GK MCQ (English)

Important National and International Days GK MCQs Questions for Competitive Exams.
Medium: English

Important Days and Dates GK MCQs

Question 1: When is Republic Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 2nd October
C) 26th January
D) 14th November

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Question 2: When is Independence Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 26th January
C) 2nd October
D) 5th September

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Question 3: When is Gandhi Jayanti celebrated?

A) 5th September
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 1st May

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Question 4: When is Teacher’s Day celebrated?

A) 5th September
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 26th January

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Question 5: When is Children’s Day celebrated?

A) 2nd October
B) 14th November
C) 26th January
D) 1st May

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Question 6: When is National Unity Day celebrated?

A) 31st October
B) 8th March
C) 5th September
D) 1st July

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Question 7: When is Constitution Day celebrated?

A) 26th November
B) 15th August
C) 26th January
D) 14th April

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Question 8: When is Doctor’s Day celebrated?

A) 1st July
B) 5th September
C) 14th November
D) 21st June

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Question 9: When is International Women’s Day celebrated?

A) 8th March
B) 14th November
C) 31st October
D) 1st May

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Question 10: When is World Environment Day celebrated?

A) 22nd April
B) 5th June
C) 1st July
D) 14th November

Question 11: When is International Workers’ Day celebrated?

A) 1 May
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 2 October

Question 12: When is National Science Day celebrated?

A) 28 February
B) 14 March
C) 5 June
D) 12 January

Question 13: When is International Yoga Day celebrated?

A) 21 June
B) 1 July
C) 15 August
D) 5 September

Question 14: When is National Youth Day celebrated?

A) 12 January
B) 5 September
C) 2 October
D) 26 January

Question 15: When is World AIDS Day celebrated?

A) 1 December
B) 14 November
C) 5 June
D) 31 March

Question 16: When is World Water Day celebrated?

A) 22 March
B) 5 June
C) 1 May
D) 8 March

Question 17: When is National Sports Day celebrated?

A) 29 August
B) 24 September
C) 15 August
D) 5 July

Question 18: When is World Population Day celebrated?

A) 11 July
B) 1 May
C) 14 November
D) 2 October

Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?

A) 22 April
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 July

Question 20: When is International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women celebrated?

A) 25 November
B) 8 March
C) 10 December
D) 5 June

Question 21: When is World Book Day celebrated?

A) 23 April
B) 22 March
C) 1 May
D) 14 November

Question 22: When is World Mother’s Day celebrated?

A) Second Sunday of May
B) 21 June
C) 14 November
D) 31 October

Question 23: When is World Peace Day celebrated?

A) 21 September
B) 1 May
C) 8 March
D) 31 December

Question 24: When is World Human Rights Day celebrated?

A) 10 December
B) 1 May
C) 5 June
D) 14 November

Question 25: When is International Labour Organization Day celebrated?

A) 28 April
B) 1 May
C) 8 March
D) 22 March

Question 26: When is World Food Day celebrated?

A) 16 October
B) 1 July
C) 22 April
D) 5 September

Question 27: When is National Safety Day celebrated?

A) 4 March
B) 15 August
C) 26 January
D) 5 September

Question 28: When is World Red Cross Day celebrated?

A) 8 May
B) 14 June
C) 1 December
D) 16 October

Question 29: When is World Blood Donor Day celebrated?

A) 14 June
B) 1 July
C) 5 June
D) 8 March

Question 30: When is International Nurses Day celebrated?

A) 12 May
B) 5 July
C) 14 November
D) 31 August

Question 31: When is World TB (Tuberculosis) Day celebrated?

A) 24 March
B) 5 June
C) 14 November
D) 1 July

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Question 32: When is World Tiger Day celebrated?

A) 29 July
B) 5 June
C) 1 May
D) 21 June

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Question 33: When is World Consumer Rights Day celebrated?

A) 15 March
B) 1 May
C) 2 October
D) 24 January

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Question 34: When is International Literacy Day celebrated?

A) 8 September
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 July

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Question 35: When is World Health Day celebrated?

A) 7 April
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 1 December

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Question 36: When is World Hepatitis Day celebrated?

A) 28 July
B) 5 June
C) 14 November
D) 21 June

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Question 37: When is World Malaria Day celebrated?

A) 25 April
B) 7 April
C) 1 May
D) 5 June

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Question 38: When is International Family Day celebrated?

A) 15 May
B) 5 June
C) 14 April
D) 8 March

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Question 39: When is World Cancer Day celebrated?

A) 4 February
B) 5 June
C) 31 May
D) 8 March

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Question 40: When is National Space Day celebrated in India?

A) 20 July
B) 23 August
C) 15 September
D) 4 October

Here is the translation in English:

Question 41: When is National Voters’ Day celebrated?

A) 25th January
B) 1st July
C) 14th November
D) 31st May

Question 42: When is World Sight Day celebrated?

A) Second Thursday of October
B) 5th June
C) 14th November
D) 1st May

Question 43: When is International Day of the Girl Child celebrated?

