AIKEYME 2025 Begins in Tanzania: Indian Navy Joins African Nations for Maritime Drill

Africa India Key Maritime Engagement (AIKEYME), a multilateral maritime exercise, began on 13 April 2025 in Tanzania and will conclude on 18 April 2025. The exercise focuses on collaborative solutions to regional maritime challenges.

Participating countries include Comoros, Djibouti, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, South Africa, and India. The Indian Navy is represented by INS Chennai, INS Kesari (a Landing Ship Tank), and INS Sunayna.

The harbour phase features an inauguration ceremony and deck reception, while the sea phase (16–18 April) emphasizes strengthening maritime security cooperation.

Sourav Ganguly Reappointed as ICC Men’s Cricket Committee Chairperson

Sourav Ganguly, former Indian cricket captain, has been reappointed as the chairperson of the ICC Men’s Cricket Committee as of April 13, 2025. He first took on the role in 2021, succeeding Anil Kumble.

The ICC Men’s Cricket Committee advises the ICC Board on key areas such as playing conditions, rule changes, and the sport’s long-term development. Under Ganguly’s leadership, the committee aims to further modernize and grow the game globally.

Joining him on the committee are prominent names like VVS Laxman, Temba Bavuma, Hamid Hassan, Desmond Haynes, and Jonathan Trott, bringing diverse and global perspectives.

Ganguly’s reappointment signals the ICC’s trust in his vision and progressive leadership, promising positive strides for the future of cricket.

India Wins Gold in Compound Mixed Team Archery at World Cup 2025

The Indian archery duo of Jyothi Surekha Vennam and Rishabh Yadav won the gold medal in the compound mixed team event at the Archery World Cup Stage 1 in Florida, USA, on April 12, 2025. They defeated Chinese Taipei’s Huang I-Jou and Chen Chieh-Lun with a score of 153-151.

After a slow start, losing the first two series, the Indian pair staged a strong comeback, dominating the final two rounds. This was Rishabh Yadav’s first World Cup gold and Jyothi’s 11th. Notably, they became the first-ever champions in this category since it was officially added to the Olympic program for the 2028 Los Angeles Games.

Mohun Bagan Wins ISL 2024-25 Title with 2-1 Victory Over Bengaluru FC

Mohun Bagan Super Giant won the 2024-25 Indian Super League (ISL) title with a 2-1 victory over Bengaluru FC on April 12, 2025, at Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan Stadium, Kolkata. Bengaluru took the lead via an own goal by Alberto Rodríguez in the 49th minute, but Jason Cummings equalized with a penalty in the 72nd minute. Greg Maclaren scored the winning goal in extra time, sealing the title.

This marked Mohun Bagan’s second ISL title (after 2022-23) and made them only the second team after Mumbai City FC to win both the League Winners Shield and ISL Cup in the same season.

Indian Geography MCQ for Competitive Exams

Indian Geography MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams in English Medium. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free practice of upcoming exams.

Indian Geography MCQ

Q.1: Which hill station’s name means ‘place of the thunderbolt’?

(a) Gangtok
(b) Shillong
(c) Ootacamund
(d) Darjeeling

Answer
(d) Darjeeling

Q.2: To conserve coral reefs, the Government of India declared one of the following as a Marine Park:

(a) Andaman Islands
(b) Gulf of Kutch
(c) Lakshadweep Islands
(d) Gulf of Mannar

Answer
(b) Gulf of Kutch

Q.3: The headquarters of the Survey of India Department is located in:

(a) Jaipur
(b) Dehradun
(c) Hyderabad
(d) New Delhi

Answer
(b) Dehradun

Q.4: Which of the following states in India has the longest coastline?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat

Answer
(d) Gujarat

Q.5: Which of the following is called a ‘young fold mountain’?

(a) Aravali
(b) Nilgiri
(c) Himalaya
(d) Vindhya

Answer
(c) Himalaya

Q.6: The easternmost peak of the Himalayas is:

(a) Namcha Barwa
(b) Annapurna
(c) Kanchenjunga
(d) Mount Everest

Answer
(a) Namcha Barwa

Q.7: Metamorphic rocks change in:

(a) Structure
(b) Texture
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Original chemical composition

Answer
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Q.8: What is the total area of India?

(a) 8,511,965 sq km
(b) 3,897,950 sq km
(c) 5,926,780 sq km
(d) 3,287,590 sq km

Answer
(d) 3,287,590 sq km

Q.9: The two richest eco-zones of India are:

(a) Himalayas and Vindhyas
(b) Himalayas and Eastern Ghats
(c) Himalayas and Western Ghats
(d) Himalayas and Aravalis

Answer
(c) Himalayas and Western Ghats

Q.10: How many islands are there in Lakshadweep?

(a) 17
(b) 27
(c) 36
(d) 47

Answer
(c) 36

Q.11: Niyamgiri hill is located in Kalahandi district of:

(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Punjab
(d) Kerala

Answer
(a) Odisha

Q.12: Indira Point is the southernmost tip of:

(a) Maldives
(b) Laccadive
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Dhanushkodi

Answer
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q.13: The highest peak of India is:

(a) Kamet Mountain
(b) Nandakot
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) K2 (Godwin Austen)

Answer
(d) K2 (Godwin Austen)

Q.14: Sabarimala is situated in which of the following states?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

Answer
(c) Kerala

Q.15: Which Himalayan peak is also known as ‘Sagarmatha’?

(a) Nanga Parbat
(b) Dhaulagiri
(c) Mt. Everest
(d) Kanchenjunga

Answer
(c) Mt. Everest

Q.16: The highest mountain peak of peninsular India is:

(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Nilgiris

Answer
(a) Anaimudi

Q.17: The Greater Himalayas are otherwise called as:

(a) Himadri
(b) Sahyadri
(c) Assam Himalayas
(d) Siwalik

Answer
(a) Himadri

Q.18: The world’s largest river island, Majuli, is located in which state?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Tripura
(d) Mizoram

Answer
(b) Assam

Q.19: Kanchenjunga is situated in:

(a) Nepal
(b) Sikkim
(c) West Bengal
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer
(b) Sikkim

Q.20: Godwin Austen is a/an:

(a) Inventor of telescope
(b) Geologist
(c) Pass
(d) Peak

Answer
(d) Peak

Q.21: Jog Falls is situated in which state?

(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer
(c) Karnataka

Q.22: Which of the following is the highest peak of undisputed Indian territory?

(a) Mount Everest
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Nanga Parbat

Answer
(c) Nanda Devi

Q.23: Palghat joins which of the following states?

(a) Sikkim and West Bengal
(b) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim1

Answer
(c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Q.24: ‘Loktak’ is a:

(a) Valley
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) Mountain range

Answer
(b) Lake

Q.25: Which of the following states has the longest coastline?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer
(c) Gujarat

Q.26: The pass located in Himachal Pradesh is:

(a) Shipki La
(b) Zojila
(c) Nathula
(d) Jelepla

Answer
(a) Shipki La

Q.27: The highest waterfall in India is:

(a) Hogenakkal Falls
(b) Kunchikal Falls
(c) Jog Falls
(d) Shimsha Falls

Answer
(b) Kunchikal Falls

Q.28: The sea that was in place of the Himalayas was:

(a) Red Sea
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Tethys Sea
(d) Dead Sea

Answer
(c) Tethys Sea

Q.29: Kullu Valley is situated between:

(a) Ladakh and Pir Panjal
(b) Ranjoti and Nag Tibba
(c) Lesser Himalayas and Shiwalik
(d) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal

Answer
(a) Ladakh and Pir Panjal

Q.30: The mountains that are not a part of the Himalayan range are:

(a) Aravali
(b) Kunlun
(c) Karakoram
(d) Hindu Kush

Answer
(a) Aravali

Q.31: The length of the coastline of India is approximately:

(a) 4,900 kilometers
(b) 5,700 kilometers
(c) 7,500 kilometers
(d) 8,300 kilometers

Answer
(c) 7,500 kilometers

Q.32: Which of the following is the second highest peak in the world?

(a) Dhaulagiri
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) K2
(d) Nanda Devi

Answer
(c) K2

Q.33: Badland topography is characteristic of:

(a) Chambal Valley
(b) Coastal region
(c) Sunderban Delta
(d) Gulf of Kutch

Answer
(a) Chambal Valley

Q.34: The Indian desert is known as:

(a) Gobi
(b) Sahara
(c) Thar
(d) Atacama

Answer
(c) Thar

Q.35: Which state of India has the largest coastline?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Odisha
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer
(a) Andhra Pradesh

Q.36: The coast related to Kerala is called:

(a) Konkan Coast
(b) Malabar Coast
(c) Coromandel Coast
(d) Canara Coast

Answer
(b) Malabar Coast

Q.37: The coastline of India is ……… km.

