
Answer: B) 26
Explanation: The atomic number of Iron (Fe) is 26.

Question 28: What is the chemical symbol for Silver?

A) Ag
B) Au
C) Pb
D) Hg

Answer
Answer: A) Ag
Explanation: The chemical symbol for silver is Ag.

Question 29: Which element is commonly found as a diatomic molecule?

A) Hydrogen
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Iron

Answer
Answer: A) Hydrogen
Explanation: Hydrogen is commonly found as H₂.

Question 30: Which gas is produced during the oxidation and burning of water?

A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Carbon Dioxide

Answer
Answer: B) Hydrogen
Explanation: Hydrogen gas is produced during the electrolysis of water.

Question 31: Which acid is predominant in acid rain?

A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Sulfuric acid
C) Citric acid
D) Acetic acid

Answer
Answer: B) Sulfuric acid
Explanation: Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) plays a major role in acid rain.

Question 32: Which chemical is used as a pesticide?

A) Cysteine
B) Chloroform
C) DDT
D) Aniline

Answer
Answer: C) DDT
Explanation: DDT is used as a pesticide.

Question 33: Which is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Argon

Answer
Answer: B) Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen makes up 78% of the Earth’s atmosphere.

Question 34: Which element is most commonly used as a salt?

A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Iron

Answer
Answer: A) Sodium
Explanation: Sodium is the main element used in common salts like table salt (NaCl).

Question 35: What compound is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen?

A) Methane
B) Ammonia
C) Water
D) Carbon dioxide

Answer
Answer: C) Water
Explanation: Water (H₂O) is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen.

Question 36: Which element is used in the production of atomic bombs?

A) Plutonium
B) Sodium
C) Boron
D) Magnesium

Answer
Answer: A) Plutonium
Explanation: Plutonium (Pu) is used in the production of atomic bombs.

Question 37: Which substance is used to clean teeth?

A) Calcium carbonate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Silica
D) Glycerine

Answer
Answer: C) Silica
Explanation: Silica is used in toothpaste for cleaning teeth.

Question 38: Which substance is called ‘white poison’ in the diet?

A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Calcium

Answer
Answer: B) Sugar
Explanation: Sugar is often referred to as ‘white poison’ due to its excessive consumption leading to health issues.

Question 39: Which chemical is used to preserve food?

A) Acetic acid
B) Sulfur dioxide
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Nitric acid

Answer
Answer: B) Sulfur dioxide
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is used to preserve food.

Question 40: Which substance is a good conductor of electricity?

A) Wood
B) Plastic
C) Copper
D) Rubber

Answer
Answer: C) Copper
Explanation: Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity.

Question 41: Which compound is found in oily color?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Potassium permanganate
C) Water
D) Sodium chloride

Answer
Answer: B) Potassium permanganate
Explanation: Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) has an oily color.

Question 42: What is the chemical symbol of Helium?

A) He
B) H
C) Hg
D) H₂

Answer
Answer: A) He
Explanation: The chemical symbol for Helium is He.

Question 43: Which chemical is used to extinguish fire?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Hydrogen
C) Ammonia
D) Sulfur

Answer
Answer: A) Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is used for extinguishing fires.

Question 44: Which element plays a significant role in DNA as an important biomolecule?

A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen

Answer
Answer: C) Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen plays an essential role in the structure of DNA.

Question 45: Which element is used in radiotherapy?

A) Iodine
B) Sodium
C) Boron
D) Calcium

Answer
Answer: A) Iodine
Explanation: Iodine is used in radiotherapy.

Question 46: Which chemical is used in burning and also found in fireworks?

A) Nitrogen
B) Potassium nitrate
C) Sodium chloride
D) Hydrochloric acid

Answer
Answer: B) Potassium nitrate
Explanation: Potassium nitrate (KNO₃) is used in burning and in fireworks.

Question 47: Which color indicator is used to identify acidic properties?

A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow

Answer
Answer: A) Red
Explanation: Red color indicator is used to identify acidic properties.

Question 48: Which substance dissolves in water but not in oil?

A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Flour
D) Fat

Answer
Answer: A) Salt
Explanation: Salt (sodium chloride) dissolves in water but not in oil.

Question 49: What is the most common example of a hydrogen bond?

A) Ammonia
B) Water
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Methane

Answer
Answer: B) Water
Explanation: Water is the most common example of hydrogen bonding, where hydrogen of one water molecule bonds with the oxygen of another water molecule.

Question 50: Which element is used in batteries?

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Potassium

Answer
Answer: A) Lithium
Explanation: Lithium is used in batteries.

Question 51: Which element is used in making steel?

A) Carbon
B) Silicon
C) Zinc
D) Platinum

Answer
Answer: A) Carbon
Explanation: Carbon is used in making steel.

Question 52: Which element plays an important role in biological instruments?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Gold

Answer
Answer: C) Calcium
Explanation: Calcium plays a vital role in biological structures such as bones and teeth.