A) 11th October
B) 14th November
C) 8th March
D) 21st June

Question 44: When is Constitution Maker Day celebrated?

A) 26th November
B) 14th April
C) 15th August
D) 2nd October

Question 45: When is Universal Children’s Day celebrated?

A) 20th November
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 1st May

Question 46: When is International Day of Older Persons celebrated?

A) 1st October
B) 14th November
C) 2nd October
D) 5th September

Question 47: When is International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction celebrated?

A) Second Wednesday of October
B) 5th June
C) 31st May
D) 1st July

Question 48: When is Human Rights Day celebrated?

A) 10th December
B) 1st July
C) 14th November
D) 22nd March

Question 49: When is World Heart Day celebrated?

A) 29th September
B) 5th June
C) 31st May
D) 14th November

Question 50: When is World Hearing Day celebrated?

A) 3rd March
B) 5th June
C) 8th March
D) 14th November

Question 51: When is World Tourism Day celebrated?

A) 27th September
B) 1st May
C) 5th June
D) 14th November

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Question 52: When is World Wildlife Day celebrated?

A) 3rd March
B) 5th June
C) 1st May
D) 21st June

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Question 53: When is Hindi Day celebrated?

A) 14th September
B) 15th August
C) 26th January
D) 2nd October

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Question 54: When is Partition Horrors Remembrance Day celebrated?

A) 15th August
B) 14th August
C) 26th January
D) 2nd October

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Question 55: When is Kargil Vijay Diwas celebrated?

A) 26th June
B) 26th July
C) 26th August
D) 26th September

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Question 56: When is National Navy Day celebrated in India?

A) 26th January
B) 15th August
C) 4th December
D) 10th November

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Question 57: When is International Ozone Day celebrated?

A) 5th June
B) 16th September
C) 22nd April
D) 10th December

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Question 58: When is Farmer’s Day celebrated in India?

A) 26th January
B) 15th August
C) 23rd December
D) 5th June

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Question 59: When is Biodiversity Day celebrated?

A) 22nd May
B) 5th July
C) 12th March
D) 28th February

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Question 60: When is “Constitution Murder Day” observed?

A) 26th January
B) 25th June
C) 15th August
D) 2nd October

Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams for free online practice. Collection of Important previous year questions for preparation of upcoming SSC,RRB examinations.

Chemistry GK MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following dietary components provides the maximum energy per gram to humans?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Fats
C) Fibers
D) Proteins

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Question 2: Which of the following is a noble gas?

A) Ozone
B) Nitrogen
C) Hydrogen
D) Helium

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Question 3: Which of the following elements belongs to the d-block of the modern periodic table?

A) Na
B) Fe
C) Ca
D) Mg

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Question 4: According to the modern periodic table, which element has the atomic number 30?

A) Co
B) Ni
C) Zn
D) Fe

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Question 5: Which iron ore contains the highest amount of iron?

A) Magnetite
B) Hematite
C) Limonite
D) Siderite

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Question 6: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the neutron?

A) Chadwick
B) Rutherford
C) Niels Bohr
D) Roentgen

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Question 7: What is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris?

A) Calcium hypochlorite
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Calcium oxide
D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate

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Question 8: What is the chemical formula of washing soda?

A) Na2SO4
B) Ca(OH)2
C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O
D) NaHCO3

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Question 9: In a water molecule, what is the ratio of the masses of hydrogen and oxygen?

A) 1:4
B) 1:8
C) 1:16
D) 1:2

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Question 10: α particles are doubly charged ions of ____________.

A) Beryllium
B) Hydrogen
C) Helium
D) Lithium

Question 11: What is the atomic number of Copper?

A) 29
B) 26
C) 30
D) 32

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Question 12: What is the most common isotope of Oxygen?

A) O-16
B) O-17
C) O-18
D) O-19

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Question 13: What is the chemical name of NH₃ (Ammonia)?

A) Nitrogen Trihydride
B) Hydrogen Nitride
C) Nitrogen Hydride
D) Hydrogen Trinitride

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Question 14: What is the chemical symbol for Mercury?

A) Hg
B) Pb
C) Au
D) Ag

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Question 15: Which acid is a harmful enzyme?

A) Hydrochloric Acid
B) Sulfuric Acid
C) Nitric Acid
D) Hydrofluoric Acid

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Question 16: What is the approximate pH value of water?

A) 1
B) 7
C) 14
D) 9

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Question 17: Which element exhibits metallic properties?

A) Hydrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Calcium
D) Sulfur

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Question 18: Which chemical is a strong acid?

A) Ethanol
B) Acetic Acid
C) Sulfuric Acid
D) Ammonia

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Question 19: What is formed when carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in water?

A) Carbonic Acid
B) Hydrochloric Acid
C) Sulfuric Acid
D) Nitric Acid

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Question 20: Which element has the highest relative atomic mass?

A) Hydrogen
B) Helium
C) Lithium
D) Uranium

Question 21: Which element remains in a gaseous state at room temperature?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Nitrogen
D) Gold

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Question 22: Which metal is the lightest?

