Biology – General Science MCQs for GK paper in competitive exams. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free online practice.

Biology GK MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following is commonly known as a blood thinner?

A) Coagulation inhibitor
B) Antibiotic
C) Immunosuppressant
D) Anticoagulant

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Question 2: Bile is stored in a sac called __________.

A) Gallbladder
B) Urinary bladder
C) Pancreas
D) Liver

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Question 3: What is the pH of human blood?

A) 7.4
B) 10
C) 6.5
D) 5.8

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Question 4: Which of the following plant kingdom groups is known as algae?

A) Bryophyta
B) Thallophyta
C) Angiosperm
D) Pteridophyta

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Question 5: Deficiency of which vitamin causes swollen neck glands?

A) Vitamin C
B) Iodine
C) Calcium
D) Vitamin D

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Question 6: Which of the following belongs to the Platyhelminthes classification under the kingdom Animalia?

A) Tapeworm
B) Leech
C) Wuchereria
D) Sycon

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Question 7: In the cytoplasm, ribosomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus are examples of __________.

A) Organs
B) Cells
C) Organelles
D) Tissues

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Question 8: What is the normal body temperature of humans?

A) 98.6°C
B) 98.6°F
C) 37°F
D) 40°C

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Question 9: In which part of the plant does the process of respiration occur?

A) Roots
B) Stem
C) Leaves
D) Flowers

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Question 10: How many major systems are there in the human body?

A) 7
B) 10
C) 12
D) 5

Question 11: What is the full form of DNA?

A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
B) Deoxyribonucleotide Acid
C) Deoxyribonuclear Acid
D) Deoxynucleic Acid

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Question 12: By which process do herbivorous plants prepare food?

A) Respiration
B) Photosynthesis
C) Maturation
D) Regeneration

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Question 13: Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Pituitary Gland
D) Thyroid

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Question 14: What is an enzyme?

A) A type of vitamin
B) A type of acid
C) A type of protein
D) A type of mineral

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Question 15: What is the function of papillae?

A) Digesting food
B) Regulating body temperature
C) Detoxifying the body
D) Solidifying blood

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Question 16: Which cell has a cell membrane?

A) Animal cell
B) Plant cell
C) Bacterial cell
D) All cells

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Question 17: Which organ is not part of the central nervous system?

A) Brain
B) Spinal cord
C) Nerve
D) Brain and spinal cord

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Question 18: Where is energy produced in a cell?

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Chloroplast
D) Ribosome

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Question 19: Where is cartilage found?

A) In bones
B) In the skin
C) In the blood
D) In the nails

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Question 20: Which enzyme aids in chemical digestion?

A) Pancreatic lipase
B) Lactase
C) Amylase
D) All

Question 21: Which gas is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Hydrogen

Question 22: Where is a virus found?

A) Microorganisms
B) Plants
C) Animals
D) Bacteria

Question 23: In which organ does the first digestion of food occur?

A) Stomach
B) Mouth
C) Intestine
D) Esophagus

Question 24: What is the study of microorganisms called?

A) Biology
B) Microbiology
C) Physiology
D) Ecology

Question 25: Which organ purifies the blood?

A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Lungs

Question 26: Which part of the papillary helps in digestion?

A) Gastric juice
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Pepsin
D) All of the above

Question 27: What is not present in living cells?

A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Lysosomes
D) Volcans

Question 28: What condition arises due to a lack of oxygen?

A) Hypoxia
B) Hyperthermia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypothermia

Question 29: What is the main organ for food transportation in plants?

A) Roots
B) Leaves
C) Stem
D) Flowers

Question 30: How many major types of cells are there in human blood?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 31: What controls cognitive functions?

A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Kidneys
D) Liver

Question 32: What is the function of genes?

A) Digestion of food
B) Production of energy
C) Storage of genetic information
D) Formation of blood

Question 33: What is the function of mitochondria?

A) Production of energy
B) Protein synthesis
C) Cell division
D) Cell structure

Question 34: What type of organism are bacteria?

A) Unicellular
B) Multicellular
C) Viruses
D) Fungi

Question 35: During which stage of the nutrition process is the most energy obtained?

A) Digestion of carbohydrates
B) Digestion of proteins
C) Digestion of fats
D) All equally

Question 36: Which gland plays a major role in body growth?

A) Thyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Pancreas
D) Liver

Question 37: Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin C

Question 38: What type of antibodies are found in blood group A?

A) B antibodies
B) A antibodies
C) AB antibodies
D) O antibodies

Question 39: What studies the ecosystem?

A) Zoology
B) Botany
C) Ecology
D) Microbiology

Question 40: What is a neuron?

A) Blood cell
B) Nerve cell
C) Digestive cell
D) Liver cell

Question 41: Which organ produces hormones?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Kidneys

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Question 42: Which organ plays a major role in the process of respiration?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

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Question 43: In the digestive system, which organ produces digestive enzymes?

A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Stomach
D) Intestine

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Question 44: Which organ in plant cells assists in photosynthesis?

A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Ribosome
D) Nucleus

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Question 45: What is the largest organ in the human body?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Skin
D) Kidneys

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Question 46: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease?

A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Pellagra
D) Burkitt’s

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Question 47: What is the largest cell in the human body?

A) Human Egg
B) Red Blood Cell
C) Liver Cell
D) Nerve Cell

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Question 48: What is considered the best sensory organ?

A) Eye
B) Ear
C) Skin
D) Nose

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Question 49: Which nutrient is most essential for nutrition?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
C) Fats
D) Vitamins

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Question 50: What is the name of the plant hormone that regulates growth?

A) Ethylene
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Gibberellin

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Question 51: Which organ regulates blood pressure?

A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Lungs

Question 52: What is the study of the remains of organisms called?

A) Paleontology
B) Genetics
C) Ecology
D) Microbiology

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Question 53: What part is included in the structure of a virus?

A) Nucleus
B) Protein coat
C) Mitochondria
D) Chloroplast

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Question 54: Which part of the plant absorbs water?

A) Leaves
B) Stem
C) Roots
D) Flowers

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Question 55: What does Maltase digest?

A) Proteins
B) Fats
C) Carbohydrates
D) Vitamins

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Question 56: In which part of the body does fat digestion occur?

A) Stomach
B) Intestine
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

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Question 57: Which organ plays a major role in drug absorption?

A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Intestine
D) Liver

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Question 58: Where are RBCs produced in the body?

A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Bone marrow
D) Liver

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Question 59: What is the most important organ in the process of respiration?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

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Question 59: Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

A) Louis Pasteur
B) Charles Darwin
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Robert Hooke

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Question 60: Which organ is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

A) Bone marrow
B) Heart
C) Brain
D) Lungs

Environment General Knowledge (GK) MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams.
Medium: English
Important Questions from previous year exam papers.

Question 1: What is the biotic component of the environment and ecology?

A) Soil
B) Water
C) Air
D) Vegetation

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Question 2: What is an example of a natural ecosystem?

A) Farmland
B) Dam
C) Lake
D) Park

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Question 3: What are herbivores called?

A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Tertiary consumers

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Question 4: What is the primary source of energy in an ecosystem?

