Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ for Competitive Exams

Indian Economy GK MCQ Question answer for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs on Economics of India from previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.

Medium : English

Indian Economy MCQ in English

Q.1: Which Five-Year Plan’s objectives were influenced by the Gadgil Formula in India?
(A) Second Five-Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five-Year Plan
(C) Third Five-Year Plan
(D) Seventh Five-Year Plan

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Q.2: When was the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) established?
(A) 1934
(B) 1935
(C) 1936
(D) 1949

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Q.3: Name the Indian state with the highest tax revenue.
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra

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Q.4: Which of the following public sector banks will receive a loan from the BRICS New Development Bank?
(A) Canara Bank
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) ICICI
(D) State Bank of India

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Q.5: Which of the following countries recently overtook Thailand as the world’s largest rice exporter in 2015?
(A) India
(B) Myanmar
(C) China
(D) Vietnam

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Q.6: The Government of India has recently decided to integrate the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana with:
(A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) National Rural Livelihood Mission
(C) Hariyali
(D) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program

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Q.7: The PURA scheme, which envisages the provision of urban amenities in rural areas, was first advocated by:
(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(B) Shri A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Dr. Arvind Subramanian
(D) Prof. Dinshaw Mistry

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Q.8: National income can be calculated by all of the following methods except:
(A) Sum of all expenditures
(B) Sum of all outputs
(C) Sum of all savings
(D) Sum of all incomes

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Q.9: In a national context, which of the following indicates a macroeconomic perspective?
(A) Inflation in India
(B) Sales of Bata Shoe Company
(C) Mango exports to the UK
(D) Income from Railways

Q.10: State Bank of India was previously known by this name:
(A) Imperial Bank of India
(B) Canara Bank
(C) Syndicate Bank
(D) Indian Cooperative Bank

Q.11: Whose signature appears on a one-rupee note?
(A) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(D) None of the above

Q.12: The full form of NABARD is:
(A) National Business for Accounting and Review
(B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(C) National Bank for Aeronautics and Radar Development
(D) National Bureau for Air and Road Transport

Q.13: When was the Reserve Bank of India nationalized?
(A) 1949
(B) 1951
(C) 1947
(D) 1935

Q.14: Which of the following indicates a microeconomic perspective in national terms?
(A) Per capita income in India
(B) Study of TISCO’s sales
(C) Inflation in India
(D) Educated unemployment in India

Q.15: How does agriculture promote industrial development in India?
(A) By opening markets for industrial products
(B) By providing food and clothing to workers
(C) By supplying raw materials
(D) All of the above

Q.16: The Industrial Development Bank of India was established in:
(A) July 1968
(B) July 1966
(C) July 1964
(D) July 1962

Q.17: The slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was included in:
(A) Second Plan
(B) First Plan
(C) Fifth Plan
(D) Fourth Plan

Q.18: Which bank is limited to the needs of agricultural and rural finance?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) IFC
(D) NABARD

Q.19: The Indian economy is a/an:
(A) Free economy
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Capitalist economy
(D) Communist economy

Q.20: The P. Rama Rao Committee is related to:
(A) Taxation
(B) Defense
(C) Industry
(D) Agriculture

Q.21: The lender of last resort is:
(A) SBI
(B) IDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI

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Q.22: The period of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan is:
(A) January 1, 2012 to December 31, 2017
(B) April 1, 2011 to March 31, 2016
(C) January 1, 2011 to December 31, 2016
(D) April 1, 2012 to March 31, 2017

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Q.23: In which year was the Imperial Bank established?
(A) 1930
(B) 1935
(C) 1955
(D) 1921

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Q.24: Which Five-Year Plan had a duration of only four years?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Seventh

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Q.25: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for food grains was introduced in which year? (A) 1944
(B) 1964
(C) 1974
(D) 1954

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Q.26: In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all nationalized commercial banks is determined by:
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Central Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks’ Association
(D) Reserve Bank of India

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Q.27: Which of the following provides long-term loans to private industries in India? (A) Food Corporation of India
(B) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(C) Primary Credit Society
(D) Land Development Bank

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Q.28: “Agriculture should serve as a means of income, livelihood, and opportunities for local communities” – This statement was made by:
(A) Dr. Madhavan Nair
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Dr. Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

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Q.29: Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs was the focus of the Brundtland Commission. It is called:
(A) Sustainable Development
(B) Mitigation
(C) Disaster Management
(D) Capacity Building

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Q.30: SEBI was established in:
(A) 1992
(B) 1980
(C) 1984
(D) 1988

Q.31: India exports electricity to:
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bhutan

Q.32: The largest single item of current government expenditure in India is:
(A) Defense expenditure
(B) Interest payment on loans
(C) Subsidy payment
(D) Investment in social overheads