(a) 5,500 kilometers
(b) 6,500 kilometers
(c) 7,500 kilometers
(d) 8,400 kilometers

Answer
(c) 7,500 kilometers

Q.38: Baltora Glacier is situated in:

(a) Karakoram Ranges
(b) Pamir Plateau
(c) Shiwalik
(d) Alps

Answer
(a) Karakoram Ranges

Q.39: Which of the following cities/towns is located on the northernmost latitude?

(a) Patna
(b) Allahabad
(c) Pachmarhi
(d) Ahmedabad

Answer
(a) Patna

Q.40: The Andaman group and Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by:

(a) Ten Degree Channel
(b) Great Channel
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Andaman2 Sea

Answer
(a) Ten Degree Channel

Q.41: The southern tip of India is:

(a) Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)
(b) Point Calimere
(c) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
(d) Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram3

Answer
(c) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands

Q.42: The Nallamala Hills are located in the state of:

(a) Odisha
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

Answer
(c) Andhra Pradesh

Q.43: The coastal tract of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is called:

(a) Konkan
(b) Coromandel
(c) Eastern coast
(d) Malabar coast

Answer
(b) Coromandel

Q.44: The highest Indian waterfall is:

(a) Gokak
(b) Gersoppa
(c) Shivanasamudra
(d) Yenna

Answer
(b) Gersoppa

Q.45: The fertile land between two rivers is called

(a) Water divide
(b) Water shed
(c) Doab
(d) Tarai

Answer
(c) Doab

Q.46: Nathu La, the place where India-China border trade has resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in:

(a) Sikkim
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir4

Answer
(a) Sikkim

Q.47: In terms of area, India is the largest country in the world.

(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Sixth
(d) Seventh

Answer
(d) Seventh

Q.48: The approximate length of India’s coastline is:

(a) 5,500 km
(b) 6,000 km
(c) 6,500 km
(d) 7,000 km

Answer
(d) 7,000 km

Q.49: The standard time of a country differs from GMT in multiples of:

(a) Two hours
(b) One hour
(c) Half an hour
(d) Four minutes

Answer
(c) Half an hour

Q.50: The Naga, Khasi and Garo hills are located in:

(a) Purvanchal Range
(b) Karakoram Range
(c) Zaskar Range
(d) Himalayan Range

Answer
(a) Purvanchal Range

Today Current Affairs MCQs : 12 April 2025

Question: What is the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) used for in India?

A) Measuring the inflation rate in the economy
B) Calculating the country’s foreign exchange reserves
C) Measuring the performance and growth of industrial sectors
D) Evaluating the agricultural output of the nation

Show Answer
Answer: C) Measuring the performance and growth of industrial sectors
India’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) rose 2.9% year-on-year in February 2025, showing moderate growth compared to 5.0% in January

Q. What is ‘Gaurav’ successfully tested by DRDO in April 2025?

A. A hypersonic missile
B. A long-range glide bomb
C. A drone surveillance system
D. A satellite launch vehicle

Show Answer
Answer: B. A long-range glide bomb
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted release trials of the Long-Range Glide Bomb ‘Gaurav’ from a Su-30 MKI aircraft on 12 April 2025.

Q. Who is regarded as India’s first female teacher?

A. Rani Lakshmi Bai
B. Savitribai Phule
C. Annie Besant
D. Sarojini Naidu

Show Answer
Answer: B) Savitribai Phule
Social Reformer Mahatma Jyotirao Phule Jayanti, observed annually on April 11. His wife, Savitribai Phule, was India’s first female teacher.

Q. What epic features Lord Hanuman as a central character?

A. Mahabharata
B. Vedas
C. Ramayana
D. Upanishads

Show Answer
Answer: C. Ramayana
Hanuman Jayanti, celebrated on April 12, marks the birth anniversary of Lord Hanuman, a symbol of devotion, strength, and courage in Hindu mythology.

Hanuman Jayanti 2025: Celebrating the Spirit of Devotion, Strength, and Selflessness

Hanuman Jayanti, celebrated on April 12, marks the birth anniversary of Lord Hanuman, a symbol of devotion, strength, and courage in Hindu mythology.

Lord Hanuman, a key figure in the Ramayana, is revered for his loyalty to Lord Rama, heroic deeds like carrying the Sanjeevani mountain, and his unwavering faith and humility.

On this day, devotees visit temples, chant the Hanuman Chalisa, and engage in bhajans, kirtans, fasting, and rituals. Many also perform charity and community service, reflecting Hanuman’s spirit of selflessness.

Hanuman Jayanti serves as a reminder to embrace devotion, humility, and inner strength in our lives, drawing inspiration from Lord Hanuman’s teachings and actions.

Mahatma Phule Jayanti: Honoring a Visionary Social Reformer

Mahatma Jyotirao Phule Jayanti, observed annually on April 11, commemorates the birth anniversary of one of India’s most influential social reformers, Jyotirao Phule. Born in 1827 in Satara, Maharashtra, Phule dedicated his life to challenging caste discrimination, promoting education for all, and advocating for social equality.

Phule’s revolutionary contributions include establishing schools for girls and marginalized communities, alongside his wife, Savitribai Phule, India’s first female teacher. Together, they founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth Seekers) to fight caste injustices and promote rational thinking. His literary work, Gulamgiri (Slavery), boldly critiqued Brahminical supremacy and called for the empowerment of oppressed communities.

DRDO Successfully Tests Indigenous Long-Range Glide Bomb ‘Gaurav’ with Su-30 MKI

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted release trials of the Long-Range Glide Bomb ‘Gaurav’ from a Su-30 MKI aircraft on 12 April 2025.

The Gaurav bomb demonstrated a range close to 100 km with high accuracy during the trials, according to the Defence Ministry.

Gaurav is a 1000-kg class indigenously developed glide bomb, designed by Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), and the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur, Odisha.

Senior officials from DRDO and the Indian Air Force (IAF) were present and reviewed the trials.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh praised DRDO, IAF, and industry for the successful development, stating that Gaurav will significantly enhance the Armed Forces’ capabilities. DRDO Chairman Dr. Samir V Kamat also congratulated the DRDO team on the successful trials.

India’s Industrial Growth Slows to 2.9% in February 2025: Mixed Sector Performance Noted

India’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) rose 2.9% year-on-year in February 2025, showing moderate growth compared to 5.0% in January, as per the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Sector-wise:

  • Manufacturing (highest weight in IIP) grew 2.9%
  • Electricity generation rose 3.6%
  • Mining increased by 1.6%

Overall IIP stood at 151.3 in February, up from 147.1 last year.

Within manufacturing, 14 of 23 industry groups posted gains, led by:

  • Basic metals: 5.8%
  • Motor vehicles, trailers, and semi-trailers: 8.9%
  • Other non-metallic mineral products: 8%

Key drivers: auto components, alloy steel, cement, and prefabricated concrete blocks.

Use-based trends:

  • Capital goods: +8.2%
  • Infrastructure/construction goods: +6.6%
  • Primary goods: +2.8%
  • Consumer durables: +3.8%
  • Consumer non-durables: -2.1%

The report included revised figures for January 2025 (first revision) and November 2024 (final), with 94% and 95% response rates respectively.

March 2025 IIP data will be released on April 28.

History GK MCQ PDF in Hindi and English

Indian History GK MCQ PDF – Hindi & English | Ancient, Medieval, Modern & World History

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Indian History MCQ PDF

Modern History MCQs
Number of Questions: 130
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Medieval History MCQs
Number of Questions: 91
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Ancient History MCQs

Number of Questions: 91
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World History MCQs

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Today Current Affairs MCQs : 11 April 2025

Q. In which format will cricket be played at the Los Angeles 2028 Olympics?

A. ODI
B. Test
C. T20
D. The Hundred

Show Answer
Answer: C. T20
Cricket will be played in the T20 format at the Los Angeles 2028 Olympic Games, with six teams each in the Men’s and Women’s tournaments.

Q. Where was Lord Mahavir born?

A. Rajgir
B. Nalanda
C. Kundagrama
D. Pataliputra

Show Answer
C. Kundagrama
Lord Mahavir was born in 599 BCE in Kundagrama, near Vaishali (in present-day Bihar, India). Born to King Siddhartha and Queen Trishala, he renounced his royal life at the age of 30 and embarked on a spiritual journey.

Q. Which Indian archers are part of the men’s recurve team that reached the final?

A. Deepika Kumari, Dhiraj Bommadevara, Tarundeep Rai
B. Atanu Das, Dhiraj Bommadevara, Tarundeep Rai
C. Abhishek Verma, Atanu Das, Dhiraj Bommadevara
D. Tarundeep Rai, Rahul Banerjee, Deepika Kumari

Show Answer
Answer: B. Atanu Das, Dhiraj Bommadevara, Tarundeep Rai
The Indian men’s recurve archery team—Dhiraj Bommadevara, Atanu Das, and Tarundeep Rai—has reached the final of the Archery World Cup Stage 1 in Florida, USA.