A) Geothermal energy
B) Sun
C) Greenhouse gases
D) Moon

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Question 5: Which plant species is classified as endangered in India?

A) Mango
B) Sheesham
C) Teak
D) Sandalwood

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Question 6: Where is Kaziranga National Park located?

A) Uttarakhand
B) Assam
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Nagaland

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Question 7: What is the major source of carbon dioxide emissions?

A) Fossil fuel combustion
B) Animal respiration
C) Volcanic activity
D) Marshlands

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Question 8: What is the major impact of deforestation?

A) Soil erosion
B) Weed control
C) Reduction in sunlight
D) Increase in grazing land

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Question 9: What is a natural source of nitrous oxide gas?

A) Desert soils
B) Polar soils
C) Temperate soils
D) Tropical soils

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Question 10: How do forests help control drought?

A) Forests prevent soil erosion.
B) Forests contribute to rainfall.
C) Forests contain many aquatic plants.
D) Forests act as water reservoirs.

Question 11: Which is the only carbon-neutral country in the world?

A) Sweden
B) New Zealand
C) Finland
D) Canada

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Question 12: The cause of global warming is:

A) Decrease in carbon dioxide
B) Increase in carbon dioxide
C) Increase in forests
D) None of these

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Question 13: Which greenhouse gas is produced by ruminant animals?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water vapor
C) Methane (CH4)
D) Nitrous oxide

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Question 14: Which pollutant gas is emitted by vehicles?

A) Hydrocarbons
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Nitrogen oxides

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Question 15: Air pollution can be reduced by:

A) Sunlight
B) Trees
C) Restricting loudspeakers
D) None of these

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Question 16: The “Harela Festival” celebrated in Uttarakhand is related to:

A) Water conservation
B) Tree plantation
C) Ozone protection
D) None of these

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Question 17: Which country experiences the most acid rain?

A) Japan
B) China
C) Norway
D) United States of America

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Question 18: The ozone layer absorbs harmful rays known as:

A) Gamma rays
B) Ultraviolet rays
C) X-rays
D) None of these

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Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?

A) March 22
B) April 22
C) June 5
D) August 15

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Question 20: When was the Environmental Protection Act implemented?

A) 1972
B) 1986
C) 1992
D) 2000

Question 21: Which pollutant causes damage to the ozone layer?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
D) Sulfur dioxide

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Question 22: Which gas is not considered a greenhouse gas?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrous oxide

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Question 23: What is the largest source of plant life?

A) Desert
B) Ocean
C) Forest
D) Grassland

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Question 24: What is natural vegetation?

A) Plants planted by humans
B) Naturally growing plants
C) Agricultural plants
D) Decorative plants

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Question 25: What does the Red Data Book provide information about?

A) New species of plants
B) Endangered and extinct species
C) Medicinal plants
D) Food plants

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Question 26: Which process is not a part of the water cycle?

A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Nitrification
D) Precipitation

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Question 27: Which instrument is not used for environmental studies?

A) Barometer
B) Seismograph
C) Hygrometer
D) Galvanometer

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Question 28: What is the most important role of biodiversity?

A) Energy production
B) Ecological balance
C) Industrial development
D) Urbanization

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Question 29: Which gas is most responsible for the greenhouse effect?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium

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Question 30: By which process does water vapor reach the atmosphere?

A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Nitrification

Question 31: Which fuel is less polluting?

A) Coal
B) Diesel
C) Natural Gas
D) Petrol

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Question 32: What does the term “carbon footprint” mean?

A) Carbon accumulation
B) Carbon production
C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization
D) Carbon usage

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Question 33: Which element is most essential for life on Earth?

A) Carbon
B) Nitrogen
C) Water
D) Oxygen

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Question 34: Which process affects vegetation and drainage?

A) Erosion
B) Reforestation
C) Degradation
D) Afforestation

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Question 35: Which factor is not involved in natural disasters?

A) Earthquake
B) Flood
C) Cyclone
D) Afforestation

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Question 36: Which gas is found in the highest amount in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Helium

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Question 37: Which gas is present in the smallest percentage in Earth’s atmosphere?

A) Nitrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Argon

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Question 38: Which environmental pollutant causes acid rain?

A) Carbon Monoxide
B) Sulfur Dioxide
C) Methane
D) Nitrogen

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Question 39: Which process helps maintain environmental balance?

A) Urbanization
B) Industrialization
C) Reforestation
D) Afforestation

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Question 40: What is the main cause of climate change?

A) Solar activities
B) Natural disasters
C) Greenhouse gas emissions
D) The position of the moon

Question 41: Which process produces oxygen?

A) Respiration
B) Evaporation
C) Photosynthesis
D) Nitrification

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Question 42: Which natural resource is not renewable?

A) Solar energy
B) Water energy
C) Coal
D) Wind energy

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Question 43: Which organization works on issues related to climate change?

A) WHO
B) IMF
C) IPCC
D) UNESCO

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Question 44: Which process is not a part of the carbon cycle?

A) Respiration
B) Weathering
C) Combustion
D) Condensation

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Question 45: Which process causes water pollution?

A) Erosion
B) Excessive use of fertilizers
C) Condensation
D) Afforestation

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Question 46: Which waste is not recyclable?

A) Plastic
B) Paper
C) Glass
D) Organic waste

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Question 47: Which process helps in preventing global warming?

A) Combustion
B) Industrialization
C) Afforestation
D) Urbanization

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Question 48: Which gas causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium

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Question 49: Which is a key component of the ecosystem?

A) Water
B) Atmosphere
C) Soil
D) All of the above

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Question 50: Which process harms the environment?

A) Afforestation
B) Reforestation
C) Combustion
D) Water conservation

Question 51: What is the main cause of climate change?

A) Natural disasters
B) Emission of greenhouse gases
C) Solar activities
D) Moon’s position

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Question 52: Which process helps in purifying the environment?

A) Urbanization
B) Industrialization
C) Reclamation
D) Afforestation

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Question 53: What is the primary function of the ozone layer?

A) To heat the Earth
B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun
C) To promote rainfall
D) To cool the atmosphere

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Question 54: Which gas damages the ozone layer?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

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Question 55: What is the full form of CNG?

A) Compound Natural Gas
B) Compressed Natural Gas
C) Complete Natural Gas
D) Natural Gas

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Question 56: Where is the National Environmental Research Institute located?

A) Bhopal
B) Lucknow
C) Nagpur (Maharashtra)
D) Delhi

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Question 57: In which category do various types of fungi fall?

A) Producers
B) Consumers
C) Decomposers
D) Abiotic

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Question 58: Which country has the highest biodiversity?

A) Germany
B) India
C) China
D) South Africa

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Question 59: Which disease has increased due to ozone layer depletion and ozone holes?

A) Malaria
B) AIDS
C) Cholera
D) Skin cancer

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Question 60: Sound pollution is measured in:

A) Fathom
B) Decibels
C) Tons
D) Kilograms

Question 61: The specific cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called _______.

A) Agriculture
B) Horticulture
C) Sericulture
D) Fish farming

Indian Polity and Constitution GK MCQ questions answers in English for Competitive exams. Important MCQs on Political Science from previous year exam papers of SSC, UPSC examinations.

Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs

Q.1: Which of the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Alladi Krishnaswamy
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Gopalachari Ayyngar

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Q.2: Constitutional monarchy means:
(A) The king writes the constitution
(B) The king interprets the constitution
(C) The king exercises powers granted by the constitution
(D) The king is elected by the people

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Q.3: When was the first Central Legislative Assembly formed?
(A) 1922
(B) 1923
(C) 1921
(D) 1920

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Q.4: The Constitution of India describes India as:
(A) A federation
(B) Semi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Union of States

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Q.5: The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ is a characteristic of the constitutional system of:
(A) Britain
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Switzerland

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Q.6: The method of amending the constitution through a popular veto is found in:
(A) Britain
(B) Switzerland
(C) Russia
(D) India

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Q.7: Which of the following is an essential feature of the parliamentary system of government?
(A) Flexibility of the constitution
(B) Fusion of executive and legislature
(C) Judicial supremacy
(D) Parliamentary sovereignty

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Q.8: Grassroots democracy relates to:
(A) Devolution of powers
(B) Decentralization of powers
(C) Panchayati Raj system
(D) All of the above

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Q.9: The objective of democratic socialism is to:
(A) Bring socialism through peaceful means
(B) Bring socialism through both violent and peaceful means
(C) Bring socialism through violent means
(D) Bring socialism through democratic means

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Q.10: Which judge declared that ‘secularism’ and ‘federalism’ are basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati case
(B) S.R. Bommai case
(C) Indira Sawhney case
(D) Minerva Mills case

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Q.11: Universal adult suffrage reflects that India is a country that is:
(A) Secular
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Sovereign

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Q.12: The Constitution of India came into force in:
(A) 1951
(B) 1956
(C) 1950
(D) 1949

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Q.13: The Government of India Act, 1935, was based on:
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Lord Curzon Commission
(C) Dimitrov Thesis
(D) Lord Clive’s Report

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Q.14: Who called the Government of India Act, 1935, the new charter of bondage?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) B.R. Ambedkar

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Q.15: Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Q.16: Which of the following is an essential element of the state?
(A) Sovereignty
(B) Government
(C) Territory
(D) All of these

Q.17: Which is the most important system in a democracy?
(A) Social
(B) Political
(C) Economic
(D) Governmental

Q.18: Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution?
(A) Preamble
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part I

Q.19: The phrase ‘equality before law’ in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Greece

Q.20: The thinking and ideals of the Constitution makers are reflected in:
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy

Q.21: Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary form of government
(B) Independence of judiciary
(C) Presidential form of government
(D) Federal government

Q.22: What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right against Exploitation
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Religious Freedom

Q.23: The concept of single citizenship in India is adopted from:
(A) England
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) France

Q.24: The method of impeachment of the President of India is adopted from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) France

Q.25: What was the basis for the formation of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A) Mountbatten Plan
B) Cabinet Mission Plan
C) Indian National Congress
D) Simla Agreement

Q.26: Which of the following can be called a ‘secular’ state?
(A) A state that follows a particular religion
(B) A state that is anti-religion
(C) A state that does not discriminate between religions
(D) A state that accepts all religions as the state religion

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Q.27: Initially, how many Fundamental Rights were provided?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Four
(D) Five

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Q.28: Which type of equality is not in line with the ideals of a liberal state?
(A) Legal equality
(B) Political equality
(C) Social equality
(D) Economic equality

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Q.29: What does political freedom mean?
(A) People’s control over the government
(B) Free political activities of the people
(C) Cooperation between politics and democracy
(D) Voters can form and dismiss their government

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Q.30: Which of the following is included in the list of fundamental duties of Indian citizens in the Constitution?
(A) Practicing secularism
(B) Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(C) Regularly and correctly paying all taxes to the government
(D) Not attacking any public servant while performing their duties

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Q.31: When were Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
(A) 1975
(B) 1976
(C) 1977
(D) 1979

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Q.32: The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country’s constitution?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) USSR
(D) None of these

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Q.33: Which of the following is a political right?
(A) Right to work
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to freedom of expression
(D) Right to vote

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Q.34: The provisions of citizenship in the Indian Constitution came into force in: (A) 1950
(B) 1949
(C) 1951
(D) 1952

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Q.35: What does social justice mean?
(A) Everyone should have equal economic rights.
(B) Everyone should have equal political rights.
(C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated.
(D) Everyone should be given the right to religious freedom.

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Q.36: The right to vote falls under which category?
(A) Human rights
(B) Civil rights
(C) Natural rights
(D) Political rights

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Q.37: Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(A) Justice
(B) Fraternity
(C) Equality of status
(D) Adult suffrage

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Q.38: At what age can Indian citizens vote?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 22 years
(D) 25 years

---

Q.39: According to the Preamble, ultimate power lies in the hands of:
(A) Parliament
(B) Constitution
(C) President
(D) People

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Q.40: Dual citizenship is a key feature of which type of government?
(A) Parliamentary
(B) Federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Authoritarian

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Q.41: ‘Dual citizenship’ is a feature of:
(A) Unitary government
(B) Federal government
(C) Parliamentary government
(D) Presidential government

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Q.42: Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?
(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
(B) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
(C) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
(D) State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)

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Q.43: According to the Indian Constitution, the right to property is a:
(A) Fundamental right
(B) Natural right
(C) Legal right
(D) Moral right

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Q.44: The success of democracy depends on:
(A) Right to criticize
(B) Right of association
(C) Right to personal liberty
(D) Right to property

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Q.45: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the constitution of:
(A) Britain
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada

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Q.46: How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 1
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 8

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Q.47: The Directive Principles of State Policy were adopted from:
(A) British Constitution
(B) Swiss Constitution
(C) American Constitution
(D) Irish Constitution

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Q.48: When were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens included in the Constitution?
(A) 1952
(B) 1976
(C) 1979
(D) 1981

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Q.49: The Directive Principles included in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the constitution of:
(A) Australia
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada

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Q.50: During whose rule was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Indira Gandhi government
(B) Morarji Desai government
(C) Narasimha Rao government
(D) Vajpayee government

World Geography GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for Competitive Exams. Important questions selected from previous year exam questions papers of SSC, UPSC and other examinations.