Question 53: Which metal is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust?

A) Chromium
B) Zinc
C) Rhodium
D) Tin

Answer
Answer: B) Zinc
Explanation: Zinc is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust.

Question 54: Bronze is an alloy of which of the following?

A) Copper and Zinc
B) Tin and Zinc
C) Copper and Tin
D) Iron and Zinc

Answer
Answer: C) Copper and Tin

Question 55: What is the bond called when electrons are shared between two elements?

A) Covalent bond
B) Hydrogen bond
C) Ionic bond
D) Dative bond

Answer
Answer: A) Covalent bond
Explanation: A covalent bond is formed when electrons are shared between the atoms of the elements.

Question 56: The isotope of which element is used in cancer treatment?

A) Cobalt
B) Nickel
C) Aluminum
D) Iron

Answer
Answer: A) Cobalt
Explanation: Cobalt isotopes are used in cancer treatment.

Question 57: A naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO is?

A) Acetophenone
B) Benzophenone
C) Propiophenone
D) Methcathinone

Answer
Answer: B) Benzophenone

Question 58: What is the atomic mass of sodium?

A) 13
B) 23
C) 40
D) 12

Answer
Answer: B) 23
Explanation: The atomic number of sodium is 11, and it has 12 neutrons, making its atomic mass 11 + 12 = 23.

Question 59: Which gas is produced when lead nitrate is heated?

A) Nitrogen dioxide
B) Lead dioxide
C) Lead oxide
D) Nitrogen oxide

Answer
Answer: A) Nitrogen dioxide
Explanation: When lead nitrate is heated, it decomposes to produce lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen.

Question 60: Which chemical element from group 18 of the periodic table is produced in soil and rocks due to the natural radioactive decay of uranium?

A) Radon
B) Neon
C) Krypton
D) Oganesson

Answer
Answer: A) Radon

Biology GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

Biology – General Science MCQs for GK paper in competitive exams. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free online practice.

Biology GK MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following is commonly known as a blood thinner?

A) Coagulation inhibitor
B) Antibiotic
C) Immunosuppressant
D) Anticoagulant

Answer
Answer: D) Anticoagulant
Explanation: Anticoagulants are commonly known as blood thinners and are used to treat and prevent blood clots. Antibiotics are medications used to treat bacterial infections.

Question 2: Bile is stored in a sac called __________.

A) Gallbladder
B) Urinary bladder
C) Pancreas
D) Liver

Answer
Answer: A) Gallbladder
Explanation: Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder in the human digestive system.

Question 3: What is the pH of human blood?

A) 7.4
B) 10
C) 6.5
D) 5.8

Answer
Answer: A) 7.4
Explanation: The pH value of human blood is 7.4, which makes it alkaline in nature.

Question 4: Which of the following plant kingdom groups is known as algae?

A) Bryophyta
B) Thallophyta
C) Angiosperm
D) Pteridophyta

Answer
Answer: B) Thallophyta
Explanation: Thallophytes are commonly known as algae. Most of them are aquatic and represent a primitive form of plant life without vascular tissues for transporting water and minerals.

Question 5: Deficiency of which vitamin causes swollen neck glands?

A) Vitamin C
B) Iodine
C) Calcium
D) Vitamin D

Answer
Answer: B) Iodine
Explanation: Swelling in the neck glands is generally associated with iodine deficiency.

Question 6: Which of the following belongs to the Platyhelminthes classification under the kingdom Animalia?

A) Tapeworm
B) Leech
C) Wuchereria
D) Sycon

Answer
Answer: A) Tapeworm
Explanation: Tapeworm is an invertebrate parasite that lives in the bodies of vertebrates, including humans. Some species can grow up to 100 feet (30 meters) long, and their bodies are ribbon-like and segmented.

Question 7: In the cytoplasm, ribosomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus are examples of __________.

A) Organs
B) Cells
C) Organelles
D) Tissues

Answer
Answer: C) Organelles
Explanation: Golgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi body, is an organelle found in most eukaryotic cells.

Question 8: What is the normal body temperature of humans?

A) 98.6°C
B) 98.6°F
C) 37°F
D) 40°C

Answer
Answer: B) 98.6°F
Explanation: The normal body temperature is around 98.6°F (37°C). Fever is usually indicated by a temperature above 100.4°F (38°C).

Question 9: In which part of the plant does the process of respiration occur?

A) Roots
B) Stem
C) Leaves
D) Flowers

Answer
Answer: C) Leaves
Explanation: The leaves perform respiration by absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.

Question 10: How many major systems are there in the human body?

A) 7
B) 10
C) 12
D) 5

Answer
Answer: C) 12
Explanation: There are 12 major systems in the human body, such as the digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, etc.

Question 11: What is the full form of DNA?

A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
B) Deoxyribonucleotide Acid
C) Deoxyribonuclear Acid
D) Deoxynucleic Acid

Answer
Answer: A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
Explanation: The full form of DNA is Deoxyribonucleic Acid, which stores genetic information.