Q.33: The ‘More Mega Store’ retail chain is related to which Indian industry?
(A) Reliance Industries
(B) Bharti Enterprises
(C) Aditya Birla Group
(D) None of these

Q.34: Which spice tops in value as an export commodity of India?
(A) Black Pepper
(B) Chili
(C) Turmeric
(D) Cardamom

Q.35: In which year was the nationalization of fourteen major banks in India?
(A) 1967
(B) 1968
(C) 1969
(D) 1971

Q.36: One rupee notes are issued by:
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) President of India
(D) Government of India

Q.37: India adopted the decimal currency system in:
(A) 1955
(B) 1956
(C) 1957
(D) 1958

Q.38: The number of nationalized banks in India is:
(A) 14
(B) 21
(C) 20
(D) 22

Q.39: Maruti cars are mainly based on:
(A) Japanese technology
(B) Korean technology
(C) Russian technology
(D) German technology

Q.40: Which measure has not been undertaken by the government to curb inflation? (A) Increase in consumption
(B) Increase in production
(C) Reduction in deficit financing
(D) Taxation measures

Q.41: In the Indian economy, the ‘slack season’ refers to:
(A) March-April
(B) September-December
(C) January-June
(D) February-April

Q.42: Which of the following is not a qualitative credit control by a country’s central bank?
(A) Rationing of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Variation in margin requirements
(D) Regulation of margin requirements

Q.43: The market where funds can be borrowed is called:
(A) Reserved market
(B) Institutional market
(C) Money market
(D) Exchange market

Q.44: If the marginal return increases at a decreasing rate, then the total return:
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) Becomes income

Q.45: According to newspaper reports, the government plans to disinvest what percentage of its stake in Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL)?
(A) 5%
(B) 50%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%

Q.46: Ownership of RRB (Regional Rural Bank) is held by:
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Sponsor Bank
(D) Jointly by all of the above

Q.47: Which of the following methods is not used to determine the national income of a country?
(A) Income method
(B) Output method
(C) Input method
(D) Investment method

Q.48: Which scheme of the Government of India makes Indian cities slum-free?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Central Rural Sanitation Program MME
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Antyodaya

Q.49: The current fiscal deficit percentage in the GDP is:
(A) 7
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 1

Q.50: The term ‘Tragedy of the Commons’ related to the overuse of resources was propounded by:
(A) Garrett Hardin
(B) Seligman
(C) Adolf Wagner
(D) A.P. Lemierre

World Geography GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for Competitive Exams. Important questions selected from previous year exam questions papers of SSC, UPSC and other examinations.

World Geography MCQ

Q.1: Which of the following countries has the longest underground tunnel?
(A) Germany
(B) Switzerland
(C) Spain
(D) France

Q.2: Which of the following holds over 50% of the world’s coal reserves?
(A) USA, Russia, and China
(B) China, India, and Russia
(C) India, Russia, and the USA
(D) China, India, and the USA

Q.3: The Panama Canal was constructed in
(A) 1869 AD
(B) 1980 AD
(C) 1905 AD
(D) 1914 AD

Q.4: Which is the hottest place on Earth?
(A) Death Valley-California
(B) El Azizia-Libya
(C) Jacobabad-Pakistan
(D) Atacama-Peru

Q.5: What was the name of the cyclone that caused devastation in Bangladesh?
(A) Shary
(B) Sidr
(C) Wendy
(D) Erin

Q.6: What is the longest mountain range on Earth?
(A) Andes Mountains
(B) Mid-Atlantic Ridge
(C) Western Cordillera
(D) Himalayan Range

Q.7: The Sunda Trench is located in:
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Gulf of Mexico

Q.8: Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
(A) Mites
(B) Humidity
(C) Insects
(D) Rodents

Q.9: The lake created by the Aswan Dam in Africa is:
(A) Chad
(B) Victoria
(C) Nasser
(D) Tanganyika

Q.10: The temperate grasslands of North America are called
(A) Pampas
(B) Downs
(C) Steppes
(D) Prairies

Q.11: The Panama Canal differs from the Suez Canal as it has:
(A) A lock system
(B) A shorter route
(C) A busier route
(D) A less busy route

Q.12: Llanos grasslands are found in:
(A) Guiana Highlands
(B) Brazilian Highlands
(C) Argentina
(D) Chile

Q.13: Approximately what percentage of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest?
(A) 2 percent
(B) 7 percent
(C) 10 percent
(D) 15 percent

Q.14: Which continent is located in both the Northern-Southern and Eastern-Western hemispheres?
(A) Australia
(B) Africa
(C) Europe
(D) South America

Q.15: The Sahara is located in which part of Africa?
(A) Eastern
(B) Western
(C) Northern
(D) Southern

Q.16: The longest river in the world is:
(A) Ganges
(B) Nile
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Amazon

Q.17: Which city is the capital of the desert country Mali?
(A) Damascus
(B) Bamako
(C) Adrar
(D) Ankara