World Geography MCQ

Q.1: Which of the following countries has the longest underground tunnel?
(A) Germany
(B) Switzerland
(C) Spain
(D) France

Q.2: Which of the following holds over 50% of the world’s coal reserves?
(A) USA, Russia, and China
(B) China, India, and Russia
(C) India, Russia, and the USA
(D) China, India, and the USA

Q.3: The Panama Canal was constructed in
(A) 1869 AD
(B) 1980 AD
(C) 1905 AD
(D) 1914 AD

Q.4: Which is the hottest place on Earth?
(A) Death Valley-California
(B) El Azizia-Libya
(C) Jacobabad-Pakistan
(D) Atacama-Peru

Q.5: What was the name of the cyclone that caused devastation in Bangladesh?
(A) Shary
(B) Sidr
(C) Wendy
(D) Erin

Q.6: What is the longest mountain range on Earth?
(A) Andes Mountains
(B) Mid-Atlantic Ridge
(C) Western Cordillera
(D) Himalayan Range

Q.7: The Sunda Trench is located in:
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Gulf of Mexico

Q.8: Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
(A) Mites
(B) Humidity
(C) Insects
(D) Rodents

Q.9: The lake created by the Aswan Dam in Africa is:
(A) Chad
(B) Victoria
(C) Nasser
(D) Tanganyika

Q.10: The temperate grasslands of North America are called
(A) Pampas
(B) Downs
(C) Steppes
(D) Prairies

Q.11: The Panama Canal differs from the Suez Canal as it has:
(A) A lock system
(B) A shorter route
(C) A busier route
(D) A less busy route

Q.12: Llanos grasslands are found in:
(A) Guiana Highlands
(B) Brazilian Highlands
(C) Argentina
(D) Chile

Q.13: Approximately what percentage of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest?
(A) 2 percent
(B) 7 percent
(C) 10 percent
(D) 15 percent

Q.14: Which continent is located in both the Northern-Southern and Eastern-Western hemispheres?
(A) Australia
(B) Africa
(C) Europe
(D) South America

Q.15: The Sahara is located in which part of Africa?
(A) Eastern
(B) Western
(C) Northern
(D) Southern

Q.16: The longest river in the world is:
(A) Ganges
(B) Nile
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Amazon

Q.17: Which city is the capital of the desert country Mali?
(A) Damascus
(B) Bamako
(C) Adrar
(D) Ankara

Q.18: Peshawar is near:
(A) Karakoram Pass
(B) Zoji La Pass
(C) Namika-La Pass
(D) Khyber Pass

Q.19: The highest airport (4411 meters above sea level) is:
(A) Daocheng Yading Airport
(B) Heathrow Airport
(C) Kathmandu Airport
(D) Bangda Airport

Q.20: ‘Yosemite’ is:
(A) A river
(B) A peak
(C) A waterfall
(D) A dam

Q.21: Which strait separates Australia and Tasmania?
(A) Bass
(B) Bab-el-Mandeb
(C) Palk
(D) Bering

Q.22: The world’s largest coral reef is found off the coast of:
(A) Brazil
(B) Australia
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Cuba

Q.23: The longest river in Europe is:
(A) Rhine
(B) Rhone
(C) Danube
(D) Volga

Q.24: Asia and North America are separated by:
(A) Bass Strait
(B) Dover Strait
(C) Bering Strait
(D) Cook Strait

Q.25: The Grand Canyon is located on which river?
(A) Colorado
(B) Columbia
(C) Ohio
(D) Mississippi

Q.26: On September 23, when day and night are of equal length worldwide, it is called:
(A) Autumnal Equinox
(B) Celestial Equinox
(C) Winter Equinox
(D) Spring Equinox

Q.27: The region famous for various types of wine and champagne is:
(A) Eastern Europe
(B) Western Europe
(C) Mediterranean
(D) Grasslands

Q.28: The river with the largest water flow in the world is:
(A) Huang-Ho
(B) Amazon
(C) Zaire
(D) Nile

Q.29: The world’s largest delta is:
(A) Sundarbans
(B) Amazon Basin
(C) Greenland
(D) Congo Basin

Q.30: The canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is:
(A) Suez
(B) Malacca
(C) Panama
(D) Gibraltar

Q.31: The strait connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea is:
(A) Panama Strait
(B) Suez Strait
(C) Palk Strait
(D) Bering Strait

Q.32: The temperate grasslands of South America are called:
(A) Prairies
(B) Pampas
(C) Downs
(D) Steppes

Q.33: Volcanic activity is most common in:
(A) Hawaii
(B) Japan
(C) Columbia
(D) New Zealand

Q.34: The world’s largest freshwater lake is:
(A) Lake Victoria
(B) Lake Michigan
(C) Lake Balkhash
(D) Lake Superior

Q.35: Which of the following volcanoes is located in Mexico?
(A) Colima
(B) Purace
(C) Semeru
(D) Etna

Q.36: In July 2007, the highest peak of Halmahera Island, Mount Gamkonora Volcano, erupted in which country?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

Q.37: The Black Forest is found in:
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Czechoslovakia
(D) Romania

Q.38: Greenland, the world’s largest island, is an integral part of:
(A) Norway
(B) North America
(C) Denmark
(D) Canada

Q.39: Kangaroos, platypuses, and koala bears are wildlife native to:
(A) Australia
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Africa

Q.40: Which of the following regions has no rainfall at any time of the year?
(A) Central Europe
(B) Central North America
(C) Polar region
(D) Sub-Saharan region

Q.41: The world’s tallest gravity dam is:
(A) Beas Dam
(B) Nangal Dam
(C) Bhakra Dam
(D) Hirakud Dam

Q.42: “The climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic herders.” This statement is true for which region?
(A) African Savannah
(B) Central Asian Steppes
(C) Siberian Tundra
(D) North American Prairies

Q.43: The world’s largest desert is:
(A) Arabian
(B) Kalahari
(C) Sahara
(D) Thar

Q.44: Which two countries are connected by an underwater tunnel?
(A) England and Spain
(B) Malaysia and Singapore
(C) England and Belgium
(D) France and England

Q.45: The world’s largest archipelago country is:
(A) Philippines
(B) Indonesia
(C) Sweden
(D) Greenland

Q.46: Which of the following is a landlocked sea?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea

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Q.47: Where is the Normandy beach located?
(A) France
(B) Netherlands
(C) Spain
(D) Belgium

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Q.48: ‘Dykes’ are specifically constructed in:
(A) Norway
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) United Kingdom

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Q.49: Colorado in America is famous for this landform _______________
(A) Grand Canyon
(B) Grand Craters
(C) Great Valleys
(D) Great Basin

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Q.50: The largest island in the world is:
(A) New Guinea
(B) Madagascar
(C) Greenland
(D) Iceland

Physics (General Physics science) GK MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs selected from the previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.

Physics GK MCQ Questions in English

Q.1: If the velocity of a moving object increases by 1.5 times, its kinetic energy will:
A) Increase by 1.5 times.
B) Increase by 3 times.
C) Increase by 2.25 times.
D) Increase by 6 times.

