Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ for Competitive Exams

ByAjay Gulia

Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

Neighbouring Countries of India MCQs

Question 1: With how many countries does India share its borders in total?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Answer
Answer: C) 7

Explanation: India shares its borders with a total of 7 countries. These countries are:

Question 2: What type of border exists between India and Sri Lanka?

A) Land border
B) Sea border
C) Border formed by rivers
D) Border formed by mountains

Answer
Answer: B) Sea border

Explanation: The border between India and Sri Lanka is a sea border. There is a maritime boundary in the sea between the two countries, defined by a sea border between the islands of ‘Daman and Nicobar’ and Sri Lanka. The major points of this border are known as ‘Adam’s Bridge’ or ‘Ram Setu’, which indicate the sea route between India and Sri Lanka.

Question 3: Which neighboring country is located in the northwest of India?

A) Nepal
B) Bhutan
C) Pakistan
D) Myanmar

Answer
Answer: C) Pakistan

Explanation: Pakistan is located in the northwest of India and shares its western border with India.

Question 4: In which direction is the border between India and Bangladesh located?

A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West

Answer
Answer: C) East

Explanation: The border between India and Bangladesh is in the east. Bangladesh is located to the east of India.

Question 5: Which country is located in the north of India?

A) Bhutan
B) Sri Lanka
C) Bangladesh
D) Myanmar

Answer
Answer: A) Bhutan

Explanation: Bhutan is located in the north of India. Bhutan’s border is in the north of India, while the borders of other countries are in different directions of India.

Question 6: What is the length of the border between India and Bhutan?

A) 699 kilometers
B) 500 kilometers
C) 400 kilometers
D) 700 kilometers

Answer
Answer: A) 699 kilometers

Explanation: The length of the border between India and Bhutan is approximately 600 kilometers.

Question 7: What is the total length of India’s land border?

A) 15,200 kilometers
B) 14,800 kilometers
C) 15,700 kilometers
D) 16,000 kilometers

Answer
Answer: A) 15,200 kilometers

Explanation: The length of its land borders is approximately 15,200 km. While the total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.

Question 8: What is the total length of the border between India and Bangladesh?

a) 4906 kilometers
b) 5096 kilometers
c) 7094 kilometers
d) 6096 kilometers

Answer
Answer: a) 4906 kilometers

Explanation: Bangladesh and India share a 4,096 kilometer (2,545 mi) international border, which is the fifth-longest land border in the world.

Question 9: What type of border exists between India and Nepal?

A) Sea border
B) International border
C) Provincial border
D) Border formed by rivers

Answer
Answer: B) International border

Explanation: The border between India and Nepal is an open international border that demarcates the boundaries of Nepal with various Indian states.

Question 10: What is the name of the major border line between India and Pakistan?

A) Durand Line
B) Line of Actual Control (LoC)
C) Raja Line
D) Radcliffe Line

Answer
Answer: D) Radcliffe Line

Explanation: The major border line between India and Pakistan is called the “Radcliffe Line”. This line was drawn in 1947 by British official Sir Cyril John Radcliffe during the partition of India and Pakistan. It defines the international border between India and Pakistan.

Question 11: The border of Afghanistan touches which one Union Territory of India?

a) Ladakh
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Uttarakhand

Answer
Answer: A) Ladakh

Explanation: The border of Afghanistan touches only the Union Territory of Ladakh in India. A small part of Ladakh, commonly known as the Wakhan Corridor, borders Afghanistan. There is no direct border post or line of control in this area, but geographically, the border meets here.

Question 12: Which state does not share a border with Nepal?

a) Bihar

b) Uttar Pradesh

c) Sikkim

d) Assam

Answer
Answer: d) Assam

Explanation: Assam does not share its border with Nepal. The border between India and Nepal is an open international border between India and Nepal.

Question 13: Which is the smallest neighboring country of India in terms of area?

a) Bhutan
b) China

c) Sikkim

d) Assam

Answer
Answer: a) Bhutan

Explanation: Bhutan is the smallest among India’s neighboring countries.

Question 14: The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states of India?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Answer
Answer: B) 8

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through a total of eight states of India (Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram).

Question 15: At which latitude is the Equator located?

A) 0°
B) 23.5° North
C) 23.5° South
D) 45°

Answer
Answer: A) 0°

Explanation: The Equator divides the Earth into the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere, and its latitude is zero degrees (0°).

Question 16: Which hemisphere is located to the north of the Equator?

a) Southern Hemisphere
b) Northern Hemisphere
c) Arctic Hemisphere
d) Antarctic Hemisphere

Answer
Answer: B) Northern Hemisphere

Explanation: The Northern Hemisphere is to the north of the Equator, and the Southern Hemisphere is to the south.

Question 17: At which latitude is the Tropic of Cancer located?

A) 20° North
B) 23.5° North
C) 25° North
D) 30° North

Answer
Answer: B) 23.5° North

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer is located at 23.5° North latitude and is a major line of latitude in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 18: Which countries are located to the east of India?

a) Nepal and Bhutan
b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
c) Bangladesh and Myanmar
d) Sri Lanka and Maldives

Answer
Answer: C) Bangladesh and Myanmar

Explanation: Bangladesh and Myanmar are located to the east of India. Bangladesh is situated on India’s eastern border, and Myanmar is also located in India’s northeast direction.

Question 19: Which state of India is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides?

a) Maharashtra
b) Kathmandu
c) Chennai
d) Tripura

Answer
Answer: d) Tripura

Explanation: Tripura is situated between the river valleys of Bangladesh and Myanmar. It is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides and is connected to Assam and Mizoram only in the northeast.

Question 20: What was the old name of Myanmar?

a) Sri Lanka
b) Burma
c) Yavadvipa
d) Thailand

Answer
Answer: b) Burma

Explanation: In 1989, the official English name of the country was changed from the Union of Burma to the Union of Myanmar.

Question 21: By what name was Sri Lanka formerly known?

a) Siam
b) Salisbury
c) Ceylon
d) Sandwich Islands

Answer
Answer: c) Ceylon

Explanation: Until 1972, its name was Ceylon, which was changed to Lanka in 1972, and in 1978, the honorific “Sri” was added before it, making it Sri Lanka.

Question 22: How many states of India are on the coast of the sea?

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

Answer
Answer: c) 9

Explanation: The Indian seacoast touches nine states – Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, and two Union Territories – Daman and Diu and Puducherry.

Question 23: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following states?

a) Odisha
b) Gujarat
c) Rajasthan
d) West Bengal

Answer
Answer: a) Odisha

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through the state of Odisha.

Question 24: Which state of India does the Tropic of Cancer pass through?

a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Bihar
d) Jharkhand

Answer
Answer: d) Jharkhand

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through several states of India, including Jharkhand.

Question 25: Which place is located closest to the Equator?

a) Cape Comorin
b) Rameswaram
c) Indira Point
d) Indira Col

Answer
Answer: c) Indira Point

Explanation: Indira Point, located in the southern part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is the closest point to the Equator.

Question 26: Where is New Moore Island located?

a) Arabian Sea
b) Bay of Bengal
c) Gulf of Mannar
d) Andaman Sea

Answer
Answer: b) Bay of Bengal

Explanation: New Moore Island is a submerged island located in the Bay of Bengal. This island is situated to the south of Bangladesh and to the east of West Bengal.

Question 27: Which water body separates India and Sri Lanka?

a) Great Channel
b) Palk Strait
c) 8 Degree Channel
d) 10 Degree Channel

Answer
Answer: b) Palk Strait

Explanation: The Palk Strait is a strait located between the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Jaffna District of the Northern Province of Sri Lanka. This strait connects the Palk Bay in the northeast with the Gulf of Mannar in the southwest.

Question 28: Which line forms the border between India and China?

a) Radcliffe Line
b) McMahon Line
c) Durand Line
d) Stateford Line

Answer
Answer: b) McMahon Line

Explanation: The McMahon Line marks the boundary between the Chinese-occupied and Indian-occupied regions of the eastern Himalayan region. This border line was the center and cause of the Sino-Indian War.

Question 29: India does not have a land international border with which country?

a) Pakistan
b) Bangladesh
c) Bhutan
d) Sri Lanka

Answer
Answer: d) Sri Lanka

Explanation: India does not share a land international border with Sri Lanka.