Q.18: Peshawar is near:
(A) Karakoram Pass
(B) Zoji La Pass
(C) Namika-La Pass
(D) Khyber Pass

Q.19: The highest airport (4411 meters above sea level) is:
(A) Daocheng Yading Airport
(B) Heathrow Airport
(C) Kathmandu Airport
(D) Bangda Airport

Q.20: ‘Yosemite’ is:
(A) A river
(B) A peak
(C) A waterfall
(D) A dam

Q.21: Which strait separates Australia and Tasmania?
(A) Bass
(B) Bab-el-Mandeb
(C) Palk
(D) Bering

Q.22: The world’s largest coral reef is found off the coast of:
(A) Brazil
(B) Australia
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Cuba

Q.23: The longest river in Europe is:
(A) Rhine
(B) Rhone
(C) Danube
(D) Volga

Q.24: Asia and North America are separated by:
(A) Bass Strait
(B) Dover Strait
(C) Bering Strait
(D) Cook Strait

Q.25: The Grand Canyon is located on which river?
(A) Colorado
(B) Columbia
(C) Ohio
(D) Mississippi

Q.26: On September 23, when day and night are of equal length worldwide, it is called:
(A) Autumnal Equinox
(B) Celestial Equinox
(C) Winter Equinox
(D) Spring Equinox

Q.27: The region famous for various types of wine and champagne is:
(A) Eastern Europe
(B) Western Europe
(C) Mediterranean
(D) Grasslands

Q.28: The river with the largest water flow in the world is:
(A) Huang-Ho
(B) Amazon
(C) Zaire
(D) Nile

Q.29: The world’s largest delta is:
(A) Sundarbans
(B) Amazon Basin
(C) Greenland
(D) Congo Basin

Q.30: The canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is:
(A) Suez
(B) Malacca
(C) Panama
(D) Gibraltar

Q.31: The strait connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea is:
(A) Panama Strait
(B) Suez Strait
(C) Palk Strait
(D) Bering Strait

Q.32: The temperate grasslands of South America are called:
(A) Prairies
(B) Pampas
(C) Downs
(D) Steppes

Q.33: Volcanic activity is most common in:
(A) Hawaii
(B) Japan
(C) Columbia
(D) New Zealand

Q.34: The world’s largest freshwater lake is:
(A) Lake Victoria
(B) Lake Michigan
(C) Lake Balkhash
(D) Lake Superior

Q.35: Which of the following volcanoes is located in Mexico?
(A) Colima
(B) Purace
(C) Semeru
(D) Etna

Q.36: In July 2007, the highest peak of Halmahera Island, Mount Gamkonora Volcano, erupted in which country?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

Q.37: The Black Forest is found in:
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Czechoslovakia
(D) Romania

Q.38: Greenland, the world’s largest island, is an integral part of:
(A) Norway
(B) North America
(C) Denmark
(D) Canada

Q.39: Kangaroos, platypuses, and koala bears are wildlife native to:
(A) Australia
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Africa

Q.40: Which of the following regions has no rainfall at any time of the year?
(A) Central Europe
(B) Central North America
(C) Polar region
(D) Sub-Saharan region

Q.41: The world’s tallest gravity dam is:
(A) Beas Dam
(B) Nangal Dam
(C) Bhakra Dam
(D) Hirakud Dam

Q.42: “The climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic herders.” This statement is true for which region?
(A) African Savannah
(B) Central Asian Steppes
(C) Siberian Tundra
(D) North American Prairies

Q.43: The world’s largest desert is:
(A) Arabian
(B) Kalahari
(C) Sahara
(D) Thar

Q.44: Which two countries are connected by an underwater tunnel?
(A) England and Spain
(B) Malaysia and Singapore
(C) England and Belgium
(D) France and England

Q.45: The world’s largest archipelago country is:
(A) Philippines
(B) Indonesia
(C) Sweden
(D) Greenland

Q.46: Which of the following is a landlocked sea?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea

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Q.47: Where is the Normandy beach located?
(A) France
(B) Netherlands
(C) Spain
(D) Belgium

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Q.48: ‘Dykes’ are specifically constructed in:
(A) Norway
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) United Kingdom

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Q.49: Colorado in America is famous for this landform _______________
(A) Grand Canyon
(B) Grand Craters
(C) Great Valleys
(D) Great Basin

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Q.50: The largest island in the world is:
(A) New Guinea
(B) Madagascar
(C) Greenland
(D) Iceland

Game and Sports MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important questions from previous year General Knowledge question paper.

Medium: English

Game and Sports Questions

Question 1: In which year did the Olympic Games begin?

(A) 1896
(B) 1900
(C) 1920
(D) 1936

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Question 2: How often is the FIFA World Cup Football Tournament held?