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Q.2: Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquakes?
A) Richter Scale
B) Metric Scale
C) Centigrade Scale
D) Newton Scale

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Q.3: When a bottle of scent is opened in a corner of a room, its fragrance spreads to all parts of the room due to?
A) Evaporation
B) Absorption
C) Diffusion
D) Sublimation

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Q.4: When a ray of light passes from one medium to another, its?
A) Wavelength remains constant
B) Frequency remains constant
C) Frequency increases
D) None of these

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Q.5: The unit of resistance is?
A) Ampere
B) Coulomb
C) Henry
D) Ohm

---

Q.6: What is the unit of a light-year?
A) Intensity of light
B) Time
C) Distance
D) Speed of light

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Q.7: Who invented the telescope?
A) Galileo
B) Gutenberg
C) Edison
D) Graham Bell

---

Q.8: What type of mirror is used by a dentist to examine a patient’s teeth?
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) Cylindrical

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Q.9: Which of the following is not a unit of heat?
A) Calorie
B) Kilocalorie
C) Kilojoule
D) Watt

---

Q.10: What is used to correct farsightedness?
A) Concave lens
B) Convex lens
C) Convex mirror
D) Concave mirror

Q.11: Which instrument is used to measure the humidity of the air?
A) Hygrometer
B) Hydrometer
C) Manometer
D) Odometer

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Q.12: Why is red color used as an emergency or danger signal?
A) It is an attractive color
B) It has the longest wavelength
C) It is scattered
D) It has the highest energy

---

Q.13: What is the velocity of the fastest object?
A) Speed of sound
B) Speed of light
C) Speed of an electron
D) Speed of an atom

---

Q.14: What is the unit of speed?
A) Newton
B) Watt
C) Meter/second
D) Joule

---

Q.15: What is the standard unit of volume?
A) Kilogram
B) Second
C) Liter
D) Meter

---

Q.16: What is the difference between displacement and distance?
A) Displacement is always greater than distance
B) Displacement is a scalar quantity, while distance is a vector quantity
C) Displacement is a vector, while distance is a scalar
D) Both are the same

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Q.17: Who gave the laws of motion?
A) Newton
B) Galileo
C) Einstein
D) Darwin

---

Q.18: What is Newton’s third law of motion?
A) An object will maintain its state unless acted upon by an external force
B) The direction and magnitude of force are always the same
C) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
D) The magnitude of force is proportional to the mass of an object

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Q.19: What form of energy is converted in solar panels?
A) Mechanical energy
B) Kinetic energy
C) Electrical energy
D) Thermal energy

---

Q.20: What does the speed of sound depend on?
A) Air pressure
B) Air temperature
C) Air humidity
D) All of the above

Q.21: What causes gravitational force?
A) Mass
B) Friction
C) Reflection
D) Motion

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Q. 22: What is thermal energy related to?
A) Temperature
B) Motion
C) Velocity
D) Force

---

Q.23: What is the unit of electric current?
A) Watt
B) Ohm
C) Ampere
D) Volt

---

Q.24: How is electrical resistance calculated?
A) Ohm’s Law
B) Newton’s Law
C) Galileo’s Law
D) Hooke’s Law

---

Q.25: In which state is the speed of sound the greatest?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) All of the above

---

Q.26: What is the unit of magnetic force?
A) Newton
B) Kilogram
C) Tesla
D) Watt

---

Q.27: What travels at the same speed as light?
A) Electron
B) Proton
C) Neutron
D) Photon

---

Q.28: Who gave the principle of induction?
A) Michael Faraday
B) James Clerk Maxwell
C) Luigi Galvani
D) Albert Einstein

---

Q.29: What is the unit of energy conversion?
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Volt
D) Meter

---

Q.30: What does ‘molecular motion’ refer to in physics?
A) Overall motion of particles
B) Intrinsic motion of molecules
C) Mechanical motion of an object
D) Motion of force

Q.31: What is the difference between speed and velocity?
A) Speed is only magnitude, while velocity has direction.
B) Speed and velocity are the same.
C) Velocity is only magnitude, while speed has direction.
D) Speed has direction, while velocity is only magnitude.

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Q.32: What is the unit for measuring mass?
A) Kilogram
B) Meter
C) Joule
D) Watt

---

Q.33: What is the unit of speed?
A) Meter/second
B) Kilogram/meter
C) Newton
D) Watt

---

Q.34: What is the unit of frequency for sound waves?
A) Hertz
B) Newton
C) Watt
D) Joule

---

Q.35: Which property of light is responsible for polarization?
A) Wave nature
B) Particle nature
C) Motion
D) Sound

---

Q.36: In which state of matter is the speed of sound the greatest?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) All of the above

---

Q.37: What is the definition of gravitational force?
A) The attractive force between two objects
B) The repulsive force between two objects
C) The sustainability of an object
D) The motion of an object

---

Q.38: How many laws are there in thermodynamics?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five

---

Q.39: What is the formula for electric current?
A) Voltage/Resistance
B) Voltage × Resistance
C) Voltage/Current
D) Resistance × Current

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Q.40: In which field is resonance used?
A) Radio
B) Chemistry
C) Biology
D) Mathematics

Q. 41: What is the property of vibration known as?
A) Frequency
B) Voltage
C) Resistance
D) Temperature

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Q.42: What is the fundamental principle of the table theory?
A) The relationship between the frequency of a wave and its speed
B) The relationship between force and motion of an object
C) The relationship between electric current and resistance
D) The relationship between the speed of sound and temperature

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Q.43: What are the two main types of mechanical energy?
A) Kinetic and Potential
B) Thermal and Electrical
C) Sound and Light
D) Mass and Force

---

Q.44: What is the formula for electrical power?
A) Voltage × Current
B) Current × Resistance
C) Voltage / Current
D) Voltage / Resistance

---

Q.45: Traditionally, what type of waves are sound waves?
A) Three-dimensional
B) Two-dimensional
C) One-dimensional
D) All

---

Q.46: What is the mathematical formula for displacement?
A) Final position – Initial position
B) Final position + Initial position
C) Distance × Time
D) Time / Distance

---

Q.47: Which type of energy is lost during the cooling process?
A) Mechanical energy
B) Thermal energy
C) Electrical energy
D) Chemical energy

---

Q.48: What determines the direction of displacement?
A) Direction of motion
B) Direction of force
C) Initial and final position
D) All

---

Q.49: Which law of thermodynamics states the principle of energy conservation?
A) First law
B) Second law
C) Third law
D) Fourth law

---

Question 50: Who proposed the theory of emission?
A) Herschel
B) Planck
C) Henry
D) Newton

---

Q.51: What happens when force is applied in the direction of motion?
A) Speed increases
B) Speed decreases
C) Speed remains constant
D) No effect

---

Q.52: What is the definition of electrical resistance?
A) The ability to resist current
B) The ability to conduct current
C) Voltage capacity
D) Energy capacity

---

Q.53: At what frequency do sound waves have the most energy?
A) High frequency
B) Low frequency
C) Medium frequency
D) All the same

---

Q.54: Which law of Newton is used to calculate motion?
A) First law
B) Second law
C) Third law
D) All

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Q.55: Which law describes the relationship between mass and force?
A) Newton’s first law
B) Newton’s second law
C) Newton’s third law
D) Newton’s fourth law

Q.56: What is involved in the maximum displacement of an object?
A) Work
B) Force
C) Energy
D) Speed

Q.57: What does the speed of sound not depend on?
A) Type of medium
B) Temperature
C) Frequency of sound
D) Amplitude of sound

Q.58: What is the Table Theory related to?
A) Properties of waves
B) Properties of sound
C) Properties of electricity
D) Properties of light

Q.59: What type of laws are the laws of motion?
A) Static
B) Diffraction
C) Mechanical
D) Electrical

Q.60: What is the unit of sound intensity?
A) Decibel
B) Hertz
C) Watt
D) Joule

Q.61: What type of energy is electricity?
A) Thermal
B) Mechanical
C) Chemical
D) Electrical

Indian Economy GK MCQ Question answer for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs on Economics of India from previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.