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium

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Question 23: What is formed when hydrochloric acid and ammonia react?

A) Ammonium Chloride
B) Ammonium Hydroxide
C) Hydrogen Chloride
D) Hydrochloric Acid

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Question 24: In chemistry, what does ‘pH’ stand for?

A) Measurement of acidity
B) Measurement of basicity
C) Measurement of gaseous state
D) Measurement of solid state

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Question 25: Which acid is a natural acid found in fruits?

A) Sulfuric Acid
B) Acetic Acid
C) Citric Acid
D) Hydrochloric Acid

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Question 26: Which element has only one electron in its outer shell?

A) Helium
B) Hydrogen
C) Lithium
D) Boron

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Question 27: What is the atomic number of Iron (Fe)?

A) 20
B) 26
C) 29
D) 32

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Question 28: What is the chemical symbol for Silver?

A) Ag
B) Au
C) Pb
D) Hg

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Question 29: Which element is commonly found as a diatomic molecule?

A) Hydrogen
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Iron

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Question 30: Which gas is produced during the oxidation and burning of water?

A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Carbon Dioxide

Question 31: Which acid is predominant in acid rain?

A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Sulfuric acid
C) Citric acid
D) Acetic acid

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Question 32: Which chemical is used as a pesticide?

A) Cysteine
B) Chloroform
C) DDT
D) Aniline

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Question 33: Which is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Argon

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Question 34: Which element is most commonly used as a salt?

A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Iron

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Question 35: What compound is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen?

A) Methane
B) Ammonia
C) Water
D) Carbon dioxide

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Question 36: Which element is used in the production of atomic bombs?

A) Plutonium
B) Sodium
C) Boron
D) Magnesium

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Question 37: Which substance is used to clean teeth?

A) Calcium carbonate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Silica
D) Glycerine

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Question 38: Which substance is called ‘white poison’ in the diet?

A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Calcium

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Question 39: Which chemical is used to preserve food?

A) Acetic acid
B) Sulfur dioxide
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Nitric acid

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Question 40: Which substance is a good conductor of electricity?

A) Wood
B) Plastic
C) Copper
D) Rubber

Question 41: Which compound is found in oily color?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Potassium permanganate
C) Water
D) Sodium chloride

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Question 42: What is the chemical symbol of Helium?

A) He
B) H
C) Hg
D) H₂

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Question 43: Which chemical is used to extinguish fire?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Hydrogen
C) Ammonia
D) Sulfur

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Question 44: Which element plays a significant role in DNA as an important biomolecule?

A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen

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Question 45: Which element is used in radiotherapy?

A) Iodine
B) Sodium
C) Boron
D) Calcium

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Question 46: Which chemical is used in burning and also found in fireworks?

A) Nitrogen
B) Potassium nitrate
C) Sodium chloride
D) Hydrochloric acid

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Question 47: Which color indicator is used to identify acidic properties?

A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow

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Question 48: Which substance dissolves in water but not in oil?

A) Salt
B) Sugar
C) Flour
D) Fat

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Question 49: What is the most common example of a hydrogen bond?

A) Ammonia
B) Water
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Methane

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Question 50: Which element is used in batteries?

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Potassium

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Question 51: Which element is used in making steel?

A) Carbon
B) Silicon
C) Zinc
D) Platinum

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Question 52: Which element plays an important role in biological instruments?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Gold

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Question 53: Which metal is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust?

A) Chromium
B) Zinc
C) Rhodium
D) Tin

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Question 54: Bronze is an alloy of which of the following?

A) Copper and Zinc
B) Tin and Zinc
C) Copper and Tin
D) Iron and Zinc

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Question 55: What is the bond called when electrons are shared between two elements?

A) Covalent bond
B) Hydrogen bond
C) Ionic bond
D) Dative bond

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Question 56: The isotope of which element is used in cancer treatment?

A) Cobalt
B) Nickel
C) Aluminum
D) Iron

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Question 57: A naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO is?

A) Acetophenone
B) Benzophenone
C) Propiophenone
D) Methcathinone

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Question 58: What is the atomic mass of sodium?

A) 13
B) 23
C) 40
D) 12

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Question 59: Which gas is produced when lead nitrate is heated?

A) Nitrogen dioxide
B) Lead dioxide
C) Lead oxide
D) Nitrogen oxide

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Question 60: Which chemical element from group 18 of the periodic table is produced in soil and rocks due to the natural radioactive decay of uranium?

A) Radon
B) Neon
C) Krypton
D) Oganesson

Biology – General Science MCQs for GK paper in competitive exams. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free online practice.

Biology GK MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following is commonly known as a blood thinner?

A) Coagulation inhibitor
B) Antibiotic
C) Immunosuppressant
D) Anticoagulant

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Question 2: Bile is stored in a sac called __________.

A) Gallbladder
B) Urinary bladder
C) Pancreas
D) Liver

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Question 3: What is the pH of human blood?

A) 7.4
B) 10
C) 6.5
D) 5.8

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Question 4: Which of the following plant kingdom groups is known as algae?