Question 30: India has the shortest land border with which country?

a) Pakistan
b) Nepal
c) Myanmar
d) Bhutan

Answer
Answer: d) Bhutan

Explanation: Bhutan, a Buddhist kingdom on the eastern edge of the Himalayas, is known for its monasteries, fortresses (or dzongs), and dramatic landscapes.

Question 31: Which place in India is currently known as ‘White Water’?

a) Leh
b) Ladakh
c) Kargil
d) Siachen

Answer
Answer: d) Siachen

Explanation: Situated in rugged mountains, this place is always covered with snow, which is why it is also known as White Water.

Question 32: What is the area of India?

a) 3,257,405 sq km
b) 3,268,276 sq km
c) 3,287,263 sq km
d) 3,287,679 sq km

Answer
Answer: c) 3,287,263 sq km

Explanation: The area of India is 3,287,263 sq km, stretching from the snow-capped Himalayas in the north to the equatorial rainforests in the south.

Question 33: In which hemisphere is India located?

a) Northern and Eastern
b) Southern and Eastern
c) Northern and Western
d) Northern and Southern

Answer
Answer: a) Northern and Eastern

Explanation: It is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, between latitudes 8° 4′ and 37° 6′ north of the Equator, and longitudes 68° 7′ and 97° 25′ east.

Question 34: Which state was formerly known as NEFA?

a) Nagaland
b) Manipur
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Assam

Answer
Answer: c) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: The North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA), originally known as the North-East Frontier Tracts (NEFT), was one of the political divisions1 in British India, and later the Republic of India until 20 January 1972, when it became2 a Union Territory. It comprised present-day Arunachal Pradesh and parts of Assam. Its administrative headquarters was Shillong (until 1974, when it was transferred to Itanagar). It attained statehood on 20 February 1987.

Question 35: Port Blair is located in?

a) North Andaman
b) South Andaman
c) Middle Andaman
d) Little Andaman

Answer
Answer: b) South Andaman

Explanation: Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in South Andaman Island.

Question 36: The McMahon Line, which demarcates the border between India and China, is drawn on the northern border of which of the following provinces?

a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer
Answer: d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: The McMahon Line defines the border between India and China, and this line is drawn on the northern border of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 37: The only cold desert in India is?

a) Ladakh
b) East Kameng
c) Lachen
d) Chamba

Answer
Answer: a) Ladakh

Explanation: Ladakh is the only cold desert in India, located in the Himalayas. It is not affected by monsoons as it lies in the rain shadow region of the Himalayas.

Question 38: Adam’s Bridge is located between which two countries?

a) India and Pakistan
b) India and Bangladesh
c) India and Sri Lanka
d) India and Myanmar

Answer
Answer: c) India and Sri Lanka

Explanation: There is a chain of shoals in the shallows between the islands of Mannar, near northwestern Sri Lanka, and Rameswaram on the southeastern coast of India.

Similar Posts

  • MCQ on Vijaynagara and Bahmani Kingdoms

    GK MCQ questions on Vijaynagara and Bahmani Kingdoms for preparation of competitive exams. Question Answer from previous year exam question paper of UPSC, SSC, Bank, UPSSSC.

    Qns 1 : Which among the following was the first dynasty of Vijayanagara?
    (a) Hoysala dynasty
    (b) Sangama dynasty
    (c) Suluva dynasty
    (d) Tuluva dynasty

    Answer
    (b) Sangama dynasty

    Qns 2 : Which among the following title was adopted by Deva Raya-II?
    (a) Gajabetegara
    (b) Andhara Bhoja
    (c) Dakshinapati
    (d) Abhinav Bhoja

    Answer
    (a) Gajabetegara

    Qns 3 : Which among the following Vijayanagara ruler patronised the Madhwa saint Sripadaraya and Kannada poet Kavi Linga?
    (a) Saluva Narasimha
    (b) Immadi Narasimha
    (c) Deva Raya II
    (d) Krishnadeva Raya

    Answer
    (a) Saluva Narasimha

    Qns 4 : Who was the founder of Tuluva dynasty?
    (a) Narasu Nayak
    (b) Immadi Narasimha
    (c) Vira Narasimha
    (d) None of the above

    Answer
    (c) Vira Narasimha

    Qns 5 : Which city was founded by Krishnadeva Raya?
    (a) Warangal
    (b) Nagalapur
    (c) Udayagiri
    (d) Khandragiri

    Answer
    (b) Nagalapur

    Qns 6 : Who got the monumental Rayagopurams in front of the temples at Hampi, Tiruvannamalai, Chidambaram, Sri Rangam, Tirupati etc constructed?
    (a) Vidyaranya
    (b) Krishnadeva Raya
    (c) Harihara
    (d) Rajaraja

    Answer
    (b) Krishnadeva Raya

    Qns 7 : Who among the ruler of Vijayanagar empire after successful campaign against Bahmani kingdom adopted the title “establisher of the Yavana Kingdom”?
    (a) Krishnadeva Raya
    (b) Saluva Narasimha
    (c) Deva Raya II
    (d) Achyuta Raya

    Answer
    (a) Krishnadeva Raya

    Qns 8 : Krishnadeva raya’s Amuktamalyada is a work on
    (a) his political ideas.
    (b) public administration.
    (c) administration of justice and foreign affairs.
    (d) All of the above

    Answer
    (d) All of the above

    Qns 9 : Which of the following are true about Krishnadeva Raya?
    (a) He was known as Andhra Bhoja.
    (b) He authored ‘Amuktamalyada’ book on polity in Telugu and also a Sanskrit drama called ‘Jambavati Kalyanam’.
    (c) His court has adorned by eight celebrated poets called ‘ashtadiggajas’
    (d) All of the above

    Answer
    (d) All of the above

    Qns 10 : The Vijayanagara Empire received its death blow at the battle of
    (a) Talikota in 1565
    (b) Panipat in 1661
    (c) Talikota in 1665
    (d) Raichur in 1510

    Answer
    (a) Talikota in 1565

    Qns 11 : The Battle of Talikota was fought between
    (a) Akbar and Sultan of Malwa.
    (b) Vijayanagara and the Bahmani Kingdom
    (c) Vijayanagara and combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar and Golconda.
    (d) Sher Shah and Humayun.

    Answer
    (c) Vijayanagara and combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar and Golconda.

    Qns 12 : Who among the following was the last dynasty of Vijayanagara Empire?
    (a) Saluva dynasty
    (b) Tuluva dynasty
    (c) Aravidu dynasty
    (d) Sangama dynasty

    Answer
    (c) Aravidu dynasty

    Qns 13 : Who among the following travellers was from Italy and visited Vijayanagar Kingdom in the fifteenth century?
    (a) Nikitin
    (b) Fa-Hien
    (c) Bernier
    (d) Nicolo Conti

    Answer
    (d) Nicolo Conti

    Qns 14 : Which one of the following pairs of travellers and their nationality is not correctly matched? [NDA 2019]
    (a) Ibn Battuta – Moroccan
    (b) Duarte Barbosa – Protuguese
    (c) Jean Baptiste Tavernier – Dutch
    (d) Niccolao Manucci – Venetian

    Qns 15 : The ruins of Vijayanagara (Hampi) were brought to public light in the year 1800 by the following surveyor and engineer.
    (a) James Prinsep
    (b) Colin Mackenzie
    (c) James Rennell
    (d) Charles Metcalf

    Answer
    (b) Colin Mackenzie

    Qns 16 : The rulers of Vijaynagar promoted
    (a) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
    (b) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
    (c) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
    (d) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

    Answer
    (d) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

    Qns 17 : Which of the following temples is an example of wall inscription on which stories of Ramayana and Mahabharat are inscribed?
    (a) Tadapatri
    (b) Varadraja
    (c) Parvati
    (d) Vithalswami

    Answer
    (d) Vithalswami

    Qns 18 : The term ‘Amaram’ in the Vijayanagar Empire stood for
    (a) Grants given to the Brahamanas
    (b) Military grants
    (c) Grants given to scholar and poets
    (d) Grants given to the widows and the poor

    Answer
    (b) Military grants

    Qns 19 : Consider the following statements about Vijayanagar Empire.
    I. Vijaynagar was noted for its markets dealing in spices, textiles and precious stones.
    II. Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was characterised by the strain within the imperial structure.
    III. The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to be governed by the Rayas.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
    (a) Only III
    (b) I and II
    (c) I and III
    (d) All of these

    Answer
    (c) I and III

    Qns 20 : Which of the following was the first capital of the Bahmani Kingdom?
    (a) Bidar
    (b) Gulbarga
    (c) Daultabad
    (d) Hussainabad