Medium : English

Indian Economy MCQ in English

Q.1: Which Five-Year Plan’s objectives were influenced by the Gadgil Formula in India?
(A) Second Five-Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five-Year Plan
(C) Third Five-Year Plan
(D) Seventh Five-Year Plan

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Q.2: When was the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) established?
(A) 1934
(B) 1935
(C) 1936
(D) 1949

---

Q.3: Name the Indian state with the highest tax revenue.
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra

---

Q.4: Which of the following public sector banks will receive a loan from the BRICS New Development Bank?
(A) Canara Bank
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) ICICI
(D) State Bank of India

---

Q.5: Which of the following countries recently overtook Thailand as the world’s largest rice exporter in 2015?
(A) India
(B) Myanmar
(C) China
(D) Vietnam

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Q.6: The Government of India has recently decided to integrate the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana with:
(A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) National Rural Livelihood Mission
(C) Hariyali
(D) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program

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Q.7: The PURA scheme, which envisages the provision of urban amenities in rural areas, was first advocated by:
(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(B) Shri A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Dr. Arvind Subramanian
(D) Prof. Dinshaw Mistry

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Q.8: National income can be calculated by all of the following methods except:
(A) Sum of all expenditures
(B) Sum of all outputs
(C) Sum of all savings
(D) Sum of all incomes

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Q.9: In a national context, which of the following indicates a macroeconomic perspective?
(A) Inflation in India
(B) Sales of Bata Shoe Company
(C) Mango exports to the UK
(D) Income from Railways

Q.10: State Bank of India was previously known by this name:
(A) Imperial Bank of India
(B) Canara Bank
(C) Syndicate Bank
(D) Indian Cooperative Bank

Q.11: Whose signature appears on a one-rupee note?
(A) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(D) None of the above

Q.12: The full form of NABARD is:
(A) National Business for Accounting and Review
(B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(C) National Bank for Aeronautics and Radar Development
(D) National Bureau for Air and Road Transport

Q.13: When was the Reserve Bank of India nationalized?
(A) 1949
(B) 1951
(C) 1947
(D) 1935

Q.14: Which of the following indicates a microeconomic perspective in national terms?
(A) Per capita income in India
(B) Study of TISCO’s sales
(C) Inflation in India
(D) Educated unemployment in India

Q.15: How does agriculture promote industrial development in India?
(A) By opening markets for industrial products
(B) By providing food and clothing to workers
(C) By supplying raw materials
(D) All of the above

Q.16: The Industrial Development Bank of India was established in:
(A) July 1968
(B) July 1966
(C) July 1964
(D) July 1962

Q.17: The slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was included in:
(A) Second Plan
(B) First Plan
(C) Fifth Plan
(D) Fourth Plan

Q.18: Which bank is limited to the needs of agricultural and rural finance?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) IFC
(D) NABARD

Q.19: The Indian economy is a/an:
(A) Free economy
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Capitalist economy
(D) Communist economy

Q.20: The P. Rama Rao Committee is related to:
(A) Taxation
(B) Defense
(C) Industry
(D) Agriculture

Q.21: The lender of last resort is:
(A) SBI
(B) IDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI

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Q.22: The period of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan is:
(A) January 1, 2012 to December 31, 2017
(B) April 1, 2011 to March 31, 2016
(C) January 1, 2011 to December 31, 2016
(D) April 1, 2012 to March 31, 2017

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Q.23: In which year was the Imperial Bank established?
(A) 1930
(B) 1935
(C) 1955
(D) 1921

---

Q.24: Which Five-Year Plan had a duration of only four years?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Seventh

---

Q.25: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for food grains was introduced in which year? (A) 1944
(B) 1964
(C) 1974
(D) 1954

---

Q.26: In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all nationalized commercial banks is determined by:
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Central Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks’ Association
(D) Reserve Bank of India

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Q.27: Which of the following provides long-term loans to private industries in India? (A) Food Corporation of India
(B) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(C) Primary Credit Society
(D) Land Development Bank

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Q.28: “Agriculture should serve as a means of income, livelihood, and opportunities for local communities” – This statement was made by:
(A) Dr. Madhavan Nair
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Dr. Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

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Q.29: Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs was the focus of the Brundtland Commission. It is called:
(A) Sustainable Development
(B) Mitigation
(C) Disaster Management
(D) Capacity Building

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Q.30: SEBI was established in:
(A) 1992
(B) 1980
(C) 1984
(D) 1988

Q.31: India exports electricity to:
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bhutan

Q.32: The largest single item of current government expenditure in India is:
(A) Defense expenditure
(B) Interest payment on loans
(C) Subsidy payment
(D) Investment in social overheads

Q.33: The ‘More Mega Store’ retail chain is related to which Indian industry?
(A) Reliance Industries
(B) Bharti Enterprises
(C) Aditya Birla Group
(D) None of these

Q.34: Which spice tops in value as an export commodity of India?
(A) Black Pepper
(B) Chili
(C) Turmeric
(D) Cardamom

Q.35: In which year was the nationalization of fourteen major banks in India?
(A) 1967
(B) 1968
(C) 1969
(D) 1971

Q.36: One rupee notes are issued by:
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) President of India
(D) Government of India

Q.37: India adopted the decimal currency system in:
(A) 1955
(B) 1956
(C) 1957
(D) 1958

Q.38: The number of nationalized banks in India is:
(A) 14
(B) 21
(C) 20
(D) 22

Q.39: Maruti cars are mainly based on:
(A) Japanese technology
(B) Korean technology
(C) Russian technology
(D) German technology

Q.40: Which measure has not been undertaken by the government to curb inflation? (A) Increase in consumption
(B) Increase in production
(C) Reduction in deficit financing
(D) Taxation measures

Q.41: In the Indian economy, the ‘slack season’ refers to:
(A) March-April
(B) September-December
(C) January-June
(D) February-April

Q.42: Which of the following is not a qualitative credit control by a country’s central bank?
(A) Rationing of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Variation in margin requirements
(D) Regulation of margin requirements

Q.43: The market where funds can be borrowed is called:
(A) Reserved market
(B) Institutional market
(C) Money market
(D) Exchange market

Q.44: If the marginal return increases at a decreasing rate, then the total return:
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) Becomes income

Q.45: According to newspaper reports, the government plans to disinvest what percentage of its stake in Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL)?
(A) 5%
(B) 50%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%

Q.46: Ownership of RRB (Regional Rural Bank) is held by:
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Sponsor Bank
(D) Jointly by all of the above

Q.47: Which of the following methods is not used to determine the national income of a country?
(A) Income method
(B) Output method
(C) Input method
(D) Investment method

Q.48: Which scheme of the Government of India makes Indian cities slum-free?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Central Rural Sanitation Program MME
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Antyodaya

Q.49: The current fiscal deficit percentage in the GDP is:
(A) 7
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 1

Q.50: The term ‘Tragedy of the Commons’ related to the overuse of resources was propounded by:
(A) Garrett Hardin
(B) Seligman
(C) Adolf Wagner
(D) A.P. Lemierre

Books and Authors GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for preparation of Competitive exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

Books and Authors MCQs in English

Q.1: Who is the author of the novel ‘When the River Sleeps’?
(A) Easterine Kire
(B) Anuradha Roy
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Shobha De