A) Bryophyta
B) Thallophyta
C) Angiosperm
D) Pteridophyta

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Question 5: Deficiency of which vitamin causes swollen neck glands?

A) Vitamin C
B) Iodine
C) Calcium
D) Vitamin D

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Question 6: Which of the following belongs to the Platyhelminthes classification under the kingdom Animalia?

A) Tapeworm
B) Leech
C) Wuchereria
D) Sycon

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Question 7: In the cytoplasm, ribosomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus are examples of __________.

A) Organs
B) Cells
C) Organelles
D) Tissues

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Question 8: What is the normal body temperature of humans?

A) 98.6°C
B) 98.6°F
C) 37°F
D) 40°C

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Question 9: In which part of the plant does the process of respiration occur?

A) Roots
B) Stem
C) Leaves
D) Flowers

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Question 10: How many major systems are there in the human body?

A) 7
B) 10
C) 12
D) 5

Question 11: What is the full form of DNA?

A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
B) Deoxyribonucleotide Acid
C) Deoxyribonuclear Acid
D) Deoxynucleic Acid

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Question 12: By which process do herbivorous plants prepare food?

A) Respiration
B) Photosynthesis
C) Maturation
D) Regeneration

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Question 13: Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Pituitary Gland
D) Thyroid

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Question 14: What is an enzyme?

A) A type of vitamin
B) A type of acid
C) A type of protein
D) A type of mineral

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Question 15: What is the function of papillae?

A) Digesting food
B) Regulating body temperature
C) Detoxifying the body
D) Solidifying blood

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Question 16: Which cell has a cell membrane?

A) Animal cell
B) Plant cell
C) Bacterial cell
D) All cells

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Question 17: Which organ is not part of the central nervous system?

A) Brain
B) Spinal cord
C) Nerve
D) Brain and spinal cord

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Question 18: Where is energy produced in a cell?

A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Chloroplast
D) Ribosome

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Question 19: Where is cartilage found?

A) In bones
B) In the skin
C) In the blood
D) In the nails

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Question 20: Which enzyme aids in chemical digestion?

A) Pancreatic lipase
B) Lactase
C) Amylase
D) All

Question 21: Which gas is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Hydrogen

Question 22: Where is a virus found?

A) Microorganisms
B) Plants
C) Animals
D) Bacteria

Question 23: In which organ does the first digestion of food occur?

A) Stomach
B) Mouth
C) Intestine
D) Esophagus

Question 24: What is the study of microorganisms called?

A) Biology
B) Microbiology
C) Physiology
D) Ecology

Question 25: Which organ purifies the blood?

A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Lungs

Question 26: Which part of the papillary helps in digestion?

A) Gastric juice
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Pepsin
D) All of the above

Question 27: What is not present in living cells?

A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Lysosomes
D) Volcans

Question 28: What condition arises due to a lack of oxygen?

A) Hypoxia
B) Hyperthermia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypothermia

Question 29: What is the main organ for food transportation in plants?

A) Roots
B) Leaves
C) Stem
D) Flowers

Question 30: How many major types of cells are there in human blood?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 31: What controls cognitive functions?

A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Kidneys
D) Liver

Question 32: What is the function of genes?

A) Digestion of food
B) Production of energy
C) Storage of genetic information
D) Formation of blood

Question 33: What is the function of mitochondria?

A) Production of energy
B) Protein synthesis
C) Cell division
D) Cell structure

Question 34: What type of organism are bacteria?

A) Unicellular
B) Multicellular
C) Viruses
D) Fungi

Question 35: During which stage of the nutrition process is the most energy obtained?

A) Digestion of carbohydrates
B) Digestion of proteins
C) Digestion of fats
D) All equally

Question 36: Which gland plays a major role in body growth?

A) Thyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Pancreas
D) Liver

Question 37: Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin C

Question 38: What type of antibodies are found in blood group A?

A) B antibodies
B) A antibodies
C) AB antibodies
D) O antibodies

Question 39: What studies the ecosystem?

A) Zoology
B) Botany
C) Ecology
D) Microbiology

Question 40: What is a neuron?

A) Blood cell
B) Nerve cell
C) Digestive cell
D) Liver cell

Question 41: Which organ produces hormones?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Kidneys

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Question 42: Which organ plays a major role in the process of respiration?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

---

Question 43: In the digestive system, which organ produces digestive enzymes?

A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Stomach
D) Intestine

---

Question 44: Which organ in plant cells assists in photosynthesis?

A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Ribosome
D) Nucleus

---

Question 45: What is the largest organ in the human body?

A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Skin
D) Kidneys

---

Question 46: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease?

A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Pellagra
D) Burkitt’s

---

Question 47: What is the largest cell in the human body?

A) Human Egg
B) Red Blood Cell
C) Liver Cell
D) Nerve Cell

---

Question 48: What is considered the best sensory organ?

A) Eye
B) Ear
C) Skin
D) Nose

---

Question 49: Which nutrient is most essential for nutrition?

A) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
C) Fats
D) Vitamins

---

Question 50: What is the name of the plant hormone that regulates growth?

A) Ethylene
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Gibberellin

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Question 51: Which organ regulates blood pressure?

A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Lungs

Question 52: What is the study of the remains of organisms called?

A) Paleontology
B) Genetics
C) Ecology
D) Microbiology

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Question 53: What part is included in the structure of a virus?

A) Nucleus
B) Protein coat
C) Mitochondria
D) Chloroplast

---

Question 54: Which part of the plant absorbs water?

A) Leaves
B) Stem
C) Roots
D) Flowers

---

Question 55: What does Maltase digest?

A) Proteins
B) Fats
C) Carbohydrates
D) Vitamins

---

Question 56: In which part of the body does fat digestion occur?

A) Stomach
B) Intestine
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

---

Question 57: Which organ plays a major role in drug absorption?

A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Intestine
D) Liver

---

Question 58: Where are RBCs produced in the body?

A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Bone marrow
D) Liver

---

Question 59: What is the most important organ in the process of respiration?

A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

---

Question 59: Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

A) Louis Pasteur
B) Charles Darwin
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Robert Hooke

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Question 60: Which organ is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

A) Bone marrow
B) Heart
C) Brain
D) Lungs

English Translation

Question 1: What is the biotic component of the environment and ecology?

A) Soil
B) Water
C) Air
D) Vegetation

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Question 2: What is an example of a natural ecosystem?

A) Farmland
B) Dam
C) Lake
D) Park

---

Question 3: What are herbivores called?

A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Tertiary consumers

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Question 4: What is the primary source of energy in an ecosystem?

A) Geothermal energy
B) Sun
C) Greenhouse gases
D) Moon

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Question 5: Which plant species is classified as endangered in India?

A) Mango
B) Sheesham
C) Teak
D) Sandalwood

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Question 6: Where is Kaziranga National Park located?

A) Uttarakhand
B) Assam
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Nagaland

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Question 7: What is the major source of carbon dioxide emissions?

A) Fossil fuel combustion
B) Animal respiration
C) Volcanic activity
D) Marshlands

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Question 8: What is the major impact of deforestation?

A) Soil erosion
B) Weed control
C) Reduction in sunlight
D) Increase in grazing land

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Question 9: What is a natural source of nitrous oxide gas?

A) Desert soils
B) Polar soils
C) Temperate soils
D) Tropical soils

---

Question 10: How do forests help control drought?

A) Forests prevent soil erosion.
B) Forests contribute to rainfall.
C) Forests contain many aquatic plants.
D) Forests act as water reservoirs.

Question 11: Which is the only carbon-neutral country in the world?

A) Sweden
B) New Zealand
C) Finland
D) Canada

---

Question 12: The cause of global warming is:

A) Decrease in carbon dioxide
B) Increase in carbon dioxide
C) Increase in forests
D) None of these

---

Question 13: Which greenhouse gas is produced by ruminant animals?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water vapor
C) Methane (CH4)
D) Nitrous oxide

---

Question 14: Which pollutant gas is emitted by vehicles?

A) Hydrocarbons
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Nitrogen oxides

---

Question 15: Air pollution can be reduced by:

A) Sunlight
B) Trees
C) Restricting loudspeakers
D) None of these

---

Question 16: The “Harela Festival” celebrated in Uttarakhand is related to:

A) Water conservation
B) Tree plantation
C) Ozone protection
D) None of these

---

Question 17: Which country experiences the most acid rain?

A) Japan
B) China
C) Norway
D) United States of America

---

Question 18: The ozone layer absorbs harmful rays known as:

A) Gamma rays
B) Ultraviolet rays
C) X-rays
D) None of these

---

Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?

A) March 22
B) April 22
C) June 5
D) August 15

---

Question 20: When was the Environmental Protection Act implemented?

A) 1972
B) 1986
C) 1992
D) 2000

Question 21: Which pollutant causes damage to the ozone layer?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
D) Sulfur dioxide

---

Question 22: Which gas is not considered a greenhouse gas?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrous oxide

---

Question 23: What is the largest source of plant life?

A) Desert
B) Ocean
C) Forest
D) Grassland

---

Question 24: What is natural vegetation?

A) Plants planted by humans
B) Naturally growing plants
C) Agricultural plants
D) Decorative plants

---

Question 25: What does the Red Data Book provide information about?

A) New species of plants
B) Endangered and extinct species
C) Medicinal plants
D) Food plants

---

Question 26: Which process is not a part of the water cycle?

A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Nitrification
D) Precipitation

---

Question 27: Which instrument is not used for environmental studies?

A) Barometer
B) Seismograph
C) Hygrometer
D) Galvanometer

---

Question 28: What is the most important role of biodiversity?

A) Energy production
B) Ecological balance
C) Industrial development
D) Urbanization

---

Question 29: Which gas is most responsible for the greenhouse effect?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium

---

Question 30: By which process does water vapor reach the atmosphere?

A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Nitrification

Question 31: Which fuel is less polluting?