    Answer
    (b) Gulbarga

    Qns 21 : In how many provinces did Bahmani kingdom under Alaudin Hasan was divided?
    (a) Four
    (b) Five
    (c) Eight
    (d) Two

    Answer
    (b) Five

    Qns 22 : Who was the ruler of Golconda when Aurangzeb seized the fort of
    Golconda in 1687?
    (a) Abul Hasan Qutb Shah
    (b) Sikandar Adil Shah
    (c) Ali Adil Shah II
    (d) Shayasta Khan

    Answer
    (a) Abul Hasan Qutb Shah

    Qns 23 : The famous Gol Gumbaz of Bijapur was built by which among the following Deccan Sultan?
    (a) Mohammad Adil Shah
    (b) Mahmud Gawan
    (c) Yusuf Adil Shah
    (d) Ismail Adil Shah

    Answer
    (a) Mohammad Adil Shah

    Qns 24 : The world famous Koh-i-Noor diamond was excavated from the mines of
    (a) Odisha
    (b) Chota nagpur
    (c) Bijapur
    (d) Golconda

    Answer
    (d) Golconda

    Qns 25 : The Bahmani architecture in the Deccan is marked by its distinct originality and independent style. Which of the following statements about Bahmani architecture are correct?
    I. It derived its elements from the architectural styles of the Delhi Sultanate and that of distant Persia.
    II. The forts built by the Bahmanis were undoubtedly the greatest monuments far exceeding any of the same period in Europe.
    III. Bahmani architecture did reflect harmonious blend of both Hindi and Islamic styles.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    (a) I, II and III
    (b) II and III
    (c) I and III
    (d) I and II

    Answer
    (c) I and III

  • Historical Sources and Pre-Historic Period (English)

    Historical Sources and Pre-Historic Period General Knowledge MCQ Questions Answers in English for SSC CGL, CPO, CHSL, UPSC and all competitive exams. Selected from previous year exam question paper for free online practice.

    Historical Sources and Pre-Historic Period

    Qns 1 : Which one of the following is oldest Veda?

    (a) Yajurveda
    (b) Rigveda
    (c) Samaveda
    (d) Atharvaveda

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Rigveda

    Qns.2 : The Rigveda is the

    (a) collection of hymns.
    (b) collection of stories.
    (c) collection of words.
    (d) text of war.

    Answer
    Ans : (a) collection of hymns.

    Qns 3: ‘Ayurveda’ that is ‘Science of Life’ appeared first in

    (a) Aranyaka
    (b) Sunyaveda
    (c) Yajurveda
    (d) Atharvaveda

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Atharvaveda

    Qns 4: King Aswapati of the Upanishadic period was the ruler of

    (a) Kashi
    (b) Kekaya
    (c) Panchala
    (d) Videha

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Kekaya

    Qns 5: The ‘Manusmriti’ mainly deals with

    (a) social order
    (b) laws
    (c) economics
    (d) state-craft

    Answer
    Ans : (b) laws

    Qns 6: In which language was the ‘Shrimad Bhagavad Gita’ originally written?

    (a) Sanskrit
    (b) Urdu
    (c) Pali
    (d) Hindi

    Answer
    Ans : (a) Sanskrit

    Qns 7: Originally the Mahabharata was known as

    (a) Brihatkatha
    (b) Brahmins
    (c) Brihatsamhita
    (d) Jayasamhita

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Jayasamhita

    Qns 8 : The number of Puranas is

    (a) 16
    (b) 18
    (c) 19
    (d) 21

    Answer
    Ans : (b) 18

    Qns 9 : The earliest evidence of man in India is found in

    (a) Nilgiri Hills
    (b) Shiwalik Hills
    (c) Nallamala Hills
    (d) Narmada Valley

    Answer
    Ans : (d) Narmada Valley

    Qns 10 : Which one of the following places is famous for pre-historic paintings?

    (a) Ajanta
    (b) Bhimbetka
    (c) Bagh
    (d) Amravati

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Bhimbetka

    Qns 11 : Which of the following sites has yielded skeleton of the dog along with human skeleton in burial?

    (a) Brahmagiri
    (b) Burzahom
    (c) Chirand
    (d) Maski

    Answer
    Ans : (b) Burzahom

    Qns 12 : Which one of the following periods is also known as Chalcolithic age?

    (a) Old stone age
    (b) New stone age
    (c) Copper age
    (d) Iron age

    Answer
    Ans : (c) Copper age

    Qns 13 : In the Chalcolithic period people of Maharashtra buried their dead under the floor of their houses in the following orientation

    (a) North to South position
    (b) South to North position
    (c) South to North position
    (d) West to East position

    Answer
    Ans : (a) North to South position

    Qns 14 : The ochre-coloured pottery was christened in

    (a) Hastinapur
    (b) Ahichatra
    (c) Nuh
    (d) Red Fort

    Answer
    Ans : (a) Hastinapur

  • Books and Authors GK MCQ for Competitive Exams

    Books and Authors GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for preparation of Competitive exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

    Books and Authors MCQs in English

    Q.1: Who is the author of the novel ‘When the River Sleeps’?
    (A) Easterine Kire
    (B) Anuradha Roy
    (C) Vikram Seth
    (D) Shobha De

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Easterine Kire

    Q.2: Which of the following books is written by Sachin Tendulkar?
    (A) Playing It My Way
    (B) Untold Story
    (C) Train to Pakistan
    (D) India of My Dreams

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Playing It My Way

    Q.3: The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ is related to whom?
    (A) William Wordsworth
    (B) John Keats
    (C) Dr. Charles Dickens
    (D) Dr. Jonathan Swift

    Answer
    Answer: (B) John Keats

    Q.4: Who is the author of the book ‘Zest for Life’?
    (A) Emile Zola
    (B) H.G. Wells
    (C) Virginia Woolf
    (D) Mark Twain

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Emile Zola

    Q.5: Who wrote the famous novel The Guide?
    (A) R.K. Narayan
    (B) Chetan Bhagat
    (C) Arundhati Roy
    (D) Satyajit Ray

    Answer
    Answer: (A) R.K. Narayan

    Q.6: Who is the author of the book Magic Seeds?
    (A) Cyrus Mistry
    (B) V.S. Naipaul
    (C) Jhumpa Lahiri
    (D) Vikram Seth

    Answer
    Answer: (B) V.S. Naipaul

    Q.7: Who is the author of the book Romancing with Life?
    (A) Kapil Dev
    (B) Dev Anand
    (C) Shashi Tharoor
    (D) Bill Clinton

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Dev Anand

    Q.8: Who is the author of Indica?
    (A) Megasthenes
    (B) Fa-Hien
    (C) Seleucus
    (D) Hiuen Tsang

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Megasthenes

    Q.9: Who wrote The Discovery of India?
    (A) Mahatma Gandhi
    (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
    (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru

    Q.10: Who wrote the book The Kingdom of God is Within You?
    (A) Leo Tolstoy
    (B) Henry David
    (C) Mahatma Gandhi
    (D) John Ruskin

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Leo Tolstoy

    Q.11: In which year was the book ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ published?
    (A) 1930
    (B) 1932
    (C) 1934
    (D) 1936

    Answer
    Answer: (D) 1936

    Q.12: Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom from Fear’?
    (A) Benazir Bhutto
    (B) Corazon Aquino
    (C) Aung San Suu Kyi
    (D) Nayantara Sahgal

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Aung San Suu Kyi

    Q.13: Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty-Four’?
    (A) J.M. Barrie
    (B) Walter Scott
    (C) George Orwell
    (D) Thomas Hardy

    Answer
    Answer: (C) George Orwell

    Q.14: Who wrote ‘Mein Kampf’?
    (A) Hitler
    (B) Mussolini
    (C) Bismarck
    (D) Mazzini

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Hitler

    Q.15: Who is the author of the book ‘The Life Divine’?
    (A) M.K. Gandhi
    (B) Rabindranath Tagore
    (C) S. Radhakrishnan
    (D) Sri Aurobindo

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Sri Aurobindo

    Q.16: Who wrote ‘Das Kapital’?
    (A) Asian Drama
    (B) Emma
    (C) Das Kapital
    (D) The Good Earth

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Das Kapital

    Q.17: Who wrote ‘Meghaduta’?
    (A) Humayun Kabir
    (B) Khushwant Singh
    (C) Banabhatta
    (D) Kalidasa