Q. Which major terror incident is Tahawwur Rana linked to?

A. Pulwama Attack
B. 26/11 Mumbai Attacks
C. Parliament Attack
D. Uri Attack

Show Answer
Answer: B. 26/11 Mumbai Attacks
Tahawwur Rana, a key conspirator in the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks, was extradited to India on April 9, 2025. A Canadian national of Pakistani origin, Rana aided David Headley in conducting reconnaissance for the attacks.

Tahawwur Rana Extradited to India: Major Breakthrough in 26/11 Mumbai Terror Case

Tahawwur Rana, a key conspirator in the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks, was extradited to India on April 9, 2025. A Canadian national of Pakistani origin, Rana aided David Headley in conducting reconnaissance for the attacks. He will be in NIA custody for 18 days for interrogation.

His extradition, following failed legal appeals in the U.S., marks a major step in India’s pursuit of justice. This move highlights global cooperation against terrorism and may reveal further details about the 2008 attacks that killed 166 people and injured over 238.

Indian Men’s Recurve Archery Team Enters World Cup Final

The Indian men’s recurve archery team—Dhiraj Bommadevara, Atanu Das, and Tarundeep Rai—has reached the final of the Archery World Cup Stage 1 in Florida, USA. They defeated Spain 6-2 in the semi-finals on April 10, 2025, after a 6-2 win over Indonesia in the quarterfinals.

The team will face China in the final on Sunday evening.

Mahavir Jayanti 2025 – Celebrating the Birth of Lord Mahavir

Mahavir Jayanti is one of the most important religious festivals in Jainism. It celebrates the birth of Lord Mahavir, the 24th and last Tirthankara (spiritual teacher) of Jainism. In 2025, Mahavir Jayanti was celebrated with great devotion and enthusiasm on Sunday, April 10. On this day, Jains across the world pay homage to Lord Mahavir’s teachings of non-violence, truth, and simplicity.

Who Was Lord Mahavir?

Lord Mahavir was born in 599 BCE in Kundagrama, near Vaishali (in present-day Bihar, India). Born to King Siddhartha and Queen Trishala, he renounced his royal life at the age of 30 and embarked on a spiritual journey. After 12 years of intense meditation and penance, he attained Keval Gyan (absolute knowledge) and spent the rest of his life spreading the message of Ahimsa (non-violence), Satya (truth), Asteya (non-stealing), Brahmacharya (celibacy), and Aparigraha (non-possession).

Cricket at Los Angeles Olympics 2028: T20 Format Confirmed

Cricket will be played in the T20 format at the Los Angeles 2028 Olympic Games, with six teams each in the Men’s and Women’s tournaments. The IOC Executive Board has approved the event programme and athlete quotas, allowing 90 players per gender (15 per team).

Cricket is one of five new sports added to LA 2028, alongside baseball/softball, flag football, lacrosse (sixes), and squash. Venues for cricket matches are yet to be finalised.

Today Current Affairs MCQs : 10 April 2025

Q. World Homoeopathy Day is celebrated on which date each year?

A. April 7
B. April 10
C. March 30
D. May 5

Show Answer
Answer: B. April 10
World Homoeopathy Day is celebrated every year on April 10 to commemorate the birth anniversary of Dr. Samuel Hahnemann, the founder of homoeopathy.

Q: On April 9, 2025, which country did the US exclude from the 90-day global tariff pause announced by President Donald Trump?

A. India
B. Russia
C. China
D. Germany

Show Answer
Answer: C. China
On April 9, 2025, US President Donald Trump announced a 90-day pause on tariffs for all countries except China.

Q: What is the revised repo rate announced by the RBI in April 2025?

A) 6.50%
B) 6.00%
C) 5.75%
D) 6.25%

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B) 6.00%
On April 9, 2025, the Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) unanimously cut the policy repo rate by 25 basis points to 6%, marking the second consecutive rate reduction this year.

Q. Who manufactures the Rafale fighter jets and which country is it based in?

A. Boeing – United States
B. Airbus – Germany
C. Dassault Aviation – France
D. Lockheed Martin – United States

Show Answer
Answer: C. Dassault Aviation – France
On April 9, 2025, India approved the acquisition of 26 Rafale fighter jets from France to strengthen its naval capabilities.

India Approves Purchase of 26 Rafale Jets for Navy

On April 9, 2025, India approved the acquisition of 26 Rafale fighter jets from France to strengthen its naval capabilities amid growing Chinese presence in the Indian Ocean. The deal, estimated at ₹630 billion (approx. $7 billion), includes 22 single-seater and 4 twin-seater jets from Dassault Aviation.

Approved by the Cabinet Committee on Security chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, the agreement is expected to be signed soon, with France’s defence minister likely to visit India beforehand. This move aligns with India’s goals to modernize its military, reduce dependence on Soviet-origin systems, and bolster defence ties with France, its second-largest arms supplier.

RBI Cuts Repo Rate to 6% in April 2025 Monetary Policy Review

On April 9, 2025, the Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) unanimously cut the policy repo rate by 25 basis points to 6%, marking the second consecutive rate reduction this year. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) was adjusted to 5.75%, while the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) and Bank Rate were set at 6.25%.

The MPC also shifted its policy stance from neutral to accommodative, citing evolving economic conditions and the need for close monitoring. RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra mentioned that unless shocks arise, the committee will consider either maintaining rates or further cuts in future.

Inflation data showed food inflation dropped to a 21-month low of 3.8% in February 2025, while core inflation rose to 4.1%, driven by higher gold prices. The RBI projects CPI inflation at 4% for 2025–26, noting positive signs like falling crude oil prices, but also warning of risks from global uncertainties and weather-related disruptions.

The Governor also addressed global trade tensions, including tariff uncertainties, which he said could hurt both global and domestic growth, though exact impacts are hard to quantify. He added that all central banks are adopting a cautious approach due to weakening US dollar, lower bond yields, and falling oil prices.

The next MPC meeting is scheduled for June 4–6, 2025.

Trump Pauses Global Tariffs for 90 Days, Excludes China

On April 9, 2025, US President Donald Trump announced a 90-day pause on tariffs for all countries except China, surprising many after days of strong rhetoric. Trump cited non-retaliation from over 75 countries as the reason for the pause, and during this period, a reduced 10% reciprocal tariff will apply. However, tariffs on China were hiked to 125%, reflecting ongoing tensions.

The pause came amid internal concerns, particularly from the US Treasury Department, about a selloff in the bond market and fears of a global recession. Trump admitted the decision was emotionally driven, claiming it was “written from the heart.”

The move caused a massive stock market rally in the US:

  • Dow Jones surged nearly 2,500 points
  • Nasdaq jumped 12.2%, its best day in 24 years
  • S&P 500 rose by 6%
  • Oil prices and the US dollar also strengthened

Impact on India:

India had been hit by a 26% reciprocal tariff, but the 90-day pause is expected to provide relief. The Indian government, through ongoing negotiations with the US, is working toward a mutually beneficial trade agreement, said MEA Spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal.

World Homoeopathy Day 2025: Honouring Dr. Hahnemann and Embracing Natural Healing

World Homoeopathy Day is celebrated every year on April 10 to commemorate the birth anniversary of Dr. Samuel Hahnemann, the founder of homoeopathy. The day aims to recognize his contributions and promote awareness of homoeopathy as a holistic and natural system of healing.

The theme for 2025 is “Adhyayan, Adhyaapan, Anusandhaan” (Education, Practice, and Research), emphasizing the core pillars for the development and integration of homoeopathy in modern healthcare.

Homoeopathy follows the principle of “like cures like,” using minute doses of natural substances to stimulate the body’s healing processes with minimal side effects. Celebrations include global seminars, workshops, and discussions focusing on research, clinical practice, and education.

The day highlights the continued relevance of homoeopathy in addressing modern health challenges and encourages individuals to explore safer, personalized treatment approaches rooted in nature.

Today Current Affairs MCQs : 9 April 2025

Q. Who won gold medal in the women’s 10m air pistol event at the ISSF World Cup 2025?

A. Manu Bhaker
B. Suruchi Singh
C. Jiang Ranxin
D. Qian Wei

Show Answer
Answer: B. Suruchi Singh
Suruchi Singh, just 18 years old, won her first-ever gold in the women’s 10m air pistol event, defeating top Chinese contenders. With a final score of 244.6

Q. Which event did Vijayveer Sidhu win at the ISSF World Cup 2025?

A. 10m air rifle
B. 50m pistol
C. 25m rapid fire pistol
D. Skeet shooting

Show Answer
Answer: C. 25m rapid fire pistol
Vijayveer Sidhu made history by becoming the first Indian ever to win gold in the men’s 25m rapid fire pistol.

Q. When did the Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 come into effect?

A. 1 April 2025
B. 6 April 2025
C. 8 April 2025
D. 9 April 2025

Show Answer
Answer: C. 8 April 2025
The Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 officially came into force on April 8, 2025, following President Droupadi Murmu’s assent.