A) Coal
B) Diesel
C) Natural Gas
D) Petrol

---

Question 32: What does the term “carbon footprint” mean?

A) Carbon accumulation
B) Carbon production
C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization
D) Carbon usage

---

Question 33: Which element is most essential for life on Earth?

A) Carbon
B) Nitrogen
C) Water
D) Oxygen

---

Question 34: Which process affects vegetation and drainage?

A) Erosion
B) Reforestation
C) Degradation
D) Afforestation

---

Question 35: Which factor is not involved in natural disasters?

A) Earthquake
B) Flood
C) Cyclone
D) Afforestation

---

Question 36: Which gas is found in the highest amount in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Helium

---

Question 37: Which gas is present in the smallest percentage in Earth’s atmosphere?

A) Nitrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon Dioxide
D) Argon

---

Question 38: Which environmental pollutant causes acid rain?

A) Carbon Monoxide
B) Sulfur Dioxide
C) Methane
D) Nitrogen

---

Question 39: Which process helps maintain environmental balance?

A) Urbanization
B) Industrialization
C) Reforestation
D) Afforestation

---

Question 40: What is the main cause of climate change?

A) Solar activities
B) Natural disasters
C) Greenhouse gas emissions
D) The position of the moon

Question 41: Which process produces oxygen?

A) Respiration
B) Evaporation
C) Photosynthesis
D) Nitrification

---

Question 42: Which natural resource is not renewable?

A) Solar energy
B) Water energy
C) Coal
D) Wind energy

---

Question 43: Which organization works on issues related to climate change?

A) WHO
B) IMF
C) IPCC
D) UNESCO

---

Question 44: Which process is not a part of the carbon cycle?

A) Respiration
B) Weathering
C) Combustion
D) Condensation

---

Question 45: Which process causes water pollution?

A) Erosion
B) Excessive use of fertilizers
C) Condensation
D) Afforestation

---

Question 46: Which waste is not recyclable?

A) Plastic
B) Paper
C) Glass
D) Organic waste

---

Question 47: Which process helps in preventing global warming?

A) Combustion
B) Industrialization
C) Afforestation
D) Urbanization

---

Question 48: Which gas causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium

---

Question 49: Which is a key component of the ecosystem?

A) Water
B) Atmosphere
C) Soil
D) All of the above

---

Question 50: Which process harms the environment?

A) Afforestation
B) Reforestation
C) Combustion
D) Water conservation

Question 51: What is the main cause of climate change?

A) Natural disasters
B) Emission of greenhouse gases
C) Solar activities
D) Moon’s position

---

Question 52: Which process helps in purifying the environment?

A) Urbanization
B) Industrialization
C) Reclamation
D) Afforestation

---

Question 53: What is the primary function of the ozone layer?

A) To heat the Earth
B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun
C) To promote rainfall
D) To cool the atmosphere

---

Question 54: Which gas damages the ozone layer?

A) Carbon dioxide
B) Methane
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

---

Question 55: What is the full form of CNG?

A) Compound Natural Gas
B) Compressed Natural Gas
C) Complete Natural Gas
D) Natural Gas

---

Question 56: Where is the National Environmental Research Institute located?

A) Bhopal
B) Lucknow
C) Nagpur (Maharashtra)
D) Delhi

---

Question 57: In which category do various types of fungi fall?

A) Producers
B) Consumers
C) Decomposers
D) Abiotic

---

Question 58: Which country has the highest biodiversity?

A) Germany
B) India
C) China
D) South Africa

---

Question 59: Which disease has increased due to ozone layer depletion and ozone holes?

A) Malaria
B) AIDS
C) Cholera
D) Skin cancer

---

Question 60: Sound pollution is measured in:

A) Fathom
B) Decibels
C) Tons
D) Kilograms

Question 61: The specific cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called _______.

A) Agriculture
B) Horticulture
C) Sericulture
D) Fish farming

Indian Polity and Constitution GK MCQ questions answers in English for Competitive exams. Important MCQs on Political Science from previous year exam papers of SSC, UPSC examinations.

Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs

Q.1: Which of the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Alladi Krishnaswamy
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Gopalachari Ayyngar

---

Q.2: Constitutional monarchy means:
(A) The king writes the constitution
(B) The king interprets the constitution
(C) The king exercises powers granted by the constitution
(D) The king is elected by the people

---

Q.3: When was the first Central Legislative Assembly formed?
(A) 1922
(B) 1923
(C) 1921
(D) 1920

---

Q.4: The Constitution of India describes India as:
(A) A federation
(B) Semi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Union of States

---

Q.5: The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ is a characteristic of the constitutional system of:
(A) Britain
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Switzerland

---

Q.6: The method of amending the constitution through a popular veto is found in:
(A) Britain
(B) Switzerland
(C) Russia
(D) India

---

Q.7: Which of the following is an essential feature of the parliamentary system of government?
(A) Flexibility of the constitution
(B) Fusion of executive and legislature
(C) Judicial supremacy
(D) Parliamentary sovereignty