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Kalidasa

    Q.18: Which of the following is a famous English author?
    (A) Amrita Pritam
    (B) Mahadevi Verma
    (C) Ashapoorna Devi
    (D) Mulk Raj Anand

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Mulk Raj Anand

    Q.19: Who wrote ‘Indica’?
    (A) Kautilya
    (B) Megasthenes
    (C) Aryabhata
    (D) Seleucus

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Megasthenes

    Q.20: In which author’s book is the character ‘Rusty’ found?
    (A) R.K. Narayan
    (B) Ruskin Bond
    (C) R.K. Laxman
    (D) Rabindranath Tagore

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Ruskin Bond

    Q.21: Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’?
    (A) Lamarck
    (B) Buffon
    (C) Darwin
    (D) Linnaeus

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Linnaeus

    Q.22: Who wrote the book ‘Narendra Modi: A Political Biography’?
    (A) Andy Marino
    (B) David Irving
    (C) Jeffrey Dale
    (D) Kingsley Amis

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Andy Marino

    Q.23: Who is the author of ‘A Suitable Boy’?
    (A) Vikram Seth
    (B) Arundhati Roy
    (C) Khushwant Singh
    (D) None of these

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Vikram Seth

    Q.24: Which of the following books was not written by Jawaharlal Nehru?
    (A) Discovery of India
    (B) My Experiments with Truth
    (C) An Autobiography
    (D) Glimpses of World History

    Answer
    Answer: (B) My Experiments with Truth

    Q.25: Who wrote the book ‘The Hindus: An Alternative History’?
    (A) Shobhaa De
    (B) B.R. Ambedkar
    (C) Wendy Doniger
    (D) Salman Rushdie

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Wendy Doniger

    Q.26: Who wrote ‘The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian’?
    (A) R.K. Narayan
    (B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
    (C) R.K. Laxman
    (D) Rajmohan Gandhi

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri

    Q.27: Who is the author of ‘India of My Dreams’?
    (A) J.B. Kripalani
    (B) M.K. Gandhi
    (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
    (D) Jawaharlal Nehru

    Answer
    Answer: (B) M.K. Gandhi

    Q.28: Who is the author of ‘Arthashastra’?
    (A) Chandragupta
    (B) Megasthenes
    (C) Chanakya
    (D) Seleucus Nicator

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Chanakya

    Q.29: Who wrote the book ‘Beyond the Lines: An Autobiography’?
    (A) Khushwant Singh
    (B) General J.J. Singh
    (C) Kuldip Nayar
    (D) Ray Bradbury

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Kuldip Nayar

    Q.30: Who is the author of ‘Harsha Charitra’?
    (A) Banabhatta
    (B) Amarasimha
    (C) Kalidasa
    (D) Harisena

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Banabhatta

    Q.31: Who wrote the book ‘Employment, Interest, and Money’?
    (A) J.M. Keynes
    (B) A. Marshall
    (C) D. Patinkin
    (D) A. Smith

    Answer
    Answer: (A) J.M. Keynes

    Q.32: Who wrote the famous play ‘Nil Darpan’, depicting the atrocities of British indigo planters?
    (A) Premchand
    (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
    (C) Dinabandhu Mitra
    (D) Subramania Bharati

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Dinabandhu Mitra

    Q.33: Who wrote ‘One Straw Revolution’?
    (A) Rachel Carson
    (B) M.S. Swaminathan
    (C) Norman Borlaug
    (D) Masanobu Fukuoka

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Masanobu Fukuoka

    Q.34: Who wrote ‘Natyashastra’?
    (A) Bharat Muni
    (B) Narad Muni
    (C) Jandu Muni
    (D) Vyas Muni

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Bharat Muni

    Q.35: Who is the author of the book ‘A Cricketing Life’?

    (A) Christopher Martin Jenkins
    (B) Sunil Gavaskar
    (C) Kapil Dev
    (D) Tony Greig

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Christopher Martin Jenkins

    Q.36: Which of the following works was Salman Rushdie’s first novel?
    (A) Shame
    (B) Midnight’s Children
    (C) The Satanic Verses
    (D) The Moor’s Last Sigh

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Midnight’s Children

    Q.37: Which film directed by Satyajit Ray is based on Rabindranath Tagore’s story ‘Nastanirh’?
    (A) Aparajito
    (B) Charulata
    (C) Pather Panchali
    (D) Apur Sansar

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Charulata

    Q.38: Which of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan?
    (A) Malgudi Days
    (B) Swami and Friends
    (C) The Guide
    (D) The Gardener

    Answer
    Answer: (D) The Gardener

    Q.39: Which literary work was written by Krishna Devaraya?
    (A) Kavirajamarga
    (B) Ushaparinayam
    (C) Amuktamalyada
    (D) Kathasaritsagara

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Amuktamalyada

    Q.40: Who is the author of the book ‘The State of the Nation’?
    (A) Mark Tully
    (B) Vinod Mehta
    (C) Kuldip Nayar
    (D) Fali S. Nariman

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Fali S. Nariman

    Q.41: Who wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’?
    (A) Amrita Pritam
    (B) Rajmohan Gandhi
    (C) Kapil Dev
    (D) R.K. Karanjia

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Kapil Dev

    Q.42: Who is the author of the famous book ‘A Better India: A Better World’?
    (A) Azim Premji
    (B) Rajiv Sikri
    (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy
    (D) Prema Mahajan

    Answer
    Answer: (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy

    Q.43: Who wrote the book ‘The Satanic Verses’?
    (A) Agatha Christie
    (B) Gunnar Myrdal
    (C) Gabriela Sabatini
    (D) Salman Rushdie

    Answer
    Answer: (D) Salman Rushdie

    Q.44: Which of the following books was written by Atiq Rahimi?
    (A) Earth and Ashes
    (B) This Savage Rite
    (C) The Red Devil
    (D) Witness the Night

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Earth and Ashes

    Q.45: ‘Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India’ was recently in the news and banned in some Indian states including Gujarat. Who is the author of this book?
    (A) Joseph Lelyveld
    (B) Michael Ondaatje
    (C) Jack Welch
    (D) Duncan Green

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Joseph Lelyveld

    Q.46: Who is the author of the book ‘The Zigzag Way’?
    (A) Anita Desai
    (B) Salman Sodhi
    (C) Jahnavi Barua
    (D) Lisa Genova

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Anita Desai

    Q.47: Who wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence’?

    (A) Krishna Varma
    (B) Madam Cama
    (C) B.G. Tilak
    (D) V.D. Savarkar

    Answer
    Answer: (D) V.D. Savarkar

    Q.48: Who wrote the Sanskrit grammar?
    (A) Kalidasa
    (B) Charaka
    (C) Panini
    (D) Aryabhata

    Answer
    Answer: (C) Panini

    Q.49: Which of the following famous books is related to Austin?
    (A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
    (B) Leviathan
    (C) The Social Contract
    (D) The Problem of Sovereignty

    Answer
    Answer: (A) Lectures on Jurisprudence

    Q.50: Who is the author of the book ‘India Wins Freedom’?
    (A) Kuldip Nayar
    (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
    (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (D) Indira Gandhi

    Answer
    Answer: (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

  • Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

    Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams for free online practice. Collection of Important previous year questions for preparation of upcoming SSC,RRB examinations.

    Chemistry GK MCQs

    Question 1: Which of the following dietary components provides the maximum energy per gram to humans?

    A) Carbohydrates
    B) Fats
    C) Fibers
    D) Proteins

    Answer
    Answer: B) Fats]
    Explanation: Fats are the primary source of energy in our diet. 1 gram of fat provides 9.5 kilocalories of energy, which is the highest among food components.

    Question 2: Which of the following is a noble gas?

    A) Ozone
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Hydrogen
    D) Helium

    Answer
    Answer: D) Helium]
    Explanation: A noble gas is one that typically does not participate in chemical reactions and is always available in a free state.

    Question 3: Which of the following elements belongs to the d-block of the modern periodic table?

    A) Na
    B) Fe
    C) Ca
    D) Mg

    Answer
    Answer: B) Fe]
    Explanation: From the electronic configurations of elements, it is evident that Fe belongs to the d-block because its outermost electron occupies the d-orbital.

    Question 4: According to the modern periodic table, which element has the atomic number 30?

    A) Co
    B) Ni
    C) Zn
    D) Fe

    Answer
    Answer: C) Zn]
    Explanation: Zinc is a chemical element with the symbol Zn and atomic number 30.