Question 12: By which process do herbivorous plants prepare food?

A) Respiration
B) Photosynthesis
C) Maturation
D) Regeneration

Answer
Answer: B) Photosynthesis
Explanation: Herbivorous plants prepare food through photosynthesis, which uses sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide.

Question 13: Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Pituitary Gland
D) Thyroid

Answer
Answer: B) Liver
Explanation: The liver is the largest gland in the human body and performs many important functions.

Question 14: What is an enzyme?

A) A type of vitamin
B) A type of acid
C) A type of protein
D) A type of mineral

Answer
Answer: C) A type of protein
Explanation: An enzyme is a type of protein that accelerates biological chemical reactions.

Question 15: What is the function of papillae?

A) Digesting food
B) Regulating body temperature
C) Detoxifying the body
D) Solidifying blood

Answer
Answer: A) Digesting food
Explanation: Papillae in the stomach help in digesting food.

Question 16: Which cell has a cell membrane?

A) Animal cell
B) Plant cell
C) Bacterial cell
D) All cells

Answer
Answer: D) All cells
Explanation: All cells have a cell membrane that separates the cell from its external environment.

Question 17: Which organ is not part of the central nervous system?

A) Brain
B) Spinal cord
C) Nerve
D) Brain and spinal cord

Answer
Answer: C) Nerve
Explanation: Nerves are not part of the central nervous system; the brain and spinal cord are.

Question 18: Where is energy produced in a cell?

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Chloroplast
D) Ribosome

Answer
Answer: B) Mitochondria
Explanation: Mitochondria produce the cell’s energy, known as ATP.

Question 19: Where is cartilage found?

A) In bones
B) In the skin
C) In the blood
D) In the nails

Answer
Answer: A) In bones
Explanation: Cartilage is found in bones and helps to lubricate joints.

Question 20: Which enzyme aids in chemical digestion?

A) Pancreatic lipase
B) Lactase
C) Amylase
D) All

Answer
Answer: D) All
Explanation: Pancreatic lipase, lactase, and amylase all aid in chemical digestion.

Question 21: Which gas is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Hydrogen

Answer
Answer: C) Carbon Dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis.

Question 22: Where is a virus found?

A) Microorganisms
B) Plants
C) Animals
D) Bacteria

Answer
Answer: A) Microorganisms
Explanation: A virus is found in microorganisms, such as viruses.

Question 23: In which organ does the first digestion of food occur?

A) Stomach
B) Mouth
C) Intestine
D) Esophagus

Answer
Answer: B) Mouth
Explanation: The first digestion of food occurs in the mouth, where enzymes initiate the digestion process.

Question 24: What is the study of microorganisms called?

A) Biology
B) Microbiology
C) Physiology
D) Ecology

Answer
Answer: B) Microbiology
Explanation: The study of microorganisms is called microbiology.

Question 25: Which organ purifies the blood?

A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Lungs

Answer
Answer: C) Kidneys
Explanation: The kidneys purify the blood and remove waste products.

Question 26: Which part of the papillary helps in digestion?

A) Gastric juice
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Pepsin
D) All of the above

Answer
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Gastric juice, hydrochloric acid, and pepsin all help in digestion.

Question 27: What is not present in living cells?

A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Lysosomes
D) Volcans

Answer
Answer: D) Volcans
Explanation: Volcans are not found in living cells, whereas mitochondria, chloroplast, and lysosomes are present in cells.

Question 28: What condition arises due to a lack of oxygen?

A) Hypoxia
B) Hyperthermia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypothermia

Answer
Answer: A) Hypoxia
Explanation: Hypoxia is a condition that arises due to a lack of oxygen, where the body’s tissues do not receive enough oxygen.

Question 29: What is the main organ for food transportation in plants?

A) Roots
B) Leaves
C) Stem
D) Flowers

Answer
Answer: C) Stem
Explanation: The stem is the main organ for food transportation in plants.

Question 30: How many major types of cells are there in human blood?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Answer
Answer: C) 4
Explanation: There are four major types of cells in human blood: red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and blood plasma.

Question 31: What controls cognitive functions?

A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Kidneys
D) Liver

Answer
Answer: B) Brain
Explanation: Cognitive functions, such as thinking and processing, are controlled by the brain.

Question 32: What is the function of genes?

A) Digestion of food
B) Production of energy
C) Storage of genetic information
D) Formation of blood

Answer
Answer: C) Storage of genetic information
Explanation: Genes store genetic information and transfer it to the next generation.

Question 33: What is the function of mitochondria?

A) Production of energy
B) Protein synthesis
C) Cell division
D) Cell structure

Answer
Answer: A) Production of energy
Explanation: Mitochondria produce energy in the cell.

Question 34: What type of organism are bacteria?

A) Unicellular
B) Multicellular
C) Viruses
D) Fungi

Answer
Answer: A) Unicellular
Explanation: Bacteria are unicellular organisms.