---

Q.8: Grassroots democracy relates to:
(A) Devolution of powers
(B) Decentralization of powers
(C) Panchayati Raj system
(D) All of the above

---

Q.9: The objective of democratic socialism is to:
(A) Bring socialism through peaceful means
(B) Bring socialism through both violent and peaceful means
(C) Bring socialism through violent means
(D) Bring socialism through democratic means

---

Q.10: Which judge declared that ‘secularism’ and ‘federalism’ are basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati case
(B) S.R. Bommai case
(C) Indira Sawhney case
(D) Minerva Mills case

---

Q.11: Universal adult suffrage reflects that India is a country that is:
(A) Secular
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Sovereign

---

Q.12: The Constitution of India came into force in:
(A) 1951
(B) 1956
(C) 1950
(D) 1949

---

Q.13: The Government of India Act, 1935, was based on:
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Lord Curzon Commission
(C) Dimitrov Thesis
(D) Lord Clive’s Report

---

Q.14: Who called the Government of India Act, 1935, the new charter of bondage?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) B.R. Ambedkar

---

Q.15: Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Q.16: Which of the following is an essential element of the state?
(A) Sovereignty
(B) Government
(C) Territory
(D) All of these

Q.17: Which is the most important system in a democracy?
(A) Social
(B) Political
(C) Economic
(D) Governmental

Q.18: Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution?
(A) Preamble
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part I

Q.19: The phrase ‘equality before law’ in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Greece

Q.20: The thinking and ideals of the Constitution makers are reflected in:
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy

Q.21: Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary form of government
(B) Independence of judiciary
(C) Presidential form of government
(D) Federal government

Q.22: What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right against Exploitation
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Religious Freedom

Q.23: The concept of single citizenship in India is adopted from:
(A) England
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) France

Q.24: The method of impeachment of the President of India is adopted from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) France

Q.25: What was the basis for the formation of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A) Mountbatten Plan
B) Cabinet Mission Plan
C) Indian National Congress
D) Simla Agreement

Q.26: Which of the following can be called a ‘secular’ state?
(A) A state that follows a particular religion
(B) A state that is anti-religion
(C) A state that does not discriminate between religions
(D) A state that accepts all religions as the state religion

---

Q.27: Initially, how many Fundamental Rights were provided?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Four
(D) Five

---

Q.28: Which type of equality is not in line with the ideals of a liberal state?
(A) Legal equality
(B) Political equality
(C) Social equality
(D) Economic equality

---

Q.29: What does political freedom mean?
(A) People’s control over the government
(B) Free political activities of the people
(C) Cooperation between politics and democracy
(D) Voters can form and dismiss their government

---

Q.30: Which of the following is included in the list of fundamental duties of Indian citizens in the Constitution?
(A) Practicing secularism
(B) Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(C) Regularly and correctly paying all taxes to the government
(D) Not attacking any public servant while performing their duties

---

Q.31: When were Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
(A) 1975
(B) 1976
(C) 1977
(D) 1979

---

Q.32: The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country’s constitution?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) USSR
(D) None of these

---

Q.33: Which of the following is a political right?
(A) Right to work
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to freedom of expression
(D) Right to vote

---

Q.34: The provisions of citizenship in the Indian Constitution came into force in: (A) 1950
(B) 1949
(C) 1951
(D) 1952

---

Q.35: What does social justice mean?
(A) Everyone should have equal economic rights.
(B) Everyone should have equal political rights.
(C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated.
(D) Everyone should be given the right to religious freedom.

---

Q.36: The right to vote falls under which category?
(A) Human rights
(B) Civil rights
(C) Natural rights
(D) Political rights

---

Q.37: Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(A) Justice
(B) Fraternity
(C) Equality of status
(D) Adult suffrage

---

Q.38: At what age can Indian citizens vote?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 22 years
(D) 25 years

---

Q.39: According to the Preamble, ultimate power lies in the hands of:
(A) Parliament
(B) Constitution
(C) President
(D) People

---

Q.40: Dual citizenship is a key feature of which type of government?
(A) Parliamentary
(B) Federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Authoritarian

---

Q.41: ‘Dual citizenship’ is a feature of:
(A) Unitary government
(B) Federal government
(C) Parliamentary government
(D) Presidential government

---

Q.42: Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?
(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
(B) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
(C) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
(D) State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)

---

Q.43: According to the Indian Constitution, the right to property is a:
(A) Fundamental right
(B) Natural right
(C) Legal right
(D) Moral right

---

Q.44: The success of democracy depends on:
(A) Right to criticize
(B) Right of association
(C) Right to personal liberty
(D) Right to property

---

Q.45: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the constitution of:
(A) Britain
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada

---

Q.46: How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 1
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 8

---

Q.47: The Directive Principles of State Policy were adopted from:
(A) British Constitution
(B) Swiss Constitution
(C) American Constitution
(D) Irish Constitution

---

Q.48: When were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens included in the Constitution?
(A) 1952
(B) 1976
(C) 1979
(D) 1981

---

Q.49: The Directive Principles included in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the constitution of:
(A) Australia
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada

---

Q.50: During whose rule was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Indira Gandhi government
(B) Morarji Desai government
(C) Narasimha Rao government
(D) Vajpayee government

World Geography GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for Competitive Exams. Important questions selected from previous year exam questions papers of SSC, UPSC and other examinations.