(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years

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Question 3: “Uber Cup” is associated with which sport?

(A) Cricket
(B) Tennis
(C) Badminton
(D) Football

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Question 4: In which year did India win its first Cricket World Cup?

(A) 1975
(B) 1983
(C) 1987
(D) 1996

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Question 5: Which tournament is NOT included in the Grand Slam of tennis?

(A) Wimbledon
(B) Australian Open
(C) French Open
(D) Davis Cup

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Question 6: The “Arjuna Award” is given for excellence in which field?

(A) Literature
(B) Sports
(C) Music
(D) Science

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Question 7: In which sport did India win its first Olympic gold medal?

(A) Hockey
(B) Wrestling
(C) Boxing
(D) Athletics

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Question 8: Who is a famous Indian racer in Formula 1 racing?

(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Viswanathan Anand
(C) Narain Karthikeyan
(D) Leander Paes

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Question 9: “Thomas Cup” is associated with which sport?

(A) Table Tennis
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Hockey

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Question 10: Viswanathan Anand is associated with which sport?

(A) Tennis
(B) Football
(C) Chess
(D) Badminton

Question-11: “Roland Garros” is associated with which sport?

(A) Cricket
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Tennis

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Question-12: In which year did the Asian Games begin?

(A) 1948
(B) 1951
(C) 1960
(D) 1965

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Question-13: Which Indian batsman scored the first triple century in Test cricket?

(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Sourav Ganguly
(C) Virender Sehwag
(D) Rahul Dravid

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Question-14: Which country has won the FIFA World Cup the most times?

(A) Argentina
(B) Germany
(C) Italy
(D) Brazil

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Question-15: How many balls are bowled in an over in cricket?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7

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Question-16: How many players are there in a football team?

(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12

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Question-17: How many categories is wrestling divided into in the Olympic Games?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7

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Question-18: The ‘Davis Cup’ in tennis is awarded for?

(A) Individual male players
(B) Men’s team championship
(C) Women’s team championship
(D) Mixed doubles

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Question-19: In which country is ‘Wimbledon’ held?

(A) USA
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Australia

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Question-20: ‘Ranji Trophy’ in India is associated with which sport?

(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Football
(D) Badminton

Question 31: “Team India” is associated with which sport?

(A) Football
(B) Badminton
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey

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Question 32: Rafael Nadal is associated with which sport?

(A) Football
(B) Tennis
(C) Golf
(D) Hockey

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Question 33: What does ‘hat-trick’ mean in football?

(A) Scoring three goals
(B) Scoring two goals
(C) Scoring one goal
(D) Scoring four goals

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Question 34: The ‘Yellow Jersey’ for the winner is associated with which sport?

(A) Football
(B) Cycling
(C) Tennis
(D) Hockey

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Question 35: Who was the captain of the Indian women’s cricket team in the 2022 Women’s World Cup?

(A) Mithali Raj
(B) Harmanpreet Kaur
(C) Smriti Mandhana
(D) Jhulan Goswami

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Question 36: Which Indian athlete won the first gold medal at the Tokyo Olympics 2021?

(A) P. V. Sindhu
(B) Neeraj Chopra
(C) Bajrang Punia
(D) Mirabai Chanu

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Question 37: When is National Sports Day celebrated in India?

(A) 15th August
(B) 29th August
(C) 2nd October
(D) 26th January

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Question 39: In which year was the first season of IPL (Indian Premier League) played?

(A) 2007
(B) 2008
(C) 2010
(D) 2011

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Question 40: Who won India's first Olympic medal in boxing?

(A) Vijender Singh
(B) Mary Kom
(C) Shiva Thapa
(D) Akhil Kumar

Question 41: What is the highest award given in the field of sports?

(A) Jnanpith Award
(B) Padma Shri Award
(C) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
(D) Bharat Bhushan Award

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Question 42: Which sport is Navjot Singh Sidhu associated with?

(A) Football
(B) Tennis
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey

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Question 43: What does 'Albatross' mean in golf?

(A) Scoring three strokes under par
(B) Scoring more than two strokes over par
(C) Scoring exactly par
(D) Scoring more than four strokes over par

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Question 44: Federer, Nadal, and Djokovic are associated with which sport?

(A) Football
(B) Golf
(C) Badminton
(D) Tennis

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Question 45: Who was India's first Grand Slam winner?

(A) Leander Paes
(B) Mahesh Bhupathi
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Ramanathan Krishnan

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Question 46: In which sport is the 'Bulgarian Bag' used?

(A) Wrestling
(B) Weightlifting
(C) Boxing
(D) Badminton

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Question 47: In which sport has P.V. Sindhu won an Olympic medal?

(A) Tennis
(B) Badminton
(C) Hockey
(D) Athletics

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Question 48: In which country was the FIFA World Cup 2022 held?