    Question 5: Which iron ore contains the highest amount of iron?

    A) Magnetite
    B) Hematite
    C) Limonite
    D) Siderite

    Answer
    Answer: A) Magnetite]
    Explanation: Magnetite contains the highest iron content, followed by other ores in the listed order.

    Question 6: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the neutron?

    A) Chadwick
    B) Rutherford
    C) Niels Bohr
    D) Roentgen

    Answer
    Answer: A) Chadwick]
    Explanation: Sir James Chadwick, a British physicist, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935 for his discovery of the neutron in 1932.

    Question 7: What is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris?

    A) Calcium hypochlorite
    B) Calcium carbonate
    C) Calcium oxide
    D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate

    Answer
    Answer: D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate]
    Explanation: Plaster of Paris is used for setting broken bones, making sculptures and toys, and producing chalk, among other uses.

    Question 8: What is the chemical formula of washing soda?

    A) Na2SO4
    B) Ca(OH)2
    C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O
    D) NaHCO3

    Answer
    Answer: C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O]
    Explanation: Sodium carbonate is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula Na2CO3. It is commonly known as washing soda or soda ash and is used for laundry due to its alkaline nature.

    Question 9: In a water molecule, what is the ratio of the masses of hydrogen and oxygen?

    A) 1:4
    B) 1:8
    C) 1:16
    D) 1:2

    Answer
    Answer: B) 1:8]
    Explanation: The atomic mass of hydrogen is 1 u, and the atomic mass of oxygen is 16 u. Since a water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom, their mass ratio is 2:16 or 1:8.

    Question 10: α particles are doubly charged ions of ____________.

    A) Beryllium
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Helium
    D) Lithium

    Answer
    Answer: C) Helium]
    Explanation: α particles consist of two protons and two neutrons. They are doubly charged helium ions.

    Question 11: What is the atomic number of Copper?

    A) 29
    B) 26
    C) 30
    D) 32

    Answer
    Answer: A) 29
    Explanation: The atomic number of Copper is 29.

    Question 12: What is the most common isotope of Oxygen?

    A) O-16
    B) O-17
    C) O-18
    D) O-19

    Answer
    Answer: A) O-16
    Explanation: The most common isotope of Oxygen is O-16, which is found in nature in the highest abundance.

    Question 13: What is the chemical name of NH₃ (Ammonia)?

    A) Nitrogen Trihydride
    B) Hydrogen Nitride
    C) Nitrogen Hydride
    D) Hydrogen Trinitride

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nitrogen Hydride
    Explanation: NH₃ is known as Nitrogen Hydride, commonly referred to as Ammonia.

    Question 14: What is the chemical symbol for Mercury?

    A) Hg
    B) Pb
    C) Au
    D) Ag

    Answer
    Answer: A) Hg
    Explanation: The chemical symbol for Mercury is Hg.

    Question 15: Which acid is a harmful enzyme?

    A) Hydrochloric Acid
    B) Sulfuric Acid
    C) Nitric Acid
    D) Hydrofluoric Acid

    Answer
    Answer: A) Hydrochloric Acid
    Explanation: Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) is essential for digestion in the human stomach, but at high concentrations, it can be harmful.

    Question 16: What is the approximate pH value of water?

    A) 1
    B) 7
    C) 14
    D) 9

    Answer
    Answer: B) 7
    Explanation: The pH value of water is around 7, making it neutral.

    Question 17: Which element exhibits metallic properties?

    A) Hydrogen
    B) Oxygen
    C) Calcium
    D) Sulfur

    Answer
    Answer: C) Calcium
    Explanation: Calcium is a metal and shows properties similar to other metals.

    Question 18: Which chemical is a strong acid?

    A) Ethanol
    B) Acetic Acid
    C) Sulfuric Acid
    D) Ammonia

    Answer
    Answer: C) Sulfuric Acid
    Explanation: Sulfuric Acid (H₂SO₄) is a very strong acid.

    Question 19: What is formed when carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in water?

    A) Carbonic Acid
    B) Hydrochloric Acid
    C) Sulfuric Acid
    D) Nitric Acid

    Answer
    Answer: A) Carbonic Acid
    Explanation: When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, it forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).

    Question 20: Which element has the highest relative atomic mass?

    A) Hydrogen
    B) Helium
    C) Lithium
    D) Uranium

    Answer
    Answer: D) Uranium
    Explanation: Uranium has the highest relative atomic mass.

    Question 21: Which element remains in a gaseous state at room temperature?

    A) Iron
    B) Sodium
    C) Nitrogen
    D) Gold

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nitrogen
    Explanation: Nitrogen remains in a gaseous state at room temperature.

    Question 22: Which metal is the lightest?

    A) Lithium
    B) Sodium
    C) Potassium
    D) Magnesium

    Answer
    Answer: A) Lithium
    Explanation: Lithium is the lightest metal.

    Question 23: What is formed when hydrochloric acid and ammonia react?

    A) Ammonium Chloride
    B) Ammonium Hydroxide
    C) Hydrogen Chloride
    D) Hydrochloric Acid

    Answer
    Answer: A) Ammonium Chloride
    Explanation: Hydrochloric acid and ammonia combine to form ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl).

    Question 24: In chemistry, what does ‘pH’ stand for?

    A) Measurement of acidity
    B) Measurement of basicity
    C) Measurement of gaseous state
    D) Measurement of solid state

    Answer
    Answer: A) Measurement of acidity
    Explanation: pH measures acidity and basicity.

    Question 25: Which acid is a natural acid found in fruits?

    A) Sulfuric Acid
    B) Acetic Acid
    C) Citric Acid
    D) Hydrochloric Acid

    Answer
    Answer: C) Citric Acid
    Explanation: Citric acid is found in fruits, especially lemons and oranges.

    Question 26: Which element has only one electron in its outer shell?

    A) Helium
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Lithium
    D) Boron

    Answer
    Answer: B) Hydrogen
    Explanation: Hydrogen has only one electron in its outer shell.

    Question 27: What is the atomic number of Iron (Fe)?

    A) 20
    B) 26
    C) 29
    D) 32

    Answer
    Answer: B) 26
    Explanation: The atomic number of Iron (Fe) is 26.

    Question 28: What is the chemical symbol for Silver?

    A) Ag
    B) Au
    C) Pb
    D) Hg

    Answer
    Answer: A) Ag
    Explanation: The chemical symbol for silver is Ag.

    Question 29: Which element is commonly found as a diatomic molecule?

    A) Hydrogen
    B) Sodium
    C) Calcium
    D) Iron

    Answer
    Answer: A) Hydrogen
    Explanation: Hydrogen is commonly found as H₂.

    Question 30: Which gas is produced during the oxidation and burning of water?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Nitrogen
    D) Carbon Dioxide

    Answer
    Answer: B) Hydrogen
    Explanation: Hydrogen gas is produced during the electrolysis of water.

    Question 31: Which acid is predominant in acid rain?

    A) Hydrochloric acid
    B) Sulfuric acid
    C) Citric acid
    D) Acetic acid

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sulfuric acid
    Explanation: Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) plays a major role in acid rain.

    Question 32: Which chemical is used as a pesticide?

    A) Cysteine
    B) Chloroform
    C) DDT
    D) Aniline

    Answer
    Answer: C) DDT
    Explanation: DDT is used as a pesticide.

    Question 33: Which is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

    A) Oxygen
    B) Nitrogen
    C) Carbon dioxide
    D) Argon

    Answer
    Answer: B) Nitrogen
    Explanation: Nitrogen makes up 78% of the Earth’s atmosphere.

    Question 34: Which element is most commonly used as a salt?

    A) Sodium
    B) Calcium
    C) Potassium
    D) Iron

    Answer
    Answer: A) Sodium
    Explanation: Sodium is the main element used in common salts like table salt (NaCl).

    Question 35: What compound is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen?

    A) Methane
    B) Ammonia
    C) Water
    D) Carbon dioxide

    Answer
    Answer: C) Water
    Explanation: Water (H₂O) is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen.

    Question 36: Which element is used in the production of atomic bombs?

    A) Plutonium
    B) Sodium
    C) Boron
    D) Magnesium

    Answer
    Answer: A) Plutonium
    Explanation: Plutonium (Pu) is used in the production of atomic bombs.

    Question 37: Which substance is used to clean teeth?