Question 35: During which stage of the nutrition process is the most energy obtained?

A) Digestion of carbohydrates
B) Digestion of proteins
C) Digestion of fats
D) All equally

Answer
Answer: C) Digestion of fats
Explanation: Digestion of fats provides the most energy.

Question 36: Which gland plays a major role in body growth?

A) Thyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Pancreas
D) Liver

Answer
Answer: B) Pituitary
Explanation: The pituitary gland plays a major role in the growth of the body.

Question 37: Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin C

Answer
Answer: C) Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets (bone weakness).[

Question 38: What type of antibodies are found in blood group A?

A) B antibodies
B) A antibodies
C) AB antibodies
D) O antibodies

Answer
Answer: A) B antibodies
Explanation: Blood group A has B antibodies.

Question 39: What studies the ecosystem?

A) Zoology
B) Botany
C) Ecology
D) Microbiology

Answer
Answer: C) Ecology
Explanation: The study of ecosystems is done by ecology.

Question 40: What is a neuron?

A) Blood cell
B) Nerve cell
C) Digestive cell
D) Liver cell

Answer
Answer: B) Nerve cell
Explanation: A neuron is a nerve cell and an essential part of the nervous system.

Question 41: Which organ produces hormones?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Kidneys

Answer
Answer: C) Thyroid
Explanation: The thyroid produces hormones that control many vital functions in the body.

Question 42: Which organ plays a major role in the process of respiration?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

Answer
Answer: B) Lungs
Explanation: The lungs play a major role in respiration, facilitating the exchange of oxygen.

Question 43: In the digestive system, which organ produces digestive enzymes?

A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Stomach
D) Intestine

Answer
Answer: B) Pancreas
Explanation: The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that aid in food digestion.

Question 44: Which organ in plant cells assists in photosynthesis?

A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Ribosome
D) Nucleus

Answer
Answer: B) Chloroplast
Explanation: Chloroplasts assist in photosynthesis in plant cells.

Question 45: What is the largest organ in the human body?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Skin
D) Kidneys

Answer
Answer: C) Skin
Explanation: The skin is the largest organ in the human body.

Question 46: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease?

A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Pellagra
D) Burkitt’s

Answer
Answer: B) Scurvy
Explanation: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to scurvy, which causes swollen and bleeding gums.

Question 47: What is the largest cell in the human body?

A) Human Egg
B) Red Blood Cell
C) Liver Cell
D) Nerve Cell

Answer
Answer: A) Human Egg
Explanation: The human egg (ovum) is the largest cell in the human body.

Question 48: What is considered the best sensory organ?

A) Eye
B) Ear
C) Skin
D) Nose

Answer
Answer: C) Skin
Explanation: The skin is considered the best sensory organ because it can sense many stimuli.

Question 49: Which nutrient is most essential for nutrition?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
C) Fats
D) Vitamins

Answer
Answer: A) Carbohydrates
Explanation: Carbohydrates are the main source of energy and are thus the most essential.

Question 50: What is the name of the plant hormone that regulates growth?

A) Ethylene
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Gibberellin

Answer
Answer: B) Auxin
Explanation: Auxin controls the growth of plants.

Question 51: Which organ regulates blood pressure?

A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Lungs

Answer
Answer: B) Kidneys
Explanation: The kidneys play an important role in regulating blood pressure.

Question 52: What is the study of the remains of organisms called?

A) Paleontology
B) Genetics
C) Ecology
D) Microbiology

Answer
Answer: A) Paleontology
Explanation: The study of the remains of organisms is called Paleontology.

Question 53: What part is included in the structure of a virus?

A) Nucleus
B) Protein coat
C) Mitochondria
D) Chloroplast

Answer
Answer: B) Protein coat
Explanation: The structure of a virus includes a protein coat that protects the genetic material.

Question 54: Which part of the plant absorbs water?

A) Leaves
B) Stem
C) Roots
D) Flowers

Answer
Answer: C) Roots
Explanation: Water is primarily absorbed by the roots of plants.

Question 55: What does Maltase digest?

A) Proteins
B) Fats
C) Carbohydrates
D) Vitamins

Answer
Answer: C) Carbohydrates
Explanation: The enzyme Maltase digests carbohydrates.

Question 56: In which part of the body does fat digestion occur?

A) Stomach
B) Intestine
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

Answer
Answer: B) Intestine
Explanation: Fat digestion primarily occurs in the intestine.

Question 57: Which organ plays a major role in drug absorption?

A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Intestine
D) Liver

Answer
Answer: C) Intestine
Explanation: Drug absorption primarily takes place in the intestine.

Question 58: Where are RBCs produced in the body?

A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Bone marrow
D) Liver

Answer
Answer: C) Bone marrow
Explanation: Red blood cells (RBCs) are produced in the bone marrow.

Question 59: What is the most important organ in the process of respiration?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

Answer
Answer: B) Lungs
Explanation: The lungs are the most important organs in the process of respiration.