Q. Navkar Mahamantra is associated with which religion?

A. Hinduism
B. Buddhism
C. Jainism
D. Sikhism

Show Answer
Answer: C. Jainism
Navkar Mahamantra Divas is a spiritually significant event rooted in Jain philosophy, dedicated to the collective chanting of the Navkar Mahamantra

Q. Which policy guided the amalgamation of 26 Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in April 2025?

A. Digital India
B. Financial Literacy Mission
C. One State, One RRB
D. Jan Dhan Yojana

Show Answer
Answer: C. One State, One RRB
On 8 April 2025, the Department of Financial Services (DFS) under the Ministry of Finance announced the amalgamation of 26 Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) as part of the fourth phase of consolidation, following the principle of “One State, One RRB.”

Govt Merges 26 Regional Rural Banks Under ‘One State, One RRB’ Plan

On 8 April 2025, the Department of Financial Services (DFS) under the Ministry of Finance announced the amalgamation of 26 Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) as part of the fourth phase of consolidation, following the principle of “One State, One RRB.” This move aims to improve operational efficiency, rationalize costs, and enhance rural financial inclusion.

The merger, based on stakeholder consultations since November 2024, covers RRBs in 10 states and one union territory. With this move, the number of RRBs is now reduced from 43 to 28, operating over 22,000 branches across 700 districts, with 92% branches in rural and semi-urban areas.

The government has been implementing RRB mergers in phases:

  • Phase 1 (2006–2010): RRBs reduced from 196 to 82
  • Phase 2 (2013–2015): Reduced to 56
  • Phase 3 (2019–2021): Reduced to 43
  • Phase 4 (2025): Now 28 RRBs remain

The reform is expected to boost the scale and efficiency of RRB operations and support India’s broader financial inclusion goals.

Navkar Mahamantra Divas 2025 Promotes Global Peace and Spiritual Unity

Navkar Mahamantra Divas is a spiritually significant event rooted in Jain philosophy, dedicated to the collective chanting of the Navkar Mahamantra—a sacred prayer that honors enlightened beings rather than deities. It emphasizes core values like non-violence (ahimsa), humility, self-awareness, and spiritual elevation.

In 2025, the day is celebrated with a grand global event at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi, with participation from over 108 countries and more than one crore devotees worldwide. The event also precedes Mahavir Jayanti, honoring Lord Mahavir’s legacy of truth, non-violence, and renunciation.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the gathering, highlighting the mantra’s universal message of harmony and compassion. This global celebration reflects the timeless relevance of Jain principles in promoting a more peaceful and united world.

Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 Comes into Effect to Ensure Transparent Property Management

The Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 officially came into force on April 8, 2025, following President Droupadi Murmu’s assent. The legislation had been passed by both Houses of Parliament the previous week.

The amended law focuses on:

  • Improving the management of Waqf properties
  • Safeguarding heritage sites
  • Promoting social welfare initiatives

Key objectives include:

  • Enhancing transparency and accountability in Waqf property administration
  • Better coordination between Waqf Boards and local authorities
  • Protecting the rights of stakeholders

The Act aims to build a secular and well-governed system for Waqf affairs, ensuring public trust and effective use of assets for community benefit.

India Shines at ISSF World Cup 2025 as Suruchi Singh and Vijayveer Sidhu Strike Gold

India continued its dominance in shooting at the ISSF World Cup 2025 in Buenos Aires, Argentina, with stellar performances on April 8, 2025, by Suruchi Singh and Vijayveer Sidhu.

  • Suruchi Singh, just 18 years old, won her first-ever gold in the women’s 10m air pistol event, defeating top Chinese contenders. With a final score of 244.6, she outshot China’s Qian Wei and Jiang Ranxin, securing a major international breakthrough.
  • Vijayveer Sidhu made history by becoming the first Indian ever to win gold in the men’s 25m rapid fire pistol. His composed, world-class performance reaffirmed his place among India’s elite shooters.

These victories lifted India to the top of the medal tally, with a total of 4 gold, 1 silver, and 1 bronze, marking a remarkable run at the event. This performance reflects India’s growing prowess in shooting and raises high hopes for upcoming Olympic shooting events.

Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ for Competitive Exams

Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

Neighbouring Countries of India MCQs

Question 1: With how many countries does India share its borders in total?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Answer
Answer: C) 7

Explanation: India shares its borders with a total of 7 countries. These countries are:

Question 2: What type of border exists between India and Sri Lanka?

A) Land border
B) Sea border
C) Border formed by rivers
D) Border formed by mountains

Answer
Answer: B) Sea border

Explanation: The border between India and Sri Lanka is a sea border. There is a maritime boundary in the sea between the two countries, defined by a sea border between the islands of ‘Daman and Nicobar’ and Sri Lanka. The major points of this border are known as ‘Adam’s Bridge’ or ‘Ram Setu’, which indicate the sea route between India and Sri Lanka.

Question 3: Which neighboring country is located in the northwest of India?

A) Nepal
B) Bhutan
C) Pakistan
D) Myanmar

Answer
Answer: C) Pakistan

Explanation: Pakistan is located in the northwest of India and shares its western border with India.

Question 4: In which direction is the border between India and Bangladesh located?

A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West

Answer
Answer: C) East

Explanation: The border between India and Bangladesh is in the east. Bangladesh is located to the east of India.

Question 5: Which country is located in the north of India?

A) Bhutan
B) Sri Lanka
C) Bangladesh
D) Myanmar

Answer
Answer: A) Bhutan

Explanation: Bhutan is located in the north of India. Bhutan’s border is in the north of India, while the borders of other countries are in different directions of India.

Question 6: What is the length of the border between India and Bhutan?

A) 699 kilometers
B) 500 kilometers
C) 400 kilometers
D) 700 kilometers

Answer
Answer: A) 699 kilometers

Explanation: The length of the border between India and Bhutan is approximately 600 kilometers.

Question 7: What is the total length of India’s land border?

A) 15,200 kilometers
B) 14,800 kilometers
C) 15,700 kilometers
D) 16,000 kilometers

Answer
Answer: A) 15,200 kilometers

Explanation: The length of its land borders is approximately 15,200 km. While the total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.

Question 8: What is the total length of the border between India and Bangladesh?

a) 4906 kilometers
b) 5096 kilometers
c) 7094 kilometers
d) 6096 kilometers

Answer
Answer: a) 4906 kilometers

Explanation: Bangladesh and India share a 4,096 kilometer (2,545 mi) international border, which is the fifth-longest land border in the world.

Question 9: What type of border exists between India and Nepal?

A) Sea border
B) International border
C) Provincial border
D) Border formed by rivers

Answer
Answer: B) International border

Explanation: The border between India and Nepal is an open international border that demarcates the boundaries of Nepal with various Indian states.

Question 10: What is the name of the major border line between India and Pakistan?

A) Durand Line
B) Line of Actual Control (LoC)
C) Raja Line
D) Radcliffe Line

Answer
Answer: D) Radcliffe Line

Explanation: The major border line between India and Pakistan is called the “Radcliffe Line”. This line was drawn in 1947 by British official Sir Cyril John Radcliffe during the partition of India and Pakistan. It defines the international border between India and Pakistan.

Question 11: The border of Afghanistan touches which one Union Territory of India?

a) Ladakh
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Uttarakhand

Answer
Answer: A) Ladakh

Explanation: The border of Afghanistan touches only the Union Territory of Ladakh in India. A small part of Ladakh, commonly known as the Wakhan Corridor, borders Afghanistan. There is no direct border post or line of control in this area, but geographically, the border meets here.

Question 12: Which state does not share a border with Nepal?

a) Bihar

b) Uttar Pradesh

c) Sikkim

d) Assam

Answer
Answer: d) Assam

Explanation: Assam does not share its border with Nepal. The border between India and Nepal is an open international border between India and Nepal.

Question 13: Which is the smallest neighboring country of India in terms of area?

a) Bhutan
b) China

c) Sikkim

d) Assam

Answer
Answer: a) Bhutan

Explanation: Bhutan is the smallest among India’s neighboring countries.

Question 14: The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states of India?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Answer
Answer: B) 8

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through a total of eight states of India (Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram).

Question 15: At which latitude is the Equator located?

A) 0°
B) 23.5° North
C) 23.5° South
D) 45°

Answer
Answer: A) 0°

Explanation: The Equator divides the Earth into the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere, and its latitude is zero degrees (0°).

Question 16: Which hemisphere is located to the north of the Equator?

a) Southern Hemisphere
b) Northern Hemisphere
c) Arctic Hemisphere
d) Antarctic Hemisphere

Answer
Answer: B) Northern Hemisphere

Explanation: The Northern Hemisphere is to the north of the Equator, and the Southern Hemisphere is to the south.

Question 17: At which latitude is the Tropic of Cancer located?