    A) Calcium carbonate
    B) Sodium chloride
    C) Silica
    D) Glycerine

    Answer
    Answer: C) Silica
    Explanation: Silica is used in toothpaste for cleaning teeth.

    Question 38: Which substance is called ‘white poison’ in the diet?

    A) Salt
    B) Sugar
    C) Sodium bicarbonate
    D) Calcium

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sugar
    Explanation: Sugar is often referred to as ‘white poison’ due to its excessive consumption leading to health issues.

    Question 39: Which chemical is used to preserve food?

    A) Acetic acid
    B) Sulfur dioxide
    C) Hydrochloric acid
    D) Nitric acid

    Answer
    Answer: B) Sulfur dioxide
    Explanation: Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is used to preserve food.

    Question 40: Which substance is a good conductor of electricity?

    A) Wood
    B) Plastic
    C) Copper
    D) Rubber

    Answer
    Answer: C) Copper
    Explanation: Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity.

    Question 41: Which compound is found in oily color?

    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Potassium permanganate
    C) Water
    D) Sodium chloride

    Answer
    Answer: B) Potassium permanganate
    Explanation: Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) has an oily color.

    Question 42: What is the chemical symbol of Helium?

    A) He
    B) H
    C) Hg
    D) H₂

    Answer
    Answer: A) He
    Explanation: The chemical symbol for Helium is He.

    Question 43: Which chemical is used to extinguish fire?

    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Ammonia
    D) Sulfur

    Answer
    Answer: A) Carbon dioxide
    Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is used for extinguishing fires.

    Question 44: Which element plays a significant role in DNA as an important biomolecule?

    A) Carbon
    B) Hydrogen
    C) Nitrogen
    D) Oxygen

    Answer
    Answer: C) Nitrogen
    Explanation: Nitrogen plays an essential role in the structure of DNA.

    Question 45: Which element is used in radiotherapy?

    A) Iodine
    B) Sodium
    C) Boron
    D) Calcium

    Answer
    Answer: A) Iodine
    Explanation: Iodine is used in radiotherapy.

    Question 46: Which chemical is used in burning and also found in fireworks?

    A) Nitrogen
    B) Potassium nitrate
    C) Sodium chloride
    D) Hydrochloric acid

    Answer
    Answer: B) Potassium nitrate
    Explanation: Potassium nitrate (KNO₃) is used in burning and in fireworks.

    Question 47: Which color indicator is used to identify acidic properties?

    A) Red
    B) Blue
    C) Green
    D) Yellow

    Answer
    Answer: A) Red
    Explanation: Red color indicator is used to identify acidic properties.

    Question 48: Which substance dissolves in water but not in oil?

    A) Salt
    B) Sugar
    C) Flour
    D) Fat

    Answer
    Answer: A) Salt
    Explanation: Salt (sodium chloride) dissolves in water but not in oil.

    Question 49: What is the most common example of a hydrogen bond?

    A) Ammonia
    B) Water
    C) Carbon dioxide
    D) Methane

    Answer
    Answer: B) Water
    Explanation: Water is the most common example of hydrogen bonding, where hydrogen of one water molecule bonds with the oxygen of another water molecule.

    Question 50: Which element is used in batteries?

    A) Lithium
    B) Sodium
    C) Calcium
    D) Potassium

    Answer
    Answer: A) Lithium
    Explanation: Lithium is used in batteries.

    Question 51: Which element is used in making steel?

    A) Carbon
    B) Silicon
    C) Zinc
    D) Platinum

    Answer
    Answer: A) Carbon
    Explanation: Carbon is used in making steel.

    Question 52: Which element plays an important role in biological instruments?

    A) Iron
    B) Sodium
    C) Calcium
    D) Gold

    Answer
    Answer: C) Calcium
    Explanation: Calcium plays a vital role in biological structures such as bones and teeth.

    Question 53: Which metal is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust?

    A) Chromium
    B) Zinc
    C) Rhodium
    D) Tin

    Answer
    Answer: B) Zinc
    Explanation: Zinc is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust.

    Question 54: Bronze is an alloy of which of the following?

    A) Copper and Zinc
    B) Tin and Zinc
    C) Copper and Tin
    D) Iron and Zinc

    Answer
    Answer: C) Copper and Tin

    Question 55: What is the bond called when electrons are shared between two elements?

    A) Covalent bond
    B) Hydrogen bond
    C) Ionic bond
    D) Dative bond

    Answer
    Answer: A) Covalent bond
    Explanation: A covalent bond is formed when electrons are shared between the atoms of the elements.

    Question 56: The isotope of which element is used in cancer treatment?

    A) Cobalt
    B) Nickel
    C) Aluminum
    D) Iron

    Answer
    Answer: A) Cobalt
    Explanation: Cobalt isotopes are used in cancer treatment.

    Question 57: A naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO is?

    A) Acetophenone
    B) Benzophenone
    C) Propiophenone
    D) Methcathinone

    Answer
    Answer: B) Benzophenone

    Question 58: What is the atomic mass of sodium?

    A) 13
    B) 23
    C) 40
    D) 12

    Answer
    Answer: B) 23
    Explanation: The atomic number of sodium is 11, and it has 12 neutrons, making its atomic mass 11 + 12 = 23.

    Question 59: Which gas is produced when lead nitrate is heated?

    A) Nitrogen dioxide
    B) Lead dioxide
    C) Lead oxide
    D) Nitrogen oxide

    Answer
    Answer: A) Nitrogen dioxide
    Explanation: When lead nitrate is heated, it decomposes to produce lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen.

    Question 60: Which chemical element from group 18 of the periodic table is produced in soil and rocks due to the natural radioactive decay of uranium?

    A) Radon
    B) Neon
    C) Krypton
    D) Oganesson

    Answer
    Answer: A) Radon

  • Haryana GK MCQs for Competitive Exams

    Haryana General Knowledge : GK MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important previous year exam questions are provided for free online practice of students preparing for Haryana State Government jobs.

    Haryana General Knowledge questions

    Question 1: When was the state of Haryana established?
    a) 1 November 1966
    b) 15 August 1947
    c) 26 January 1950
    d) 2 October 1965

    Answer
    Answer: (a) 1 November 1966
    Explanation: Haryana was established as a separate state from Punjab on 1 November 1966. It was recognized as an independent state.

    Question 2: What is the capital of Haryana?
    a) Rohtak
    b) Faridabad
    c) Chandigarh
    d) Hisar

    Answer
    Answer: (c) Chandigarh
    Explanation: Chandigarh is the shared capital of both Haryana and Punjab.

    Question 3: Which is the largest district of Haryana in terms of area?
    a) Sirsa
    b) Bhiwani
    c) Gurugram
    d) Rohtak

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Sirsa
    Explanation: Sirsa is the largest district in Haryana by area. Earlier, Bhiwani was the largest, but after Charkhi Dadri was carved out, Sirsa became the largest.

    Question 4: Which district of Haryana is known for the cotton textile industry?
    a) Hisar
    b) Panipat
    c) Sonipat
    d) Karnal

    Answer
    Answer: (b) Panipat
    Explanation: Panipat is known for its cotton textile industry and houses many textile mills.

    Question 5: Which river is considered the most important in Haryana?
    a) Yamuna
    b) Ghaggar
    c) Sutlej
    d) Ganga

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Yamuna
    Explanation: The Yamuna River is the most important river in Haryana, flowing through the eastern part of the state.

    Question 6: What is the state bird of Haryana?
    a) House Sparrow
    b) Black Francolin
    c) Peacock
    d) Parrot

    Answer
    Answer: (b) Black Francolin
    Explanation: The Black Francolin is the state bird of Haryana.

    Question 7: Which place in Haryana is famous for ‘Bhagat Phool Singh Mahila Vishwavidyalaya’?
    a) Sonipat
    b) Panipat
    c) Rohtak
    d) Hisar

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Sonipat
    Explanation: ‘Bhagat Phool Singh Mahila Vishwavidyalaya’ is a prominent women’s university located in Sonipat.

    Question 8: What is the state flower of Haryana?
    a) Rose
    b) Lotus
    c) Sunflower
    d) Marigold

    Answer
    Answer: (b) Lotus
    Explanation: Lotus is the state flower of Haryana.

    Question 9: In which month is the ‘Surajkund Mela’ held in Haryana?
    a) January
    b) February
    c) March
    d) April

    Answer
    Answer: (b) February
    Explanation: The ‘Surajkund Mela’ is held every year in February at Surajkund in Faridabad district.