(A) Qatar
(B) Brazil
(C) Russia
(D) South Africa

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Question 49: Who is known as the "Little Master" in Indian cricket?

(A) Kapil Dev
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Sunil Gavaskar
(D) Rahul Dravid

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Question 50: Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the highest runs scored in a single Test match innings?

(A) Virat Kohli
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sunil Gavaskar

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Question-51: Who was the captain of the Indian team that won the first World Cup in 1983?

A) Sunil Gavaskar
B) Kapil Dev
C) Mohammad Azharuddin
D) Sourav Ganguly

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Question-52: Which Indian cricketer is known by the nickname "Dada"?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Sourav Ganguly
C) Rahul Dravid
D) Anil Kumble

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Question-53: In which year did India win its first T20 World Cup?

A) 2005
B) 2007
C) 2011
D) 2013

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Question-54: Who was the highest run-scorer for India in the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Virat Kohli
C) Gautam Gambhir
D) Kumar Sangakkara

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Question-55: Who was the first Indian cricketer to score a double century in a One-Day International (ODI) match?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Virat Kohli
C) Rohit Sharma
D) Shikhar Dhawan

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Question-56: Which Indian cricketer was the first to take 10 wickets in a single Test innings?

A) Bishan Singh Bedi
B) Anil Kumble
C) Erapalli Prasanna
D) Ravi Shastri

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Question-57: Which Indian cricketer is known as "The Wall"?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Rahul Dravid
C) Virender Sehwag
D) Sunil Gavaskar

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Question-58: Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the highest individual score in an ODI match?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Virat Kohli
C) Rohit Sharma
D) Shikhar Dhawan

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Question-59: Which Indian bowler holds the record for the most wickets in T20 International cricket?

A) Harbhajan Singh
B) Yuvraj Singh
C) Ravi Ashwin
D) Jasprit Bumrah

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Question-60: Who was the first Indian cricketer to score a century in T20 International cricket?

A) Virat Kohli
B) Suresh Raina
C) Yuvraj Singh
D) Rohit Sharma

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Question-61: Who was the captain of the Indian team in the 2003 Cricket World Cup final?

A) Sourav Ganguly
B) Rahul Dravid
C) MS Dhoni
D) Sachin Tendulkar

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Question-62: Who was the first Indian cricketer to win the ICC Cricketer of the Year award?

A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) Rahul Dravid
C) MS Dhoni
D) Virat Kohli

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Question-63: Which Indian cricketer is famous for hitting six sixes in an over in T20 cricket?

A) MS Dhoni
B) Yuvraj Singh
C) Virender Sehwag
D) Rohit Sharma

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Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams for free online practice. Collection of Important previous year questions for preparation of upcoming SSC,RRB examinations.

Chemistry GK MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following dietary components provides the maximum energy per gram to humans?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Fats
C) Fibers
D) Proteins

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Question 2: Which of the following is a noble gas?

A) Ozone
B) Nitrogen
C) Hydrogen
D) Helium

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Question 3: Which of the following elements belongs to the d-block of the modern periodic table?

A) Na
B) Fe
C) Ca
D) Mg

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Question 4: According to the modern periodic table, which element has the atomic number 30?

A) Co
B) Ni
C) Zn
D) Fe

---

Question 5: Which iron ore contains the highest amount of iron?

A) Magnetite
B) Hematite
C) Limonite
D) Siderite

---

Question 6: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the neutron?

A) Chadwick
B) Rutherford
C) Niels Bohr
D) Roentgen

---

Question 7: What is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris?

A) Calcium hypochlorite
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Calcium oxide
D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate

---

Question 8: What is the chemical formula of washing soda?

A) Na2SO4
B) Ca(OH)2
C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O
D) NaHCO3

---

Question 9: In a water molecule, what is the ratio of the masses of hydrogen and oxygen?

A) 1:4
B) 1:8
C) 1:16
D) 1:2

---

Question 10: α particles are doubly charged ions of ____________.

A) Beryllium
B) Hydrogen
C) Helium
D) Lithium

Question 11: What is the atomic number of Copper?

A) 29
B) 26
C) 30
D) 32

---

Question 12: What is the most common isotope of Oxygen?

A) O-16
B) O-17
C) O-18
D) O-19

---

Question 13: What is the chemical name of NH₃ (Ammonia)?

A) Nitrogen Trihydride
B) Hydrogen Nitride
C) Nitrogen Hydride
D) Hydrogen Trinitride

---

Question 14: What is the chemical symbol for Mercury?

A) Hg
B) Pb
C) Au
D) Ag

---

Question 15: Which acid is a harmful enzyme?

A) Hydrochloric Acid
B) Sulfuric Acid
C) Nitric Acid
D) Hydrofluoric Acid

---

Question 16: What is the approximate pH value of water?

A) 1
B) 7
C) 14
D) 9

---

Question 17: Which element exhibits metallic properties?