A) 20° North
B) 23.5° North
C) 25° North
D) 30° North

Answer
Answer: B) 23.5° North

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer is located at 23.5° North latitude and is a major line of latitude in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 18: Which countries are located to the east of India?

a) Nepal and Bhutan
b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
c) Bangladesh and Myanmar
d) Sri Lanka and Maldives

Answer
Answer: C) Bangladesh and Myanmar

Explanation: Bangladesh and Myanmar are located to the east of India. Bangladesh is situated on India’s eastern border, and Myanmar is also located in India’s northeast direction.

Question 19: Which state of India is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides?

a) Maharashtra
b) Kathmandu
c) Chennai
d) Tripura

Answer
Answer: d) Tripura

Explanation: Tripura is situated between the river valleys of Bangladesh and Myanmar. It is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides and is connected to Assam and Mizoram only in the northeast.

Question 20: What was the old name of Myanmar?

a) Sri Lanka
b) Burma
c) Yavadvipa
d) Thailand

Answer
Answer: b) Burma

Explanation: In 1989, the official English name of the country was changed from the Union of Burma to the Union of Myanmar.

Question 21: By what name was Sri Lanka formerly known?

a) Siam
b) Salisbury
c) Ceylon
d) Sandwich Islands

Answer
Answer: c) Ceylon

Explanation: Until 1972, its name was Ceylon, which was changed to Lanka in 1972, and in 1978, the honorific “Sri” was added before it, making it Sri Lanka.

Question 22: How many states of India are on the coast of the sea?

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

Answer
Answer: c) 9

Explanation: The Indian seacoast touches nine states – Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, and two Union Territories – Daman and Diu and Puducherry.

Question 23: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following states?

a) Odisha
b) Gujarat
c) Rajasthan
d) West Bengal

Answer
Answer: a) Odisha

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through the state of Odisha.

Question 24: Which state of India does the Tropic of Cancer pass through?

a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Bihar
d) Jharkhand

Answer
Answer: d) Jharkhand

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through several states of India, including Jharkhand.

Question 25: Which place is located closest to the Equator?

a) Cape Comorin
b) Rameswaram
c) Indira Point
d) Indira Col

Answer
Answer: c) Indira Point

Explanation: Indira Point, located in the southern part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is the closest point to the Equator.

Question 26: Where is New Moore Island located?

a) Arabian Sea
b) Bay of Bengal
c) Gulf of Mannar
d) Andaman Sea

Answer
Answer: b) Bay of Bengal

Explanation: New Moore Island is a submerged island located in the Bay of Bengal. This island is situated to the south of Bangladesh and to the east of West Bengal.

Question 27: Which water body separates India and Sri Lanka?

a) Great Channel
b) Palk Strait
c) 8 Degree Channel
d) 10 Degree Channel

Answer
Answer: b) Palk Strait

Explanation: The Palk Strait is a strait located between the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Jaffna District of the Northern Province of Sri Lanka. This strait connects the Palk Bay in the northeast with the Gulf of Mannar in the southwest.

Question 28: Which line forms the border between India and China?

a) Radcliffe Line
b) McMahon Line
c) Durand Line
d) Stateford Line

Answer
Answer: b) McMahon Line

Explanation: The McMahon Line marks the boundary between the Chinese-occupied and Indian-occupied regions of the eastern Himalayan region. This border line was the center and cause of the Sino-Indian War.

Question 29: India does not have a land international border with which country?

a) Pakistan
b) Bangladesh
c) Bhutan
d) Sri Lanka

Answer
Answer: d) Sri Lanka

Explanation: India does not share a land international border with Sri Lanka.

Question 30: India has the shortest land border with which country?

a) Pakistan
b) Nepal
c) Myanmar
d) Bhutan

Answer
Answer: d) Bhutan

Explanation: Bhutan, a Buddhist kingdom on the eastern edge of the Himalayas, is known for its monasteries, fortresses (or dzongs), and dramatic landscapes.

Question 31: Which place in India is currently known as ‘White Water’?

a) Leh
b) Ladakh
c) Kargil
d) Siachen

Answer
Answer: d) Siachen

Explanation: Situated in rugged mountains, this place is always covered with snow, which is why it is also known as White Water.

Question 32: What is the area of India?

a) 3,257,405 sq km
b) 3,268,276 sq km
c) 3,287,263 sq km
d) 3,287,679 sq km

Answer
Answer: c) 3,287,263 sq km

Explanation: The area of India is 3,287,263 sq km, stretching from the snow-capped Himalayas in the north to the equatorial rainforests in the south.

Question 33: In which hemisphere is India located?

a) Northern and Eastern
b) Southern and Eastern
c) Northern and Western
d) Northern and Southern

Answer
Answer: a) Northern and Eastern

Explanation: It is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, between latitudes 8° 4′ and 37° 6′ north of the Equator, and longitudes 68° 7′ and 97° 25′ east.

Question 34: Which state was formerly known as NEFA?

a) Nagaland
b) Manipur
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Assam

Answer
Answer: c) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: The North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA), originally known as the North-East Frontier Tracts (NEFT), was one of the political divisions1 in British India, and later the Republic of India until 20 January 1972, when it became2 a Union Territory. It comprised present-day Arunachal Pradesh and parts of Assam. Its administrative headquarters was Shillong (until 1974, when it was transferred to Itanagar). It attained statehood on 20 February 1987.

Question 35: Port Blair is located in?

a) North Andaman
b) South Andaman
c) Middle Andaman
d) Little Andaman

Answer
Answer: b) South Andaman

Explanation: Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in South Andaman Island.

Question 36: The McMahon Line, which demarcates the border between India and China, is drawn on the northern border of which of the following provinces?

a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer
Answer: d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: The McMahon Line defines the border between India and China, and this line is drawn on the northern border of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 37: The only cold desert in India is?

a) Ladakh
b) East Kameng
c) Lachen
d) Chamba

Answer
Answer: a) Ladakh

Explanation: Ladakh is the only cold desert in India, located in the Himalayas. It is not affected by monsoons as it lies in the rain shadow region of the Himalayas.

Question 38: Adam’s Bridge is located between which two countries?

a) India and Pakistan
b) India and Bangladesh
c) India and Sri Lanka
d) India and Myanmar

Answer
Answer: c) India and Sri Lanka

Explanation: There is a chain of shoals in the shallows between the islands of Mannar, near northwestern Sri Lanka, and Rameswaram on the southeastern coast of India.

Uttarakhand GK Questions for Competitive Exams

Uttarakhand General Knowledge (GK) Questions for Competitive Exams. Important questions from previous year exam question papers for practice.

Uttarakhand General Knowledge Questions

Question 1: In Uttarakhand, what is a ‘Doon’ called?

a) Structural valleys
b) River valleys
c) Alpine meadows
d) Narrow valleys

Answer
Answer: d) Narrow valleys

Explanation: Doons are called narrow and longitudinal valleys. These valleys are found in the mountainous regions of the Himalayas. Examples include Kothari Doon, Dehradun, and Patli Doon.

Question 2: On which river is the Tehri Dam located?

a) Ganga
b) Bhagirathi
c) Yamuna
d) Alaknanda

Answer
Answer: b) Bhagirathi

Explanation: The Tehri Dam is India’s highest and largest dam. It is built on the Bhagirathi River at a height of 260.5 meters. The Tehri Dam is the eighth largest dam in the world and is used for irrigation and power generation.

Question 3: Rishikesh is situated on the banks of which river?

a) Ganga
b) Yamuna
c) Nalanda
d) Saryu

Answer
Answer: a) Ganga

Explanation: It is situated on the right bank of the Ganga River and is a pilgrimage site for Hindus.

Question 4: Which city in Uttarakhand is famous as the ‘City of Lakes’?

a) Nainital
b) Dehradun
c) Badrinath
d) Haridwar

Answer
Answer: a) Nainital

Explanation: The center of Nainital’s beauty is the beautiful Naini Lake located here. In the sunlight, the seven… The Mall Road built on one side of the lake is now known as Pt. Govind Ballabh Marg… A large plain area on the northern part of the lake is known as Flats.

Question 5: Which city is known as the ‘Queen of the Mountains’?

a) Mussoorie
b) Nainital
c) Almora
d) Yamunotri

Answer
Answer: a) Mussoorie

Explanation: Mussoorie or Mansuri is a hill station in the state of Uttarakhand, India, also known as the ‘Queen of the Mountains’.

Question 6: Where is Gangotri Dham located?

a) Yamunotri
b) Haridwar
c) Uttarkashi
d) Dehradun

Answer
Answer: c) Uttarkashi

Explanation: Gangotri is a town and major Hindu pilgrimage site located in the Uttarkashi district of the state of Uttarakhand, India.

Question 7: What is the state tree of Uttarakhand?

a) ‘Buransh’ (Rhododendron arboreum)
b) Peepal (Ficus religiosa)
c) Tulsi (Holy Basil)
d) Sal (Shorea robusta)

Answer
Answer: a) ‘Buransh’

Explanation: The state tree of Uttarakhand is ‘Buransh’ (Rhododendron arboreum). The flowers of the Buransh tree are found in various regions of the state and are considered environmentally important. Its flowers also have medicinal benefits and are used in various traditional treatments. This tree is found in high-altitude areas and has been declared the state tree due to its beauty.