    Question 10: Which is the oldest city in Haryana?
    a) Jind
    b) Panipat
    c) Hisar
    d) Rohtak

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Jind
    Explanation: Jind is a historic city in Haryana and one of the oldest districts in the state. It serves as the district headquarters.

    Question 11: What is the state sport of Haryana?
    a) Football
    b) Kabaddi
    c) Hockey
    d) Wrestling

    Answer
    Answer: (d) Wrestling
    Explanation: Wrestling is considered the state sport of Haryana, and many wrestlers from here are famous at national and international levels.

    Question 12: What is the state tree of Haryana?
    a) Peepal
    b) Neem
    c) Banyan
    d) Mango

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Peepal
    Explanation: The Peepal tree is the state tree of Haryana and is known for its medicinal properties.

    Question 13: When was Kurukshetra University established in Haryana?
    a) 1950
    b) 1957
    c) 1960
    d) 1965

    Answer
    Answer: (b) 1957
    Explanation: Kurukshetra University was established in 1957 and is one of the leading educational institutions in the state.

    Question 14: When was the Panchayati Raj system implemented in Haryana?
    a) 1950
    b) 1956
    c) 1994
    d) 1965

    Answer
    Answer: (c) 1994
    Explanation: The Panchayati Raj system was implemented in Haryana in 1994.

    Question 15: What is the official language of Haryana?
    a) Hindi
    b) Punjabi
    c) Urdu
    d) Haryanvi

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Hindi
    Explanation: Hindi is the official language of Haryana. However, Haryanvi and Punjabi are also widely spoken.

    Question 16: Which city in Haryana is known as the hub of boxing?
    a) Bhiwani
    b) Sonipat
    c) Panchkula
    d) Gurugram

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Bhiwani
    Explanation: Bhiwani is called “Mini Cuba” and the hub of boxing because a large number of boxers come from there.

    Question 17: Which district of Haryana is known as “Science City”?
    a) Faridabad
    b) Gurugram
    c) Karnal
    d) Ambala

    Answer
    Answer: (d) Ambala
    Explanation: Ambala in Haryana is known for the production of scientific instruments.

    Question 18: What is Haryana’s rank in India by area?
    a) 20th
    b) 22nd
    c) 24th
    d) 25th

    Answer
    Answer: (a) 20th
    Explanation: Haryana ranks 20th in India by area, covering 44,212 km².

    Question 19: Which is the largest district of Haryana in terms of area?
    a) Faridabad
    b) Rohtak
    c) Panchkula
    d) Sirsa

    Answer
    Answer: (d) Sirsa
    Explanation: Sirsa is the largest district in Haryana by area, covering 4,277 sq. km.

    Question 20: In which district of Haryana is the Agricultural University located?
    a) Kurukshetra
    b) Hisar
    c) Karnal
    d) Faridabad

    Answer
    Answer: (b) Hisar
    Explanation: ‘Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University’ is located in Hisar, and it is a major center for agricultural education and research.

    Question 21: In which city of Haryana is the ‘Surajkund International Crafts Mela’ organized?
    a) Gurugram
    b) Faridabad
    c) Panchkula
    d) Karnal

    Answer
    Answer: (b) Faridabad
    Explanation: The Surajkund International Crafts Mela is held every year in Faridabad during the spring season in February.

    Question 22: In which city of Haryana is the ‘IT Park’ located?
    a) Gurugram
    b) Hisar
    c) Karnal
    d) Panchkula

    Answer
    Answer: (d) Panchkula
    Explanation: The IT Park in Panchkula was established in 2008 and is located behind Nada Sahib Gurudwara in Sector 22.

    Question 23: Where did Lord Krishna deliver the teachings of the Gita?
    a) Jyotisar
    b) Shahabad
    c) Ladwa
    d) Pehowa

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Jyotisar
    Explanation: Jyotisar in Kurukshetra is believed to be the place where Lord Krishna gave the teachings of the Gita to Arjuna during the Mahabharata war.

    Question 24: Where is the Markandeshwar Temple of Haryana located?
    a) Kurukshetra
    b) Ambala
    c) Kaithal
    d) Panipat

    Answer
    Answer: (a) Kurukshetra
    Explanation: The Markandeshwar Mahadev Temple is

    Question 25: What is the ancient epic of Haryana?

    a) Mahabharata
    b) Samaveda
    c) Atharvaveda
    d) Ramayana

    Answer
    Answer: a) Mahabharata
    Explanation: In the Indian epic Mahabharata, Haryana is mentioned as Bahudhanaka and Bahudhana, which highlights its importance and prosperity.

    Question 26: When was the Haryana State Agricultural Marketing Board established?

    a) 1 August 1969
    b) 1 September 1966
    c) 1 September 1971
    d) 1 August 1972

    Answer
    Answer: a) 1 August 1969
    Explanation: The Haryana State Agricultural Marketing Board was established on 1st August, 1969.

    Question 27: Who is known as the Iron Man of Haryana?

    a) Bansi Lal
    b) Pt. Nekiram Sharma
    c) Chaudhary Chhotu Ram
    d) Pt. Bhagwat Dayal Sharma

    Answer
    Answer: a) Bansi Lal

    Question 28: In which year was the Ambala Cantonment (military base) established in Haryana?

    a) 1839
    b) 1840
    c) 1842
    d) 1843

    Answer
    Answer: d) 1843

    Question 29: Who was the longest-serving Chief Minister of Haryana?

    a) Om Prakash Chautala
    b) Bhupinder Singh Hooda
    c) Bansi Lal
    d) Bhajan Lal

    Answer
    Answer: d) Bhajan Lal

    Question 30: In which company’s petroleum complex is located in Panipat district of Haryana?

    a) Bharat Petroleum
    b) Essar Petroleum
    c) Indian Oil Corporation
    d) Reliance Petroleum

    Answer
    Answer: c) Indian Oil Corporation

    Question 31: Which city of Haryana was described in the book of the famous Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang for its grandeur and prosperity?

    a) Panipat
    b) Rohtak
    c) Ambala
    d) Thanesar

    Answer
    Answer: d) Thanesar
    Explanation: Harshavardhana was born in 590 AD in Thanesar (Thanesar, Haryana), to King Prabhakaravardhana. Chinese Buddhist traveler Hiuen Tsang praised the achievements of King Harshavardhana in his writings.

    Question 32: What is the average height of the alluvial plains in Haryana?

    a) Between 200–220 meters
    b) Between 200–240 meters
    c) Between 210–270 meters
    d) Between 220–240 meters

    Answer
    Answer: c) Between 210–270 meters
    Explanation: The alluvial plain is situated at a height of 700 to 900 feet (210 to 270 meters), and the only perennial river, Yamuna, flows along the eastern border of the state.

    Question 33: Who was the founder of Bhiwani?

    a) Karampal
    b) Maharaja Dandpati
    c) Anangpal
    d) Neem Singh

    Answer
    Answer: d) Neem Singh
    Explanation: The district headquarters, Bhiwani city, is named after it. Bhiwani is believed to have been founded by a Rajput named Neem Singh, after his wife Bhani.

    Question 34: Markanda is a major tributary of which river?

    a) Yamuna
    b) Saraswati
    c) Indori
    d) Ghaggar

    Answer
    Answer: d) Ghaggar
    Explanation: The Markanda River is a tributary of the Ghaggar River. It originates from Uttamwala Baraban in Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh and passes through Ambala and Kurukshetra districts.

    Question 35: When was Gurgaon renamed Gurugram?

    a) 10 April 2016
    b) 11 April 2016
    c) 12 April 2016
    d) 13 April 2016

    Answer
    Answer: c) 12 April 2016
    Explanation: Gurgaon was renamed Gurugram in the year 2016.

    Question 36: Where is the Pandu Mela held?

    a) Papahana Asandh
    b) Amupur
    c) Salwan
    d) Indri

    Answer
    Answer: a) Papahana Asandh

    Question 37: Sakshi Malik, who won a medal in the Rio Olympics, belongs to which district of Haryana?

    a) Sirsa
    b) Panipat
    c) Rohtak
    d) Karnal

    Answer
    Answer: c) Rohtak
    Explanation: Sakshi Malik was born on 3rd September 1992 in Mokhra village of Rohtak district, Haryana.

    Question 38: What is the first novel written in Haryanvi?

    a) Kayakalp
    b) Harigandha
    c) Jhaadu Phiri
    d) Haryana Samvaad

    Answer
    Answer: c) Jhaadu Phiri
    Explanation: The first novel written in Haryanvi language is Jhaadu Phiri, authored by Rajaram Shastri.