A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Calcium
D) Sulfur

---

Question 18: Which chemical is a strong acid?

A) Ethanol
B) Acetic Acid
C) Sulfuric Acid
D) Ammonia

---

Question 19: What is formed when carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in water?

A) Carbonic Acid
B) Hydrochloric Acid
C) Sulfuric Acid
D) Nitric Acid

---

Question 20: Which element has the highest relative atomic mass?

A) Hydrogen
B) Helium
C) Lithium
D) Uranium

Question 21: Which element remains in a gaseous state at room temperature?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Nitrogen
D) Gold

---

Question 22: Which metal is the lightest?

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium

---

Question 23: What is formed when hydrochloric acid and ammonia react?

A) Ammonium Chloride
B) Ammonium Hydroxide
C) Hydrogen Chloride
D) Hydrochloric Acid

---

Question 24: In chemistry, what does ‘pH’ stand for?

A) Measurement of acidity
B) Measurement of basicity
C) Measurement of gaseous state
D) Measurement of solid state

---

Question 25: Which acid is a natural acid found in fruits?

A) Sulfuric Acid
B) Acetic Acid
C) Citric Acid
D) Hydrochloric Acid

---

Question 26: Which element has only one electron in its outer shell?

A) Helium
B) Hydrogen
C) Lithium
D) Boron

---

Question 27: What is the atomic number of Iron (Fe)?

A) 20
B) 26
C) 29
D) 32

---

Question 28: What is the chemical symbol for Silver?

A) Ag
B) Au
C) Pb
D) Hg

---

Question 29: Which element is commonly found as a diatomic molecule?

A) Hydrogen
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Iron

---

Question 30: Which gas is produced during the oxidation and burning of water?

A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Carbon Dioxide

Question 31: Which acid is predominant in acid rain?

A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Sulfuric acid
C) Citric acid
D) Acetic acid

---

Question 32: Which chemical is used as a pesticide?

A) Cysteine
B) Chloroform
C) DDT
D) Aniline

---

Question 33: Which is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Argon

---

Question 34: Which element is most commonly used as a salt?

A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Iron

---

Question 35: What compound is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen?

A) Methane
B) Ammonia
C) Water
D) Carbon dioxide

---

Question 36: Which element is used in the production of atomic bombs?

A) Plutonium
B) Sodium
C) Boron
D) Magnesium

---

Question 37: Which substance is used to clean teeth?

A) Calcium carbonate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Silica
D) Glycerine

---

Question 38: Which substance is called ‘white poison’ in the diet?

A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Calcium

---

Question 39: Which chemical is used to preserve food?

A) Acetic acid
B) Sulfur dioxide
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Nitric acid

---

Question 40: Which substance is a good conductor of electricity?

A) Wood
B) Plastic
C) Copper
D) Rubber

Question 41: Which compound is found in oily color?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Potassium permanganate
C) Water
D) Sodium chloride

---

Question 42: What is the chemical symbol of Helium?

A) He
B) H
C) Hg
D) H₂

---

Question 43: Which chemical is used to extinguish fire?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Hydrogen
C) Ammonia
D) Sulfur

---

Question 44: Which element plays a significant role in DNA as an important biomolecule?

A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen

---

Question 45: Which element is used in radiotherapy?

A) Iodine
B) Sodium
C) Boron
D) Calcium

---

Question 46: Which chemical is used in burning and also found in fireworks?

A) Nitrogen
B) Potassium nitrate
C) Sodium chloride
D) Hydrochloric acid

---

Question 47: Which color indicator is used to identify acidic properties?

A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow

---

Question 48: Which substance dissolves in water but not in oil?

A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Flour
D) Fat

---

Question 49: What is the most common example of a hydrogen bond?

A) Ammonia
B) Water
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Methane

---

Question 50: Which element is used in batteries?

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Potassium

---

Question 51: Which element is used in making steel?

A) Carbon
B) Silicon
C) Zinc
D) Platinum

---

Question 52: Which element plays an important role in biological instruments?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Gold

---

Question 53: Which metal is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust?

A) Chromium
B) Zinc
C) Rhodium
D) Tin

---

Question 54: Bronze is an alloy of which of the following?

A) Copper and Zinc
B) Tin and Zinc
C) Copper and Tin
D) Iron and Zinc

---

Question 55: What is the bond called when electrons are shared between two elements?

A) Covalent bond
B) Hydrogen bond
C) Ionic bond
D) Dative bond

---

Question 56: The isotope of which element is used in cancer treatment?

A) Cobalt
B) Nickel
C) Aluminum
D) Iron

---

Question 57: A naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO is?

A) Acetophenone
B) Benzophenone
C) Propiophenone
D) Methcathinone

---

Question 58: What is the atomic mass of sodium?

A) 13
B) 23
C) 40
D) 12

---

Question 59: Which gas is produced when lead nitrate is heated?