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Q.2: Which of the following books is written by Sachin Tendulkar?
(A) Playing It My Way
(B) Untold Story
(C) Train to Pakistan
(D) India of My Dreams

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Q.3: The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ is related to whom?
(A) William Wordsworth
(B) John Keats
(C) Dr. Charles Dickens
(D) Dr. Jonathan Swift

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Q.4: Who is the author of the book ‘Zest for Life’?
(A) Emile Zola
(B) H.G. Wells
(C) Virginia Woolf
(D) Mark Twain

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Q.5: Who wrote the famous novel The Guide?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Satyajit Ray

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Q.6: Who is the author of the book Magic Seeds?
(A) Cyrus Mistry
(B) V.S. Naipaul
(C) Jhumpa Lahiri
(D) Vikram Seth

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Q.7: Who is the author of the book Romancing with Life?
(A) Kapil Dev
(B) Dev Anand
(C) Shashi Tharoor
(D) Bill Clinton

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Q.8: Who is the author of Indica?
(A) Megasthenes
(B) Fa-Hien
(C) Seleucus
(D) Hiuen Tsang

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Q.9: Who wrote The Discovery of India?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

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Q.10: Who wrote the book The Kingdom of God is Within You?
(A) Leo Tolstoy
(B) Henry David
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) John Ruskin

Q.11: In which year was the book ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ published?
(A) 1930
(B) 1932
(C) 1934
(D) 1936

Q.12: Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom from Fear’?
(A) Benazir Bhutto
(B) Corazon Aquino
(C) Aung San Suu Kyi
(D) Nayantara Sahgal

Q.13: Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty-Four’?
(A) J.M. Barrie
(B) Walter Scott
(C) George Orwell
(D) Thomas Hardy

Q.14: Who wrote ‘Mein Kampf’?
(A) Hitler
(B) Mussolini
(C) Bismarck
(D) Mazzini

Q.15: Who is the author of the book ‘The Life Divine’?
(A) M.K. Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Sri Aurobindo

Q.16: Who wrote ‘Das Kapital’?
(A) Asian Drama
(B) Emma
(C) Das Kapital
(D) The Good Earth

Q.17: Who wrote ‘Meghaduta’?
(A) Humayun Kabir
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Banabhatta
(D) Kalidasa

Q.18: Which of the following is a famous English author?
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Mahadevi Verma
(C) Ashapoorna Devi
(D) Mulk Raj Anand

Q.19: Who wrote ‘Indica’?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Aryabhata
(D) Seleucus

Q.20: In which author’s book is the character ‘Rusty’ found?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Ruskin Bond
(C) R.K. Laxman
(D) Rabindranath Tagore

Q.21: Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’?
(A) Lamarck
(B) Buffon
(C) Darwin
(D) Linnaeus

Q.22: Who wrote the book ‘Narendra Modi: A Political Biography’?
(A) Andy Marino
(B) David Irving
(C) Jeffrey Dale
(D) Kingsley Amis

Q.23: Who is the author of ‘A Suitable Boy’?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) None of these

Q.24: Which of the following books was not written by Jawaharlal Nehru?
(A) Discovery of India
(B) My Experiments with Truth
(C) An Autobiography
(D) Glimpses of World History

Q.25: Who wrote the book ‘The Hindus: An Alternative History’?
(A) Shobhaa De
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Wendy Doniger
(D) Salman Rushdie

Q.26: Who wrote ‘The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian’?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
(C) R.K. Laxman
(D) Rajmohan Gandhi

Q.27: Who is the author of ‘India of My Dreams’?
(A) J.B. Kripalani
(B) M.K. Gandhi
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.28: Who is the author of ‘Arthashastra’?
(A) Chandragupta
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Chanakya
(D) Seleucus Nicator

Q.29: Who wrote the book ‘Beyond the Lines: An Autobiography’?
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) General J.J. Singh
(C) Kuldip Nayar
(D) Ray Bradbury

Q.30: Who is the author of ‘Harsha Charitra’?
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Amarasimha
(C) Kalidasa
(D) Harisena

Q.31: Who wrote the book ‘Employment, Interest, and Money’?
(A) J.M. Keynes
(B) A. Marshall
(C) D. Patinkin
(D) A. Smith

Q.32: Who wrote the famous play ‘Nil Darpan’, depicting the atrocities of British indigo planters?
(A) Premchand
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Dinabandhu Mitra
(D) Subramania Bharati

Q.33: Who wrote ‘One Straw Revolution’?
(A) Rachel Carson
(B) M.S. Swaminathan
(C) Norman Borlaug
(D) Masanobu Fukuoka

Q.34: Who wrote ‘Natyashastra’?
(A) Bharat Muni
(B) Narad Muni
(C) Jandu Muni
(D) Vyas Muni

Q.35: Who is the author of the book ‘A Cricketing Life’?

(A) Christopher Martin Jenkins
(B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Tony Greig

Q.36: Which of the following works was Salman Rushdie’s first novel?
(A) Shame
(B) Midnight’s Children
(C) The Satanic Verses
(D) The Moor’s Last Sigh

Q.37: Which film directed by Satyajit Ray is based on Rabindranath Tagore’s story ‘Nastanirh’?
(A) Aparajito
(B) Charulata
(C) Pather Panchali
(D) Apur Sansar

Q.38: Which of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan?
(A) Malgudi Days
(B) Swami and Friends
(C) The Guide
(D) The Gardener

Q.39: Which literary work was written by Krishna Devaraya?
(A) Kavirajamarga
(B) Ushaparinayam
(C) Amuktamalyada
(D) Kathasaritsagara

Q.40: Who is the author of the book ‘The State of the Nation’?
(A) Mark Tully
(B) Vinod Mehta
(C) Kuldip Nayar
(D) Fali S. Nariman

Q.41: Who wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’?
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Rajmohan Gandhi
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) R.K. Karanjia

Q.42: Who is the author of the famous book ‘A Better India: A Better World’?
(A) Azim Premji
(B) Rajiv Sikri
(C) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(D) Prema Mahajan

Q.43: Who wrote the book ‘The Satanic Verses’?
(A) Agatha Christie
(B) Gunnar Myrdal
(C) Gabriela Sabatini
(D) Salman Rushdie

Q.44: Which of the following books was written by Atiq Rahimi?
(A) Earth and Ashes
(B) This Savage Rite
(C) The Red Devil
(D) Witness the Night

Q.45: ‘Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India’ was recently in the news and banned in some Indian states including Gujarat. Who is the author of this book?
(A) Joseph Lelyveld
(B) Michael Ondaatje
(C) Jack Welch
(D) Duncan Green

Q.46: Who is the author of the book ‘The Zigzag Way’?
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Salman Sodhi
(C) Jahnavi Barua
(D) Lisa Genova

Q.47: Who wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence’?

(A) Krishna Varma
(B) Madam Cama
(C) B.G. Tilak
(D) V.D. Savarkar

Q.48: Who wrote the Sanskrit grammar?
(A) Kalidasa
(B) Charaka
(C) Panini
(D) Aryabhata

Q.49: Which of the following famous books is related to Austin?
(A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
(B) Leviathan
(C) The Social Contract
(D) The Problem of Sovereignty

Q.50: Who is the author of the book ‘India Wins Freedom’?
(A) Kuldip Nayar
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Indira Gandhi

Important Indian Art and Culture MCQ Questions for competitive exams. General Knowledge MCQs in English for the preparation of UPSC, SSC and all Govt jobs competitive exams.