Question 59: Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

A) Louis Pasteur
B) Charles Darwin
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Robert Hooke

Answer
Answer: B) Charles Darwin
Explanation: The theory of natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin.

Question 60: Which organ is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

A) Bone marrow
B) Heart
C) Brain
D) Lungs

Answer
Answer: A) Bone marrow
Explanation: Red blood cells, most white blood cells, and platelets are produced in the bone marrow.

Environment GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

Environment General Knowledge (GK) MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams.
Medium: English
Important Questions from previous year exam papers.

Question 1: What is the biotic component of the environment and ecology?

A) Soil
B) Water
C) Air
D) Vegetation

Answer
Answer: (D) Vegetation
Explanation: The biotic component of the environment and ecology refers to living elements, including vegetation, animals, and microorganisms.

Question 2: What is an example of a natural ecosystem?

A) Farmland
B) Dam
C) Lake
D) Park

Answer
Answer: (C) Lake
Explanation: Natural ecosystems exist without human intervention, such as lakes, forests, and rivers.

Question 3: What are herbivores called?

A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Tertiary consumers

Answer
Answer: (B) Primary consumers
Explanation: Herbivores that consume plants are called primary consumers.

Question 4: What is the primary source of energy in an ecosystem?

A) Geothermal energy
B) Sun
C) Greenhouse gases
D) Moon

Answer
Answer: (B) Sun
Explanation: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is the Sun, which provides energy to plants through photosynthesis.

Question 5: Which plant species is classified as endangered in India?

A) Mango
B) Sheesham
C) Teak
D) Sandalwood

Answer
Answer: (D) Sandalwood
Explanation: Due to the high demand for sandalwood and its oil, it has been classified as an endangered plant species.

Question 6: Where is Kaziranga National Park located?

A) Uttarakhand
B) Assam
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Nagaland

Answer
Answer: (B) Assam
Explanation: Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, famous for its one-horned rhinoceroses.

Question 7: What is the major source of carbon dioxide emissions?

A) Fossil fuel combustion
B) Animal respiration
C) Volcanic activity
D) Marshlands

Answer
Answer: (A) Fossil fuel combustion
Explanation: The burning of fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide, which is a major contributor to air pollution and global warming.

Question 8: What is the major impact of deforestation?

A) Soil erosion
B) Weed control
C) Reduction in sunlight
D) Increase in grazing land

Answer
Answer: (A) Soil erosion
Explanation: Deforestation leads to increased soil erosion, reducing soil fertility and negatively affecting agriculture.

Question 9: What is a natural source of nitrous oxide gas?

A) Desert soils
B) Polar soils
C) Temperate soils
D) Tropical soils

Answer
Answer: (D) Tropical soils
Explanation: Tropical soils naturally emit nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas.

Question 10: How do forests help control drought?

A) Forests prevent soil erosion.
B) Forests contribute to rainfall.
C) Forests contain many aquatic plants.
D) Forests act as water reservoirs.

Answer
Answer: (B) Forests contribute to rainfall.
Explanation: Forests influence local climate through evaporation and contribute to rainfall, helping to control drought.

Question 11: Which is the only carbon-neutral country in the world?

A) Sweden
B) New Zealand
C) Finland
D) Canada

Answer
Answer: (A) Sweden
Explanation: Sweden is recognized as the only carbon-neutral country due to its green energy sources and measures to reduce carbon emissions.

Question 12: The cause of global warming is:

A) Decrease in carbon dioxide
B) Increase in carbon dioxide
C) Increase in forests
D) None of these

Answer
Answer: (B) Increase in carbon dioxide
Explanation: The main cause of global warming is the rising levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

Question 13: Which greenhouse gas is produced by ruminant animals?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water vapor
C) Methane (CH4)
D) Nitrous oxide

Answer
Answer: (C) Methane (CH4)
Explanation: Ruminant animals produce methane gas during their digestive process, which is a greenhouse gas.

Question 14: Which pollutant gas is emitted by vehicles?

A) Hydrocarbons
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Nitrogen oxides

Answer
Answer: (C) Carbon monoxide
Explanation: Carbon monoxide is a major pollutant gas emitted by vehicles, which is harmful to health.

Question 15: Air pollution can be reduced by:

A) Sunlight
B) Trees
C) Restricting loudspeakers
D) None of these

Answer
Answer: (B) Trees
Explanation: Trees absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen, helping to reduce air pollution.

Question 16: The “Harela Festival” celebrated in Uttarakhand is related to:

A) Water conservation
B) Tree plantation
C) Ozone protection
D) None of these

Answer
Answer: (B) Tree plantation
Explanation: The “Harela Festival” is celebrated in Uttarakhand as a symbol of tree plantation and environmental conservation.

Question 17: Which country experiences the most acid rain?