Question 8: What is the state flower of Uttarakhand?

a) Buransh (Rhododendron arboreum)

b) Lotus (Nelumbo nucifera)
c) Brahmakamal (Saussurea obvallata)
d) Rose (Rosa)

Answer
Answer: c) Brahmakamal

Explanation: Brahmakamal is a perennial plant. It grows in high rocks and inaccessible areas. It is found abundantly in Kashmir, central Nepal, the Valley of Flowers in Uttarakhand, the Kedarnath-Shivling region, etc.

Question 9: The pedestrian journey for which religious pilgrimage begins from Gaurikund?

a) Badrinath
b) Kedarnath
c) Gangotri
d) Amarnath

Answer
Answer: b) Kedarnath

Explanation: The Kedarnath Yatra (pilgrimage) begins on foot from Gaurikund.

Question 10: ‘Rajaji National Park’ is famous for which animal?

a) Elephant
b) Deer
c) Peacock
d) Snake

Answer
Answer: a) Elephant

Explanation: Rajaji National Park is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. It is known for its elephant population.

Question 11: What is the capital of Uttarakhand?

a) Nainital
b) Haridwar
c) Dehradun
d) Almora

Answer
Answer: c) Dehradun

Explanation: Dehradun is the permanent capital of Uttarakhand. It was declared the capital at the time of the formation of the state of Uttarakhand on November 9, 2000. It is the largest city and administrative center of the state, where the main offices of the state government and the Legislative Assembly are located. In addition, Gairsain has been declared the summer capital, where the sessions of the Legislative Assembly are held during the summer.

Question 12: Where is the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly located?

a) Haridwar
b) Nainital
c) Gairsain
d) Dehradun

Answer
Answer: d) Dehradun

Explanation: The Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly is located in Dehradun.

Question 13: Where is the summer session of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly held?

a) Pithoragarh

b) Almora

c) Gairsain

d) Rishikesh

Answer
Answer: c) Gairsain

Explanation: The summer sessions of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly are held in Gairsain.

Question 14: What is the total number of members in the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly?

a) 60

b) 70

c) 80

d) 90

Answer
Answer: b) 70

Explanation: The total number of members in the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly is 70.

Question 15: When was the first session of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly held?

a) 2000

b) 2002

c) 2004

d) 2006

Answer
Answer: b) 2002

Explanation: The first session of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly was held in 2002.

Question 16: When was Gairsain declared the summer capital?

a) 2018

b) 2019

c) 2020

d) 2021

Answer
Answer: c) 2020

Explanation: Gairsain was declared the summer capital of Uttarakhand in 2020.

Question 18: In which year was Jim Corbett National Park established?

a) 1936

b) 1956

c) 1973

d) 1980

Answer
Answer: a) 1936

Explanation: Jim Corbett National Park was established in 1936. It is considered India’s first national park, and it is named after the famous hunter and conservationist Jim Corbett.

Question 19: In which year was the name of Uttarakhand changed from Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand?

a) January 2005

b) January 2007

c) July 2003

d) January 2008

Answer
Answer: b) January 2007

Explanation: In January 2007, the new state changed its name to Uttarakhand.

Question 20: Lakhudiyar is located in which city of Uttarakhand?

a) Nainital

b) Almora

c) Pithoragarh

d) Champawat

Answer
Answer: b) Almora

Explanation: Lakhudiyar is located in the Almora district of Uttarakhand. It is an ancient cave where rock paintings from the prehistoric period can be seen. “Lakhudiyar” means “one lakh caves,” and this place is famous for the artifacts and paintings of the early period of human civilization. The rock paintings here suggest that this place was inhabited in the early stages of human civilization’s development.

Question 21: ‘Katar Mal Surya Mandir’ (Katar Mal Sun Temple) is located in which place in Uttarakhand?

a) Ranikhet

b) Almora

c) Haridwar

d) Rishikesh

Answer
Answer: b) Almora

Explanation: Katar Mal Surya Mandir is located in Adheli Sunar village of Almora district in Uttarakhand. This temple is situated at an altitude of about 2,116 meters above sea level. It is one of the largest high-altitude temples in Kumaon.

Question 22: What was the ancient name of Jim Corbett National Park?

a) Hailey National Park

b) Rajaji National Park

c) Kaziranga National Park

d) Pench National Park

Answer
Answer: a) Hailey National Park

Explanation: The ancient name of Jim Corbett National Park was Hailey National Park, which was later changed in 1957 in honor of Jim Corbett.

Question 23: Jim Corbett National Park is famous for the conservation of which animal?

a) Asiatic Lion

b) Bengal Tiger

c) Indian Elephant

d) Himalayan Black Bear

Answer
Answer: b) Bengal Tiger

Explanation: Jim Corbett National Park is primarily famous for the conservation of the Bengal Tiger. This park was also the first reserve under ‘Project Tiger’, which was launched in 1973.

Question 24: In which district of Uttarakhand is Corbett National Park located?

a) Dehradun

b) Nainital

c) Haridwar

d) Uttarkashi

Answer
Answer: b) Nainital

Explanation: Corbett National Park is located in the Nainital district of the state of Uttarakhand. It is the oldest national park in India and was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park. It is named after the famous naturalist Jim Corbett. This park is famous for the conservation of the tiger species and has a diverse range of flora and fauna.

Question 25: In which year did the Chipko Movement start?

a) 1968

b) 1972

c) 1973

d) 1980

Answer
Answer: c) 1973

Explanation: The Chipko Movement started in 1973 when local people united to protest against the felling of forests.

Question 26: What was the main objective of the Chipko Movement?

a) Promotion of women’s education

b) Environmental protection

c) Agricultural reform

d) Environmental protection

Answer
Answer: b) Environmental protection

Explanation: The Chipko Movement was an environmental protection movement. It was carried out by farmers in the state of Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh) in India to protest against the felling of Angu trees. They were protesting against the felling of forests by contractors of the state forest department and asserting their traditional rights over them.

Question 27: Which city is situated at the confluence of the Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers?

a) Haridwar

b) Rishikesh

c) Rudraprayag

d) Devprayag

Answer
Answer: C) Rudraprayag

Explanation: Rudraprayag is a major city located in Uttarakhand where the Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers meet. This place is religiously significant and is a major site for pilgrims.

Question 28: Which is the highest mountain in Uttarakhand?

a) Kedarnath

b) Nanda Devi

c) Trishul

d) Uttar Karn

Answer
Answer: B) Nanda Devi

Explanation: Nanda Devi is the highest mountain in Uttarakhand with an approximate height of 7,816 meters (25,643 feet). This mountain is located in the Himalayan range and is situated in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.

Question 29: Vigyan Dham (Science Center) is located in which city of Uttarakhand?

a) Haridwar

b) Nainital

c) Dehradun

d) Roorkee

Answer
Answer: c) Dehradun

Explanation: Vigyan Dham is located in the city of Dehradun in Uttarakhand. It is a major science and technology research center that works to promote science and technical education.

Question 30: Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) is located in which city of Uttarakhand?

a) Haridwar

b) Dehradun

c) Nainital

d) Roorkee

Answer
Answer: C) Nainital

Explanation: The Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) is located in the city of Nainital, Uttarakhand. This institute is known for its major contributions to research in astronomy and astrophysics.

Question 31: Dev Sanskriti Vishwavidyalaya (Dev Sanskriti University) is located in which city?

a) Haridwar

b) Dehradun

c) Rishikesh

d) Nainital

Answer
Answer: a) Haridwar

Explanation: Dev Sanskriti Vishwavidyalaya is located in Haridwar, Uttarakhand. It was established in 2002.

Question 32: Who established Shantikunj in Haridwar?

a) Swami Vivekananda

b) Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya

c) Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati

d) Swami Sachchidananda

Answer
Answer: b) Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya

Explanation: Shantikunj in Haridwar was established by Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya. Shantikunj is a spiritual and social organization whose aim is to re-establish ethics, religion, and humanity in society.

Question 33: Who is known as the ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’?

a) Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya

b) Indramani Badoni

c) Maharshi Devprayag

d) Swami Vivekananda

Answer
Answer: b) Indramani Badoni

Explanation: Indramani Badoni is known as the ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’.

Question 34: Where is Gauchar Airport located?

a) Chamoli

b) Himachal Pradesh

c) Uttar Pradesh

d) Nainital

Answer
Answer: a) Chamoli

Explanation: Gauchar Airport is located in the state of Uttarakhand. This airport is situated in Gauchar in the Chamoli district and is especially important for the Char Dham Yatra (pilgrimage).

Question 35: When are the gates of Badrinath Dham opened?

a) May

b) April

c) August

d) January

Answer
Answer: a) May

Explanation: Badrinath Dham is usually open from May to November. This shrine remains in seclusion for six months every year. The most suitable time to visit here is after the snowfall, which is between May to June and September to October.