A) Nitrogen dioxide
B) Lead dioxide
C) Lead oxide
D) Nitrogen oxide

---

Question 60: Which chemical element from group 18 of the periodic table is produced in soil and rocks due to the natural radioactive decay of uranium?

A) Radon
B) Neon
C) Krypton
D) Oganesson

Indian Polity and Constitution GK MCQ questions answers in English for Competitive exams. Important MCQs on Political Science from previous year exam papers of SSC, UPSC examinations.

Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs

Q.1: Which of the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Alladi Krishnaswamy
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Gopalachari Ayyngar

---

Q.2: Constitutional monarchy means:
(A) The king writes the constitution
(B) The king interprets the constitution
(C) The king exercises powers granted by the constitution
(D) The king is elected by the people

---

Q.3: When was the first Central Legislative Assembly formed?
(A) 1922
(B) 1923
(C) 1921
(D) 1920

---

Q.4: The Constitution of India describes India as:
(A) A federation
(B) Semi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Union of States

---

Q.5: The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ is a characteristic of the constitutional system of:
(A) Britain
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Switzerland

---

Q.6: The method of amending the constitution through a popular veto is found in:
(A) Britain
(B) Switzerland
(C) Russia
(D) India

---

Q.7: Which of the following is an essential feature of the parliamentary system of government?
(A) Flexibility of the constitution
(B) Fusion of executive and legislature
(C) Judicial supremacy
(D) Parliamentary sovereignty

---

Q.8: Grassroots democracy relates to:
(A) Devolution of powers
(B) Decentralization of powers
(C) Panchayati Raj system
(D) All of the above

---

Q.9: The objective of democratic socialism is to:
(A) Bring socialism through peaceful means
(B) Bring socialism through both violent and peaceful means
(C) Bring socialism through violent means
(D) Bring socialism through democratic means

---

Q.10: Which judge declared that ‘secularism’ and ‘federalism’ are basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati case
(B) S.R. Bommai case
(C) Indira Sawhney case
(D) Minerva Mills case

---

Q.11: Universal adult suffrage reflects that India is a country that is:
(A) Secular
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Sovereign

---

Q.12: The Constitution of India came into force in:
(A) 1951
(B) 1956
(C) 1950
(D) 1949

---

Q.13: The Government of India Act, 1935, was based on:
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Lord Curzon Commission
(C) Dimitrov Thesis
(D) Lord Clive’s Report

---

Q.14: Who called the Government of India Act, 1935, the new charter of bondage?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) B.R. Ambedkar

---

Q.15: Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Q.16: Which of the following is an essential element of the state?
(A) Sovereignty
(B) Government
(C) Territory
(D) All of these

Q.17: Which is the most important system in a democracy?
(A) Social
(B) Political
(C) Economic
(D) Governmental

Q.18: Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution?
(A) Preamble
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part I

Q.19: The phrase ‘equality before law’ in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Greece

Q.20: The thinking and ideals of the Constitution makers are reflected in:
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy

Q.21: Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary form of government
(B) Independence of judiciary
(C) Presidential form of government
(D) Federal government

Q.22: What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right against Exploitation
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Religious Freedom

Q.23: The concept of single citizenship in India is adopted from:
(A) England
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) France

Q.24: The method of impeachment of the President of India is adopted from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) France

Q.25: What was the basis for the formation of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A) Mountbatten Plan
B) Cabinet Mission Plan
C) Indian National Congress
D) Simla Agreement

Q.26: Which of the following can be called a ‘secular’ state?
(A) A state that follows a particular religion
(B) A state that is anti-religion
(C) A state that does not discriminate between religions
(D) A state that accepts all religions as the state religion

---

Q.27: Initially, how many Fundamental Rights were provided?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Four
(D) Five

---

Q.28: Which type of equality is not in line with the ideals of a liberal state?
(A) Legal equality
(B) Political equality
(C) Social equality
(D) Economic equality

---

Q.29: What does political freedom mean?
(A) People’s control over the government
(B) Free political activities of the people
(C) Cooperation between politics and democracy
(D) Voters can form and dismiss their government

---

Q.30: Which of the following is included in the list of fundamental duties of Indian citizens in the Constitution?
(A) Practicing secularism
(B) Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(C) Regularly and correctly paying all taxes to the government
(D) Not attacking any public servant while performing their duties

---

Q.31: When were Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
(A) 1975
(B) 1976
(C) 1977
(D) 1979

---

Q.32: The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country’s constitution?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) USSR
(D) None of these

---

Q.33: Which of the following is a political right?
(A) Right to work
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to freedom of expression
(D) Right to vote

---

Q.34: The provisions of citizenship in the Indian Constitution came into force in: (A) 1950
(B) 1949
(C) 1951
(D) 1952

---

Q.35: What does social justice mean?
(A) Everyone should have equal economic rights.
(B) Everyone should have equal political rights.
(C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated.
(D) Everyone should be given the right to religious freedom.