A) Japan
B) China
C) Norway
D) United States of America

Answer
Answer: (C) Norway
Explanation: Norway experiences the most acid rain due to high levels of sulfur and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere from industrial activities.

Question 18: The ozone layer absorbs harmful rays known as:

A) Gamma rays
B) Ultraviolet rays
C) X-rays
D) None of these

Answer
Answer: (B) Ultraviolet rays
Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet rays, which can be harmful to living organisms.

Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?

A) March 22
B) April 22
C) June 5
D) August 15

Answer
Answer: (B) April 22
Explanation: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22 every year to raise awareness about environmental protection.

Question 20: When was the Environmental Protection Act implemented?

A) 1972
B) 1986
C) 1992
D) 2000

Answer
Answer: (B) 1986
Explanation: The Environmental Protection Act was implemented in India in 1986 to provide laws for the protection and improvement of the environment.

Question 21: Which pollutant causes damage to the ozone layer?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
D) Sulfur dioxide

Answer
Answer: C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
Explanation: CFCs damage the ozone layer, allowing harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun to reach the Earth.

Question 22: Which gas is not considered a greenhouse gas?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrous oxide

Answer
Answer: C) Oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen is not a greenhouse gas because it does not trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Question 23: What is the largest source of plant life?

A) Desert
B) Ocean
C) Forest
D) Grassland

Answer
Answer: C) Forest
Explanation: Forests are the largest source of plant life on Earth and they produce a large amount of oxygen.

Question 24: What is natural vegetation?

A) Plants planted by humans
B) Naturally growing plants
C) Agricultural plants
D) Decorative plants

Answer
Answer: B) Naturally growing plants
Explanation: Natural vegetation consists of plants that grow naturally without human intervention.

Question 25: What does the Red Data Book provide information about?

A) New species of plants
B) Endangered and extinct species
C) Medicinal plants
D) Food plants

Answer
Answer:B) Endangered and extinct species
Explanation: The Red Data Book provides information about endangered and extinct species.

Question 26: Which process is not a part of the water cycle?

A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Nitrification
D) Precipitation

Answer
Answer: C) Nitrification
Explanation: Nitrification is part of the nitrogen cycle, not the water cycle.

Question 27: Which instrument is not used for environmental studies?

A) Barometer
B) Seismograph
C) Hygrometer
D) Galvanometer

Answer
Answer: D) Galvanometer
Explanation: A galvanometer is used to measure electric current, which is not an environmental study tool.

Question 28: What is the most important role of biodiversity?

A) Energy production
B) Ecological balance
C) Industrial development
D) Urbanization

Answer
Answer: B) Ecological balance
Explanation: Biodiversity plays a crucial role in maintaining ecological balance.

Question 29: Which gas is most responsible for the greenhouse effect?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium

Answer
Answer: C) Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is the most prominent greenhouse gas and plays a significant role in the greenhouse effect.

Question 30: By which process does water vapor reach the atmosphere?

A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Nitrification

Answer
Answer: B) Evaporation
Explanation: Water turns into vapor and reaches the atmosphere through the process of evaporation.

Question 31: Which fuel is less polluting?

A) Coal
B) Diesel
C) Natural Gas
D) Petrol

Answer
Answer: C) Natural Gas
Explanation: Natural gas is less polluting compared to coal and diesel.

Question 32: What does the term “carbon footprint” mean?

A) Carbon accumulation
B) Carbon production
C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization
D) Carbon usage

Answer
Answer: C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization
Explanation: The carbon footprint refers to the total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization.

Question 33: Which element is most essential for life on Earth?

A) Carbon
B) Nitrogen
C) Water
D) Oxygen

Answer
Answer: C) Water
Explanation: Water is the most essential element for life on Earth as it is necessary for the survival of all living beings.

Question 34: Which process affects vegetation and drainage?

A) Erosion
B) Reforestation
C) Degradation
D) Afforestation

Answer
Answer: D) Afforestation
Explanation: Afforestation promotes the growth of vegetation and affects drainage.

Question 35: Which factor is not involved in natural disasters?

A) Earthquake
B) Flood
C) Cyclone
D) Afforestation

Answer
Answer: D) Afforestation
Explanation: Afforestation is not a natural disaster; it is an environmental conservation measure.

Question 36: Which gas is found in the highest amount in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Helium

Answer
Answer: B) Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen is found in the highest quantity in the atmosphere, about 78%.

Question 37: Which gas is present in the smallest percentage in Earth’s atmosphere?

A) Nitrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Argon

Answer
Answer: C) Carbon Dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is present in the smallest percentage in the atmosphere, about 0.04%.

Question 38: Which environmental pollutant causes acid rain?

A) Carbon Monoxide
B) Sulfur Dioxide
C) Methane
D) Nitrogen

Answer
Answer: B) Sulfur Dioxide
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide and nitrous oxide cause acid rain, which harms the environment.

Question 39: Which process helps maintain environmental balance?