Question 36: Who is considered the first freedom fighter of Uttarakhand?

a) Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna

b) Kalu Mehra

c) Shridev Suman

d) Govind Ballabh Pant

Answer
Answer: b) Kalu Mehra

Explanation: Kalu Mehra is considered the first freedom fighter of Uttarakhand. Kalu Mehra formed a secret organization ‘Krantiveer’ in Champawat in the year 1857 and fought against the British.

Question 37: Who is the first poet of Kumaon literature?

a) Shivdutt Sati

b) Mohan Upreti

c) Gumani Pant

d) Lakshmi Datt Joshi

Answer
Answer: c) Gumani Pant

Explanation: Gumani Pant is considered the first poet of Kumaon literature. He composed many important works in the Kumaoni language, including his poems, couplets, and satires.

Question 38: Where is the Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy located?

a) Mussoorie

b) Dehradun

c) Nainital

d) Shimla

Answer
Answer: a) Mussoorie

Explanation: The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) is located in Mussoorie, Uttarakhand. This academy is the premier institution for the training of Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers in India.

Question 39: Uttarakhand is which state of the country?

a) 27th

b) 15th

c) 18th

d) 23rd

Answer
Answer: a) 27th

Explanation: On November 9, 2000, the state of Uttaranchal became the 27th state of India. It was carved out of Uttar Pradesh, and in January 2007, the new state changed its name to Uttarakhand.

Question 40: By what name is Uttarakhand described in Buddhist texts?

a) Kedarkhand

b) Himavant

c) Shivalik

d) Manaskhand

Answer
Answer: b) Himavant

Explanation: In Buddhist texts, Uttarakhand is referred to as ‘Himavant’, which denotes the region close to the Himalayas.

Question 41: Where is the Central Building Research Institute (CBRI) located?
a) New Delhi
b) Roorkee
c) Dehradun
d) Lucknow

Answer
Answer: b) Roorkee
Explanation: The Central Building Research Institute (CBRI) is located in Roorkee, Uttarakhand. This institute conducts research in the fields of building construction, earthquake-resistant technology, disaster management, and building materials. It was established in 1947.

Question 42: Where is the Herbal Research and Development Institute located?
a) Dehradun
b) Gopeshwar
c) Nainital
d) Haridwar

Answer
Answer: b) Gopeshwar
Explanation: The Herbal Research and Development Institute is located in Gopeshwar, Uttarakhand. This institute works for the conservation, research, and development of medicinal plants and herbs.

Question 43: What types of programs are run by the Herbal Research and Development Institute?
a) Training in the cultivation of medicinal plants
b) Medical education
c) Food security programs
d) Environmental protection

Answer
Answer: a) Training in the cultivation of medicinal plants
Explanation: The institute provides training and technical assistance in the cultivation of medicinal plants to help farmers and researchers in this field.

Question 44: How many total districts are there in the state of Uttarakhand?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 22
d) 13

Answer
Answer: d) 13
Explanation: There are a total of 13 districts in the state of Uttarakhand.

Question 45: Which country/state borders the south of the state of Uttarakhand?
a) Nepal
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Bengal

Answer
Answer: b) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: The state of Uttar Pradesh borders the south of the state of Uttarakhand.

Question 46: Which city of Uttarakhand is called the ‘Gateway of Kumaon’?
a) Nainital
b) Haldwani
c) Kashipur
d) Rudrapur

Answer
Answer: b) Haldwani
Explanation: Haldwani, located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, is one of the most populous cities in the state. It is also called the “Gateway of Kumaon.“

Question 47: Which city of Uttarakhand is famous by the name ‘Lychee City’?
a) Nainital
b) Dehradun
c) Haridwar
d) Rudrapur

Answer
Answer: b) Dehradun
Explanation: Due to the large number of lychees in Dehradun, it was also called ‘Lychee City’. However, now only one or two lychee orchards are visible in Dehradun, which was once famous as ‘Lychee City’.

Question 48: Which is the largest district in Uttarakhand in terms of area?
a) Dehradun
b) Nainital
c) Pithoragarh
d) Chamoli

Answer
Answer: d) Chamoli
Explanation: The total area of Uttarakhand state is approximately 53,483 square km. This is about 1.69 percent of the area of India. Chamoli district is the largest district in the state in terms of area.

Question 49: The ‘Ichari Dam Project’ is located on which river?
a) Ganga
b) Yamunotri
c) Tons
d) Bhagirathi

Answer
Answer: c) Tons
Explanation: The Ichari Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Tons River about 13 km north of Dakpathar in Dehradun district of Uttarakhand, India. The dam’s primary purpose is hydroelectric power generation and it is a run-of-the-river type hydroelectric plant. It was completed in 1972.

Question 50: Where is the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) located in Uttarakhand?
a) Dehradun
b) Haldwani
c) Rishikesh
d) Nainital

Answer
Answer: c) Rishikesh
Explanation: The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in Uttarakhand is located in Rishikesh. AIIMS Rishikesh was inaugurated in 2012.

Question 51: Which British traveler discovered Nainital?
a) John Hay
b) Major Burton
c) Peter Barron
d) James Sutton

Answer
Answer: c) Peter Barron
Explanation: This city was discovered in the year 1841 by an English merchant named Peter Barron, but there is a tank in Nainital that proves that it was discovered even before 1841.

Question 52: In which year was the town of Ranikhet established?
a) 1884
b) 1869
c) 1875
d) 1859

Answer
Answer: b) 1869
Explanation: The Ranikhet Cantonment Board was established in 1869 and its officer was known as the Cantonment Magistrate and his office as the Cantonment Court.

Question 53: Who is known as the founder of Garhwali painting?
a) Devaki Nandan Kartikay
b) Shankar Dhwaj
c) Ramsingh Bhandari
d) Mola Ram

Answer
Answer: d) Mola Ram
Explanation: The credit for being the founder of the Garhwali style of painting goes to the famous painter Mola Ram (1743-1833).

Awards and Honours MCQs for Competitive Exams

Awards and Honours MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important gk question with answer and explanation for free online practice.

Awards and Honours GK Questions

Question 1: The Grammy Award is given in which field?

A) Acting
B) Music
C) Singing
D) Boxing

Answer
Answer: B) Music
Explanation: The Grammy Award is presented for excellence in the field of music. It honors musicians, singers, producers, and other music professionals in various categories.

Question 2: Who was the first woman to receive the Bharat Ratna award?

A) Mother Teresa
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Lata Mangeshkar
D) Sarojini Naidu

Answer
Answer: B) Indira Gandhi
Explanation: Indira Gandhi was the first woman to be honored with the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award. She received it in 1971 for her leadership and significant contributions to the nation’s development.

Question 3: The Moortidevi Award is given annually in which of the following fields?

A) Literature
B) Films
C) Journalism
D) Music

Answer
Answer: A) Literature
Explanation: The Moortidevi Award is presented annually for contributions to Indian literature. It is awarded by the Bharatiya Jnanpith for literary works that reflect Indian philosophy and culture.

Question 4: The Oscar award has been won 26 times by whom?

A) Charlie Chaplin
B) Alfred Hitchcock
C) Walt Disney
D) Akira Kurosawa

Answer
Answer: C) Walt Disney
Explanation: Walt Disney holds the record for the most Academy Awards (Oscars) won by an individual, with a total of 26 wins and 59 nominations.

Question 5: How many Nobel Prizes are awarded each year?

A) 6
B) 5
C) 7
D) 4

Answer
Answer: A) 6

Explanation: The Nobel Prizes are awarded in the fields of Peace, Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature, and Economics. The Economics prize was added in 1968, so a total of 6 Nobel Prizes are awarded.

Question 6: Who was the first foreigner to receive the Bharat Ratna award?

A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
B) Nelson Mandela
C) Dalai Lama
D) Annie Besant

Answer
Answer: A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Explanation: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as “Frontier Gandhi,” was the first foreign citizen to receive the Bharat Ratna. He received this honor in 1987.

Question 7: In which year did Dadasaheb Phalke produce the first feature film?

A) 1911
B) 1913
C) 1910
D) 1912

Answer
Answer: B) 1913

Explanation: Dadasaheb Phalke produced India’s first feature film “Raja Harishchandra” in 1913. It is considered the foundation of Indian cinema.

Question 8: Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize of 2023?

A) Malala Yousafzai (Pakistan)
B) Kailash Satyarthi (India)
C) Both Malala Yousafzai (Pakistan) and Kailash Satyarthi (India)
D) Narges Mohammadi

Answer
Answer: D) Narges Mohammadi

Explanation: In 2023, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Iranian human rights activist Narges Mohammadi.

Question 9: Who was awarded the first Nobel Prize in Economics?

A) Stiglitz
B) Paul A. Samuelson
C) Amartya Sen
D) Jan Tinbergen and Ragnar Frisch

Answer
Answer: D) Jan Tinbergen and Ragnar Frisch

Explanation: In 1969, the first Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to Jan Tinbergen and Ragnar Frisch for their contributions to econometrics.