---

Q.36: The right to vote falls under which category?
(A) Human rights
(B) Civil rights
(C) Natural rights
(D) Political rights

---

Q.37: Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(A) Justice
(B) Fraternity
(C) Equality of status
(D) Adult suffrage

---

Q.38: At what age can Indian citizens vote?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 22 years
(D) 25 years

---

Q.39: According to the Preamble, ultimate power lies in the hands of:
(A) Parliament
(B) Constitution
(C) President
(D) People

---

Q.40: Dual citizenship is a key feature of which type of government?
(A) Parliamentary
(B) Federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Authoritarian

---

Q.41: ‘Dual citizenship’ is a feature of:
(A) Unitary government
(B) Federal government
(C) Parliamentary government
(D) Presidential government

---

Q.42: Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?
(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
(B) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
(C) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
(D) State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)

---

Q.43: According to the Indian Constitution, the right to property is a:
(A) Fundamental right
(B) Natural right
(C) Legal right
(D) Moral right

---

Q.44: The success of democracy depends on:
(A) Right to criticize
(B) Right of association
(C) Right to personal liberty
(D) Right to property

---

Q.45: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the constitution of:
(A) Britain
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada

---

Q.46: How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 1
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 8

---

Q.47: The Directive Principles of State Policy were adopted from:
(A) British Constitution
(B) Swiss Constitution
(C) American Constitution
(D) Irish Constitution

---

Q.48: When were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens included in the Constitution?
(A) 1952
(B) 1976
(C) 1979
(D) 1981

---

Q.49: The Directive Principles included in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the constitution of:
(A) Australia
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada

---

Q.50: During whose rule was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Indira Gandhi government
(B) Morarji Desai government
(C) Narasimha Rao government
(D) Vajpayee government

Sports General Knowledge (GK) questions answers, Online practice mock for competitive exams in English.

Top One Liner General Knowledge Questions

1. Who is the first Indian cricketer to score a triple century in Test cricket? Answer: Virender Sehwag.
2. Which Indian badminton player won the silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics? Answer: P.V. Sindhu.
3. Which Indian wrestler won a gold medal at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics? Answer: Bajrang Punia.
4. Who is the first Indian female gymnast to compete at the Olympic Games? Answer: Dipa Karmakar.
5. Who is the most successful Indian captain in Test cricket? Answer: Mahendra Singh Dhoni.
6. Which Indian shooter won the gold medal in the women’s 10m air rifle event at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics? Answer: Apurvi Chandela.
7. Who is the first Indian cricketer to score 10,000 runs in One Day Internationals (ODIs)? Answer: Sachin Tendulkar.
8. Which Indian tennis player won the French Open mixed doubles title in 2017? Answer: Rohan Bopanna.
9. Who is the first Indian athlete to win an individual gold medal at the Olympic Games? Answer: Abhinav Bindra (shooting).
10. Which Indian boxer won a bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics in the women’s flyweight category? Answer: Lovlina Borgohain.
11. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal in weightlifting? Answer: Karnam Malleswari (bronze medal in 2000 Sydney Olympics).
12. Which Indian chess player held the World Chess Championship title from 2000 to 2002? Answer: Viswanathan Anand.
13. Who is the first Indian cricketer to score a double century in One Day Internationals (ODIs)? Answer: Sachin Tendulkar.
14. Which Indian athlete holds the national record for the long jump? Answer: Anju Bobby George.
15. Who is the first Indian female athlete to win a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games in the discus throw event? Answer: Krishna Poonia.
16. Which Indian footballer has scored the most international goals for the national team? Answer: Sunil Chhetri.
17. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal in wrestling? Answer: Sakshi Malik (bronze medal in 2016 Rio Olympics).
18. Which Indian squash player has been ranked world number one multiple times? Answer: Dipika Pallikal.
19. Who is the first Indian male badminton player to win an Olympic medal? Answer: Saina Nehwal (bronze medal in 2012 London Olympics).
20. Which Indian cricketer has the highest individual score in Test cricket? Answer: Virender Sehwag (319 runs).
21. Who is the first Indian female swimmer to qualify for the Olympics? Answer: Maana Patel.
22. Which Indian shooter won a gold medal in the women’s 25m pistol event at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics? Answer: Rahi Sarnobat.
23. Who is the first Indian male gymnast to compete at the Olympic Games? Answer: Ashish Kumar.
24. Which Indian athlete won the gold medal in the men’s javelin throw event at the 2018 Asian Games? Answer: Neeraj Chopra.
25. Who is the first Indian cricketer to score a century in all three formats of international cricket (Tests, ODIs, and T20Is)? Answer: Rohit Sharma.