A) Urbanization
B) Industrialization
C) Reforestation
D) Afforestation

Answer
Answer: D) Afforestation
Explanation: Afforestation helps maintain environmental balance as it increases the number of forests.

Question 40: What is the main cause of climate change?

A) Solar activities
B) Natural disasters
C) Greenhouse gas emissions
D) The position of the moon

Answer
Answer: C) Greenhouse gas emissions
Explanation: The main cause of climate change is the emission of greenhouse gases, which increase Earth’s heat.

Question 41: Which process produces oxygen?

A) Respiration
B) Evaporation
C) Photosynthesis
D) Nitrification

Answer
Answer: C) Photosynthesis
Explanation: Plants produce oxygen during the process of photosynthesis.

Question 42: Which natural resource is not renewable?

A) Solar energy
B) Water energy
C) Coal
D) Wind energy

Answer
Answer: C) Coal
Explanation: Coal is a non-renewable resource because it takes millions of years to regenerate.

Question 43: Which organization works on issues related to climate change?

A) WHO
B) IMF
C) IPCC
D) UNESCO

Answer
Answer: C) IPCC
Explanation: The IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) works on issues related to climate change.

Question 44: Which process is not a part of the carbon cycle?

A) Respiration
B) Weathering
C) Combustion
D) Condensation

Answer
Answer: D) Condensation
Explanation: Condensation is a part of the water cycle, while respiration, weathering, and combustion are parts of the carbon cycle.

Question 45: Which process causes water pollution?

A) Erosion
B) Excessive use of fertilizers
C) Condensation
D) Afforestation

Answer
Answer: B) Excessive use of fertilizers
Explanation: Excessive use of fertilizers pollutes water sources and causes water pollution.

Question 46: Which waste is not recyclable?

A) Plastic
B) Paper
C) Glass
D) Organic waste

Answer
Answer: D) Organic waste
Explanation: Organic waste is not recyclable, but it can be decomposed through composting.

Question 47: Which process helps in preventing global warming?

A) Combustion
B) Industrialization
C) Afforestation
D) Urbanization

Answer
Answer: C) Afforestation
Explanation: Afforestation helps prevent global warming by reducing the level of carbon dioxide.

Question 48: Which gas causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium

Answer
Answer: C) Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas that causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere.

Question 49: Which is a key component of the ecosystem?

A) Water
B) Atmosphere
C) Soil
D) All of the above

Answer
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Water, atmosphere, and soil are all key components of the ecosystem.

Question 50: Which process harms the environment?

A) Afforestation
B) Reforestation
C) Combustion
D) Water conservation

Answer
Answer: C) Combustion
Explanation: Combustion harms the environment by emitting harmful gases.

Question 51: What is the main cause of climate change?

A) Natural disasters
B) Emission of greenhouse gases
C) Solar activities
D) Moon’s position

Answer
Answer: B) Emission of greenhouse gases
Explanation: The emission of greenhouse gases is the primary cause of climate change.

Question 52: Which process helps in purifying the environment?

A) Urbanization
B) Industrialization
C) Reclamation
D) Afforestation

Answer
Answer: D) Afforestation
Explanation: Afforestation helps in purifying the environment by increasing the number of forests and purifying the air.

Question 53: What is the primary function of the ozone layer?

A) To heat the Earth
B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun
C) To promote rainfall
D) To cool the atmosphere

Answer
Answer: B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun
Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun, ensuring the safety of life on Earth.

Question 54: Which gas damages the ozone layer?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

Answer
Answer: D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Explanation: CFCs damage the ozone layer, allowing ultraviolet rays to reach Earth.

Question 55: What is the full form of CNG?

A) Compound Natural Gas
B) Compressed Natural Gas
C) Complete Natural Gas
D) Natural Gas

Answer
Answer: B) Compressed Natural Gas

Question 56: Where is the National Environmental Research Institute located?

A) Bhopal
B) Lucknow
C) Nagpur (Maharashtra)
D) Delhi

Answer
Answer: C) Nagpur (Maharashtra)

Question 57: In which category do various types of fungi fall?

A) Producers
B) Consumers
C) Decomposers
D) Abiotic

Answer
Answer: C) Decomposers

Question 58: Which country has the highest biodiversity?

A) Germany
B) India
C) China
D) South Africa

Answer
Answer: B) India

Question 59: Which disease has increased due to ozone layer depletion and ozone holes?

A) Malaria
B) AIDS
C) Cholera
D) Skin cancer

Answer
Answer: D) Skin cancer

Question 60: Sound pollution is measured in:

A) Fathom
B) Decibels
C) Tons
D) Kilograms

Answer
Answer: B) Decibels

Question 61: The specific cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called _______.

A) Agriculture
B) Horticulture
C) Sericulture
D) Fish farming

Answer
Answer: B) Horticulture

Government Approves Key Initiatives for Livestock, Dairy, and Digital Payments

On March 19, 2025, the government announced major decisions to boost growth across multiple sectors. Here’s a quick overview of the key approvals:

1️⃣ Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission: With an additional outlay of ₹1,000 crore, this mission aims to enhance milk production and productivity, directly benefiting farmers by increasing their incomes.