Question 10: In which city is the Nobel Peace Prize awarded?

A) Brussels
B) Geneva
C) Oslo
D) Stockholm

Answer
Answer: C) Oslo

Explanation: The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo, Norway, while the other Nobel Prizes are awarded in Stockholm, Sweden.

Awards and Honours : Current Affairs

Question 11: Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize of 2023?

A) Malala Yousafzai
B) Kailash Satyarthi
C) Narges Mohammadi
D) Abiy Ahmed Ali

Answer
Answer: C) Narges Mohammadi

Explanation: The Nobel Peace Prize 2023 was awarded to Iranian human rights activist Narges Mohammadi for her courageous actions.

Question 12: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2023?

A) Annie Ernaux
B) Abdulrazak Gurnah
C) Jon Fosse
D) Olga Tokarczuk

Answer
Answer: C) Jon Fosse

Explanation: The Nobel Prize in Literature 2023 was awarded to Norwegian author Jon Fosse, known for his innovative plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable.

Question 13: In which field was the Nobel Prize in Economics awarded in 2023?

A) Environmental Economics
B) Study of Global Poverty
C) Banking Crisis
D) Development Economics

Answer
Answer: C) Banking Crisis

Explanation: The 2023 Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to three economists for their research on banking and financial crises.

Question 14: Which film won the Oscar Award for Best Picture in 2023?

A) Everything Everywhere All at Once
B) Top Gun: Maverick
C) The Banshees of Inisherin
D) Tár

Answer
Answer: (A) Everything Everywhere All at Once

Explanation: The Oscar for Best Picture in 2023 went to “Everything Everywhere All at Once,” a unique science fiction-comedy film.

Question 15: Who won the Oscar for Best Actress in 2023?

A) Cate Blanchett
B) Michelle Yeoh
C) Olivia Colman
D) Ana de Armas

Answer
Answer: B) Michelle Yeoh

Explanation: Michelle Yeoh received the Oscar for Best Actress in 2023 for her exceptional performance in “Everything Everywhere All at Once.”

Question 16: Who was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2023?

A) Barbara Kingsolver
B) Ernest Hemingway
C) Margaret Atwood
D) Jodi Picoult

Answer
Answer: A) Barbara Kingsolver

Explanation: Barbara Kingsolver won the 2023 Pulitzer Prize for her novel “Demon Copperhead.”

Question 17: Who was awarded France’s highest civilian honor “Legion of Honour” on Bastille Day in 2023?

A) Narendra Modi
B) Shinzo Abe
C) Vladimir Putin
D) Joe Biden

Answer
Answer: A) Narendra Modi

Explanation: Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi was honored with the “Legion of Honour” by French President Emmanuel Macron on Bastille Day in 2023.

Question 18: Who was chosen as “Person of the Year” by Time magazine in 2023?

A) Elon Musk
B) Joe Biden
C) Vladimir Zelenskyy
D) Taylor Swift

Answer
Answer: D) Taylor Swift

Explanation: American singer-songwriter Taylor Swift was chosen as “Person of the Year” in 2023 for her widespread cultural impact.

Question 19: Who won the Grammy Award for “Song of the Year” in 2023?

A) Beyoncé
B) Harry Styles
C) Bonnie Raitt
D) Taylor Swift

Answer
Answer: C) Bonnie Raitt

Explanation: Bonnie Raitt won the Grammy Award for “Song of the Year” in 2023 for her song “Just Like That.”

Question 20: Which award did the Indian film “RRR” win in 2024?

A) Oscar
B) Grammy
C) BAFTA
D) Golden Globe

Answer
Answer: D) Golden Globe

Explanation: In 2024, the song “Naatu Naatu” from the film “RRR” won the Golden Globe Award for Best Original Song.

Question 21: Who received the Booker Prize of 2023?

A) Shehan Karunatilaka
B) George Saunders
C) Jon Fosse
D) Ian McEwan

Answer
Answer: A) Shehan Karunatilaka

Explanation: Sri Lankan author Shehan Karunatilaka received the 2023 Booker Prize for his novel “The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida.”

Question 22: Which Indian film director was honored at the Cannes Film Festival in 2023?

A) Anurag Kashyap
B) Sanjay Leela Bhansali
C) Mani Ratnam
D) S.S. Rajamouli

Answer
Answer: C) Mani Ratnam

Explanation: Mani Ratnam was honored with a special award at the 2023 Cannes Film Festival for his contributions to Indian cinema.

Question 23: Who received India’s highest military honor, the “Param Vir Chakra,” in 2023?

A) Captain Vikram Batra
B) Major Somnath Sharma
C) Subedar Sanjay Kumar
D) Captain Abhilash Mishra

Answer
Answer: D) Captain Abhilash Mishra

Explanation: Captain Abhilash Mishra was honored with the “Param Vir Chakra” in 2023 for his exceptional bravery in the Indian Army.

Question 24: Who received the prestigious “Billboard Music Award” for music in 2023?

A) Harry Styles
B) Taylor Swift
C) Drake
D) Ed Sheeran

Answer
Answer: B) Taylor Swift

Explanation: Taylor Swift received awards in several categories at the 2023 Billboard Music Awards, including the title of Top Artist of the Year.

Question 25: Who was awarded the “Jnanpith Award” for literature in 2023?

A) Vasudevan Nair
B) Damodar Mauzo
C) Annamalai
D) Raghuveer Chaudhari

Answer
Answer: B) Damodar Mauzo

Explanation: Goan author Damodar Mauzo was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 2023, which is the highest literary honor in India.

Question 26: In which field was the Rolex Award given in 2023?

A) Art
B) Science
C) Sports
D) Environmental Protection

Answer
Answer: D) Environmental Protection

Explanation: The 2023 Rolex Award was given for contributions to environmental protection and for the benefit of humanity.

Question 27: Who won the “FIFA Best Player Award” for 2023?

A) Lionel Messi
B) Cristiano Ronaldo
C) Neymar
D) Kylian Mbappé

Answer
Answer: A) Lionel Messi

Explanation: Lionel Messi was honored with the “FIFA Best Player Award” for 2023 after winning the FIFA World Cup for Argentina.

Question 28: Who received the Grammy Award for “Best New Artist” in 2024?

A) Olivia Rodrigo
B) Billie Eilish
C) Samara Joy
D) Summer Walker

Answer
Answer: D) Samara Joy

Explanation: Samara Joy, an emerging jazz vocalist, received the Grammy Award for “Best New Artist” in 2024.

Question 29: Who was awarded the “Sahitya Akademi Award” in 2024?

A) Arundhati Roy
B) Jet Thakur
C) Giriraj Kishore
D) Vasudha Ravindran

Answer
Answer: B) Jet Thakur

Explanation: Jet Thakur was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2024 for his novel “Aadhar.”

Question 30: Who was awarded the “Padma Bhushan” in 2024?

A) Shah Rukh Khan
B) Ratan Tata
C) Sudha Murthy
D) Deepika Padukone

Answer
Answer: C) Sudha Murthy

Explanation: Sudha Murthy was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2024 for her social work and contributions to Indian literature.

Today Current Affairs MCQs : 8 April 2025

Q. Which loan category under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) ranges from ₹50,000 to ₹5 lakh?

A. Shishu
B. Kishor
C. Tarun
D. Tarun Plus

Show Answer
Answer: B. Kishor
Loan Categories:
Tarun Plus: ₹10 lakh – ₹20 lakh (new addition)
Shishu: Up to ₹50,000
Kishor: ₹50,000 – ₹5 lakh (grew from 5.9% to 44.7% share)
Tarun: ₹5 lakh – ₹10 lakh

Q. Who won the gold medal in the men’s 10m air rifle event at ISSF World Cup 2025 in Buenos Aires?

A. Arjun Babuta
B. Marcelo Julian Gutierrez
C. Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil
D. Kiran Ankush Jadhav

Show Answer
Answer: C. Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil
Indian shooter Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won the gold medal in the men’s 10m air rifle event at the ISSF World Cup 2025 in Buenos Aires on April 6, 2025.

Q. Which award did President Droupadi Murmu receive in Lisbon on April 7, 2025?

A. Order of Merit
B. Golden Key of Europe
C. Key to the City of Lisbon
D. Lisbon Peace Medal

Show Answer
Answer: C. Key to the City of Lisbon
On April 7, 2025, President Droupadi Murmu was conferred the prestigious “Key to the City of Lisbon”, the highest civic honour of the Portuguese capital.

Q. What recent government policy move is expected to boost domestic consumption in India in financial year 2025-206?

A. GST rate cut
B. Infrastructure stimulus package
C. Changes in income tax slabs
D. Increase in export duties

Show Answer
Answer: C. Changes in income tax slabs
On April 7, 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) began its three-day bi-monthly monetary policy review meeting. First MPC meeting of the new financial year and follows the Union Budget 2025, which aimed to boost consumer spending through changes in income tax slabs.

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