    Question 39: Who started the publication of ‘Haryana Sandesh’?

    a) Brahmanand
    b) Pyarelal
    c) Atmaram Jain
    d) Pt. Neki Ram Sharma

    Answer
    Answer: d) Pt. Neki Ram Sharma
    Explanation: Haryana Sandesh was a weekly magazine started by Pt. Neki Ram Sharma.

    Question 40: Where is the tomb of Sheikh Chilli located?

    a) Thanesar
    b) Gharaunda
    c) Ganaur
    d) Jagadhri

    Answer
    Answer: a) Thanesar
    Explanation: The tomb of Sheikh Chilli is located in Thanesar near Kurukshetra.

    Question 41: What is the highest literary award of Haryana?

    a) Soor Samman
    b) Vyas Puraskar
    c) Arjun Puraskar
    d) Bheem Puraskar

    Answer
    Answer: a) Soor Samman
    Explanation: The Soor Samman Puraskar is awarded for excellence in literature and is the highest literary honor in Haryana.

    Question 42: Who led the 1857 revolt in Kharkhoda?

    a) Naharsingh
    b) Khemchand
    c) Rao Tularam
    d) Risaldar Bisarat Ali

    Answer
    Answer: d) Risaldar Bisarat Ali
    Explanation: The revolt in Kharkhoda was led by farmer leader Risaldar Bisarat Ali with the support of the Ranghars of Rohtak.

    Question 43: Where was the first horticulture university of Haryana established?

    a) Karnal
    b) Rohtak
    c) Jind
    d) Kurukshetra

    Answer
    Answer: a) Karnal
    Explanation: Haryana’s first horticulture university, Maharana Pratap Horticultural University, was established in Karnal.

    Question 44: Where did the 1857 revolt begin in Haryana?

    a) Ambala Cantonment
    b) Sirsa Cantonment
    c) Hansi Cantonment
    d) Rewari Cantonment

    Answer
    Answer: a) Ambala Cantonment
    Explanation: The 1857 revolt began at Ambala Cantonment on the morning of 10th May 1857, where the 5th Native Infantry was stationed.

    Question 45: A large region of Haryana was once called ‘Shri Kanth Janpad’. Which dynasty’s ruler gave this name?

    a) Naga
    b) Pushyabhuti
    c) Hun
    d) Gupta

    Answer
    Answer: a) Naga
    Explanation: A ruler of the Naga dynasty named a large part of Haryana as ‘Shri Kanth Janpad’.

    Question 46: Who wrote the famous book Prithviraj Raso?

    a) Chand Bardai
    b) Surdas
    c) Babur
    d) Kabirdas

    Answer
    Answer: a) Chand Bardai
    Explanation: Prithviraj Raso is an epic written by Chand Bardai, who accompanied Prithviraj Chauhan to Ghazni.

    Question 47: The majority of Haryana’s land is dominated by which type of soil?

    a) Kachari soil
    b) Desert soil
    c) Sandy-loamy soil
    d) Loamy soil

    Answer
    Answer: a) Kachari soil
    Explanation: Generally, Kachari soil is found in most parts of Haryana.

    Question 48: In which district is the urea plant located?

    a) Bhiwani
    b) Rohtak
    c) Sonipat
    d) Panipat

    Answer
    Answer: d) Panipat

    Question 49: The village of Sihi near Faridabad is considered the birthplace of which famous devotional poet?

    a) Ramdas
    b) Raidas
    c) Surdas
    d) Tulsidas

    Answer
    Answer: c) Surdas
    Explanation: Sihi village in Faridabad is believed to be the birthplace of the great saint-poet Surdas, born in 1535 (Samvat).

    Question 50: How many days did the Mahabharata war last?

    a) 12
    b) 14
    c) 16
    d) 18

    Answer
    Answer: d) 18
    Explanation: The Mahabharata war lasted for 18 days, during which Lord Krishna gave the teachings of the Gita.

    Question 51: What was the ancient name of Panipat?

    a) Thaneshwar
    b) Sthanuvishwar
    c) Panduprastha
    d) Somnath

    Answer
    Answer: c) Panduprastha
    Explanation: According to legend, Panipat was one of the five cities (prastha) established by the Pandavas, known as Panduprastha.

    Question 52: Dr. Gopi Chand Bhargava, the first Chief Minister of Punjab, belonged to which district of Haryana?

    a) Hisar
    b) Sirsa
    c) Bhiwani
    d) Yamunanagar

    Answer
    Answer: b) Sirsa
    Explanation: Dr. Gopi Chand Bhargava was born on 8 March 1889 in Sirsa, which was part of unified Punjab and is now in Haryana.

    Question 53: Where does the Saraswati River enter Haryana?

    a) From Pinjore
    b) From Kalesar
    c) From Panchkula
    d) From Adi Badri

    Answer
    Answer: d) From Adi Badri
    Explanation: The Saraswati River is believed to originate from Adi Badri, located slightly below the Shivalik Hills near Yamunanagar.

  • Ancient India History GK Questions in English

    Ancient India History GK Questions in English for the preparation of competitive exams. MCQ includes from the Historical Sources and Pre-Historic Period, Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation, Vedic Era and Mahajanapadas, Religious Movements of 6th Century, Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Period, Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period, Early Medieval Period (800-1200 CE) and Sangam Period topics.

    Important one liners of Ancient India History

    1. Which ancient Indian text is considered the oldest surviving literature in the world? (Answer: Rigveda)
    2. The Great Bath, an impressive structure from ancient India, was discovered in which civilization? (Answer: Indus Valley Civilization)
    3. Which ruler is known for his rock-cut architecture and the construction of the famous Kailasa Temple in Ellora? (Answer: King Krishna I of the Rashtrakuta dynasty)
    4. Who authored the famous treatise on statecraft known as the Arthashastra? (Answer: Chanakya or Kautilya)
    5. What is the sacred river mentioned in ancient Indian texts, often referred to as the “Ganga” of the South? (Answer: Godavari River)
    6. The Battle of Kalinga, a turning point in Indian history, was fought by which ancient Indian emperor? (Answer: Emperor Ashoka)
    7. Which ancient Indian kingdom was known for its expertise in maritime trade and shipbuilding? (Answer: Chola Empire)
    8. The rock-cut caves of Ajanta and Ellora are located in which Indian state? (Answer: Maharashtra)
    9. Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire, one of the largest empires in ancient Indian history? (Answer: Chandragupta Maurya)
    10. The ancient university of Nalanda, renowned for its excellence in education, was located in which present-day country? (Answer: India)
    11. Which ancient Indian ruler is credited with the construction of the world-famous temple complex at Khajuraho? (Answer: King Chandel of the Chandela dynasty)
    12. Who composed the epic Sanskrit poem, the Ramayana? (Answer: Valmiki)
    13. The famous Iron Pillar, known for its rust-resistant composition, is located in which ancient Indian city? (Answer: Delhi)
    14. Which ancient Indian kingdom is associated with the famous rock-cut caves of Elephanta? (Answer: Rashtrakuta dynasty)
    15. Who is considered the father of Indian surgery and authored the Sushruta Samhita, an ancient medical treatise? (Answer: Sushruta)
    16. The Ajanta Caves primarily showcase the artistic influence of which religion in ancient India? (Answer: Buddhism)
    17. The ancient city of Pataliputra, present-day Patna, served as the capital of which ancient Indian dynasty? (Answer: Maurya Empire)
    18. Who is considered the greatest ruler of the Gupta Empire, known for his patronage of art, literature, and science? (Answer: Chandragupta II, also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya)
    19. The ancient Indian numeral system, including the concept of zero, was developed during the reign of which dynasty? (Answer: Gupta Empire)

    Ancient Indian History MCQ in English

    The topic wise Ancient India History GK MCQ Questions in English button with link are given below for online practice.

    Historical Sources and Pre-Historic Period

    Historical Sources and Pre-Historic MCQ

    Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation

    Indus Valley (Harappan) MCQ

    The Vedic Era and Mahajanapadas

    Vedic Era and Mahajanapadas MCQ

    Religious Movements of 6th Century

    Religious Movements of 6th Century MCQ

    Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Period

    Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Time MCQs

    The Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period

    Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period MCQs

    Early Medieval Period (800-1200 CE)

    Early Medieval Period MCQ

    Sangam Period

    Sangam Period MCQ