2️⃣ National Program for Dairy Development: Focused on modernizing and expanding dairy infrastructure, the revised program will ensure the sector’s sustained growth and productivity.

3️⃣ Incentive Scheme for BHIM-UPI Transactions: To promote low-value digital payments, small merchants will receive a 0.15% incentive per transaction (up to ₹2,000) at no extra cost, encouraging the adoption of UPI services.

4️⃣ New Ammonia-Urea Fertilizer Plant in Assam: A Brownfield Ammonia-Urea Complex will be established at Namrup, enhancing domestic urea production. This plant will meet the rising fertilizer demand in Northeast India, Bihar, West Bengal, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, and Jharkhand.

Bill Gates in India: March 2025 Visit Highlights

Bill Gates visited India in March 2025, focusing on fostering innovation and partnerships in healthcare, agriculture, and AI. Key highlights of his visit include:

March 18, 2025: Gates met with Prime Minister Narendra Modi to discuss the “Viksit Bharat 2047” vision and India’s progress in digital public infrastructure, including Aadhaar and UPI. They explored the use of AI and technology for solving global challenges.

March 19, 2025: He engaged with Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda, reviewing collaborative efforts in maternal health, immunization, and sanitation. They also discussed renewed healthcare partnerships.

March 20, 2025: Gates met with Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan to explore advancements in climate-resilient crops, biofortification, and AI-powered farming.

India and France Conduct 23rd Edition of Naval Exercise VARUNA, March 2025

The Indian Navy and the French Navy conducted the 23rd edition of Exercise VARUNA from March 19 to 22, 2025, reinforcing their longstanding maritime partnership. Launched in 2001, this bilateral exercise has become a symbol of both nations’ commitment to regional and global maritime security.

This year’s drills featured major naval assets, including INS Vikrant and FS Charles de Gaulle, accompanied by fighter jets like MiG-29K and Rafale-M, destroyers, frigates, and an Indian Scorpene-class submarine. The exercise involved air defense drills, mock air-to-air combat, and anti-submarine warfare to enhance operational coordination.

Additional activities, such as surface warfare maneuvers, maritime patrols, and replenishment-at-sea exercises, further bolstered logistical and tactical interoperability.

VARUNA 2025 stands as a testament to the strong defense ties between India and France, promoting a shared vision of a free, open, and secure maritime environment.

World Sparrow Day: Protecting Our Feathered Friends

Every year on March 20, we celebrate World Sparrow Day to raise awareness about the alarming decline of sparrows due to urbanization, pollution, and habitat loss. Sparrows play a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance by controlling insect populations, aiding in pollination, and dispersing seeds.

Founded in 2010 by the conservation group Nature Forever, World Sparrow Day is now recognized in over 50 countries, highlighting the urgent need for action. In India, where sparrows are lovingly known as Goraiya (Hindi), Kuruvi (Tamil), and Chirya (Urdu), their population has declined drastically.

🚨 Why Are Sparrows Disappearing?

  • Loss of Nesting Spaces: Modern infrastructure lacks the small nooks and crevices sparrows prefer.
  • Toxic Compounds: Unleaded petrol and pesticides reduce insect populations, the primary food source for sparrows.
  • Urban Expansion: Green spaces are shrinking, leaving little room for sparrows to thrive.

🌿 How Can We Help?

  • Plant native greenery to attract insects and provide food for sparrows.
  • Reduce the use of chemical pesticides.
  • Install nesting boxes in your garden or balcony.
  • Provide a small water source like a birdbath.

💡 Inspiring Conservation Efforts

  • The Koodugal Trust in Chennai has installed over 10,000 nests since 2020, significantly increasing sparrow populations.
  • In Mysuru, the Early Bird Campaign educates children through birdwatching trips and community events.
  • Delhi declared the house sparrow its state bird in 2012, symbolizing its commitment to conservation.

International Olympic Committee recommends inclusion of boxing in Los Angeles 2028 Games

The International Olympic Committee (IOC) executive board has recommended the inclusion of boxing in the Los Angeles 2028 Olympics, ending uncertainty over the sport’s Olympic future. The recommendation will be voted on at an IOC session in Greece this week, with approval expected.

In 2023, the International Boxing Association (IBA) was stripped of IOC recognition due to governance and financial issues, leading to the creation of World Boxing, which now has over 80 national federations. The IOC has stated that only athletes from federations affiliated with World Boxing by the start of the 2028 qualification events will be eligible to compete.

The IOC had previously run boxing at Tokyo 2021 and Paris 2024 after suspending the IBA in 2019. The Russian Olympic Committee (ROC) also remains banned due to its recognition of Russian-occupied Ukrainian regions. However, Russia may return to the Olympics if it complies with the Olympic Charter.

Scroll to Top