Art and Culture MCQs

Q.1: Papeti is a festival of which religion?
(a) Parsi
(b) Jain
(c) Sikh
(d) Buddhist

Q.2: Which of the following is a famous Assamese festival?
(a) Makar Sankranti
(b) Yugadi
(c) Onam
(d) Rongali Bihu

Q.3: The most popular festival in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Gudi Padwa
(b) Onam
(c) Bihu
(d) Pongal

Q.4: Which of the following languages has been granted the status of a classical language by the Central Government?
(a) Gujarati
(b) Tamil
(c) Marathi
(d) Malayalam

Q.5: Who initiated the famous Persian festival Nowruz?
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Firoz Tughlaq
(d) Balban

Q.6: Ganesh Chaturthi is celebrated with great enthusiasm in which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Q.7: Where is the ‘Pushkar Fair’ held?
(a) Jodhpur
(b) Ajmer
(c) Jaipur
(d) Udaipur

Q.8: What language is spoken by the people of Lakshadweep?
(a) Malayalam
(b) Tamil
(c) Kannada
(d) Telugu

Q.9: The folk painting style ‘Madhubani’ is popular in which of the following states of India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

Q.10: The Lalit Kala Akademi is dedicated to promoting:
(a) Fine Arts
(b) Literature
(c) Music
(d) Dance and Drama

Q.11: Who was the painter of the famous painting ‘Bharat Mata’?
(a) Gaganendranath Tagore
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Nandalal Bose
(d) Jamini Roy

Q.12: The birthplace of the distinguished personality Amrita Sher-Gil is:
(a) Hungary
(b) India
(c) Austria
(d) Poland

Q.13: Raja Ravi Varma from Kerala was a distinguished:
(a) Dancer
(b) Painter
(c) Poet
(d) Singer

Q.14: Jamini Roy made a name for himself in which field?
(a) Badminton
(b) Painting
(c) Theater
(d) Sculpture

Q.15: Who painted the masterpiece ‘Hamsa Damayanti’?
(a) Anjolie Ela Menon
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Amrita Sher-Gil
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.16: In which field did Prodosh Dasgupta distinguish himself?
(a) Sculpture
(b) Painting
(c) Instrumental Music
(d) Hindustani Vocal Music

Q.17: Who was the founder of the Bengal School of Art?
(a) Nandalal Bose
(b) B.C. Sanyal
(c) Jamini Roy
(d) Abanindranath Tagore

Q.18: Rajasthani and Pahari art styles are famous for:
(a) Music
(b) Dance
(c) Sculpture
(d) Painting

Q.19: In which state is the folk painting ‘Madhubani’ popular?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
(c) Bihar
(d) Assam

Q.20: During which period did the Gandhara art develop?
(a) Gupta
(b) Maurya
(c) Satavahana
(d) Kushan

Q.21: What do the paintings of Ajanta depict?
(a) Ramayana
(b) Mahabharata
(c) Jataka
(d) Panchatantra

Q.22: Where did the miniature painting of Indian heritage develop?
(a) Guler
(b) Mewar
(c) Bundi
(d) Kishangarh

Q.23: In which field did Jamini Roy earn fame?
(a) Sculpture
(b) Music
(c) Painting
(d) Drama

Q.24: Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh, was a citizen of which country?
(a) Netherlands
(b) Portugal
(c) UK
(d) France

Q.25: Who among the following is famous in the field of painting?
(a) Parveen Sultana
(b) Prof. T.N. Krishnan
(c) Ramkinkar
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.26: Who among the following is famous in the field of sculpture?
(a) Manjit Bawa
(b) Saroja Vaidyanathan
(c) Ramkinkar
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.27: Who among the following is a renowned painter?
(a) Amrita Sher-Gil
(b) N Rajam
(c) Kamla Dasgupta
(d) U Srinivas

Q.28: Which of the following Sikh heritage sites is not in India?
(a) Nanded
(b) Kesgarh Sahib
(c) Paonta Sahib
(d) Nankana Sahib

Q.29: The oldest form of Hindustani classical music composition is:
(a) Dhrupad
(b) Thumri
(c) Ghazal
(d) None of the above

Q.30: Raga Kameshwari was composed by:
(a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(b) None of the above
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar
(d) Uday Shankar

Q.31: The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is:
(a) Kuchipudi
(b) Odissi
(c) Bharatanatyam
(d) Kathakali

Q.32: Who directed the film based on the bandit queen Phoolan Devi?
(a) Abbas-Mustan
(b) Shashi Kapoor
(c) Shekhar Kapur
(d) Anil Kapoor

Q.33: Which of the following is a folk dance of India?
(a) Mohiniyattam
(b) Kathakali
(c) Manipuri
(d) Garba

Q.34: What was the first Indian talkie film?
(a) Kisan Kanya
(b) Raja Harishchandra
(c) Bharat Mata
(d) Alam Ara

Q.35: Hariprasad Chaurasia is a renowned player of:
(a) Shehnai
(b) Tabla
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.36: The Kathakali dance form is associated with which state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Manipur
(d) Kerala

Q.37: The religious text of the Jewish people is:
(a) Analects
(b) Torah
(c) Tripitaka
(d) Zend-Avesta

Q.38: Shiv Kumar Sharma is famous for playing which instrument?
(a) Santoor
(b) Sitar
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.39: The great Indian maestro Ustad Bismillah Khan is associated with:
(a) Shehnai
(b) Tabla
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.40: What is the name of the famous folk theatre of the Bhils?
(a) Gawarl
(b) Swang
(c) Tamasha
(d) Rammat

Q.41: Sanjukta Panigrahi was famous for which dance?
(a) Bharatanatyam
(b) Kathak
(c) Manipuri
(d) Odissi

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Q.42: Kathakali classical dance originated from:
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

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Q.43: ‘Bhangra’ is a dance form of:
(a) Haryana
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Punjab

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Q.44: ‘Dandiya’ is a popular dance of:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Assam
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Maharashtra

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Q.45: ‘Sattriya Dance’ was recognized as a classical dance of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi only in 2000. It originated from:
(a) Assam
(b) Karnataka
(c) Gujarat
(d) Tripura

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Q.46: In which of the following films did Pran act as a character artist instead of a villain?
(a) Ram Aur Shyam
(b) Zanjeer
(c) Madhumati
(d) Himalay Ki God Mein

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Q.47: Which of the following films was not directed by Satyajit Ray?

(a) Aparajito
(b) Charulata
(c) Pather Panchali
(d) Salaam Bombay

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Q.48: Nautanki is a folk dance of which state?
(a) Haryana
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat

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Q.49: Guru Gopinath was a proponent of:
(a) Kathak
(b) Kathakali
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Bharatanatyam

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Q.50: Satyajit Ray was associated with which of the following?
(a) Classical Dance
(b) Journalism
(c) Classical Music
(d) Film Direction