World Geography MCQ

Q.1: Which of the following countries has the longest underground tunnel?
(A) Germany
(B) Switzerland
(C) Spain
(D) France

Q.2: Which of the following holds over 50% of the world’s coal reserves?
(A) USA, Russia, and China
(B) China, India, and Russia
(C) India, Russia, and the USA
(D) China, India, and the USA

Q.3: The Panama Canal was constructed in
(A) 1869 AD
(B) 1980 AD
(C) 1905 AD
(D) 1914 AD

Q.4: Which is the hottest place on Earth?
(A) Death Valley-California
(B) El Azizia-Libya
(C) Jacobabad-Pakistan
(D) Atacama-Peru

Q.5: What was the name of the cyclone that caused devastation in Bangladesh?
(A) Shary
(B) Sidr
(C) Wendy
(D) Erin

Q.6: What is the longest mountain range on Earth?
(A) Andes Mountains
(B) Mid-Atlantic Ridge
(C) Western Cordillera
(D) Himalayan Range

Q.7: The Sunda Trench is located in:
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Gulf of Mexico

Q.8: Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
(A) Mites
(B) Humidity
(C) Insects
(D) Rodents

Q.9: The lake created by the Aswan Dam in Africa is:
(A) Chad
(B) Victoria
(C) Nasser
(D) Tanganyika

Q.10: The temperate grasslands of North America are called
(A) Pampas
(B) Downs
(C) Steppes
(D) Prairies

Q.11: The Panama Canal differs from the Suez Canal as it has:
(A) A lock system
(B) A shorter route
(C) A busier route
(D) A less busy route

Q.12: Llanos grasslands are found in:
(A) Guiana Highlands
(B) Brazilian Highlands
(C) Argentina
(D) Chile

Q.13: Approximately what percentage of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest?
(A) 2 percent
(B) 7 percent
(C) 10 percent
(D) 15 percent

Q.14: Which continent is located in both the Northern-Southern and Eastern-Western hemispheres?
(A) Australia
(B) Africa
(C) Europe
(D) South America

Q.15: The Sahara is located in which part of Africa?
(A) Eastern
(B) Western
(C) Northern
(D) Southern

Q.16: The longest river in the world is:
(A) Ganges
(B) Nile
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Amazon

Q.17: Which city is the capital of the desert country Mali?
(A) Damascus
(B) Bamako
(C) Adrar
(D) Ankara

Q.18: Peshawar is near:
(A) Karakoram Pass
(B) Zoji La Pass
(C) Namika-La Pass
(D) Khyber Pass

Q.19: The highest airport (4411 meters above sea level) is:
(A) Daocheng Yading Airport
(B) Heathrow Airport
(C) Kathmandu Airport
(D) Bangda Airport

Q.20: ‘Yosemite’ is:
(A) A river
(B) A peak
(C) A waterfall
(D) A dam

Q.21: Which strait separates Australia and Tasmania?
(A) Bass
(B) Bab-el-Mandeb
(C) Palk
(D) Bering

Q.22: The world’s largest coral reef is found off the coast of:
(A) Brazil
(B) Australia
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Cuba

Q.23: The longest river in Europe is:
(A) Rhine
(B) Rhone
(C) Danube
(D) Volga

Q.24: Asia and North America are separated by:
(A) Bass Strait
(B) Dover Strait
(C) Bering Strait
(D) Cook Strait

Q.25: The Grand Canyon is located on which river?
(A) Colorado
(B) Columbia
(C) Ohio
(D) Mississippi

Q.26: On September 23, when day and night are of equal length worldwide, it is called:
(A) Autumnal Equinox
(B) Celestial Equinox
(C) Winter Equinox
(D) Spring Equinox

Q.27: The region famous for various types of wine and champagne is:
(A) Eastern Europe
(B) Western Europe
(C) Mediterranean
(D) Grasslands

Q.28: The river with the largest water flow in the world is:
(A) Huang-Ho
(B) Amazon
(C) Zaire
(D) Nile

Q.29: The world’s largest delta is:
(A) Sundarbans
(B) Amazon Basin
(C) Greenland
(D) Congo Basin

Q.30: The canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is:
(A) Suez
(B) Malacca
(C) Panama
(D) Gibraltar

Q.31: The strait connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea is:
(A) Panama Strait
(B) Suez Strait
(C) Palk Strait
(D) Bering Strait

Q.32: The temperate grasslands of South America are called:
(A) Prairies
(B) Pampas
(C) Downs
(D) Steppes

Q.33: Volcanic activity is most common in:
(A) Hawaii
(B) Japan
(C) Columbia
(D) New Zealand

Q.34: The world’s largest freshwater lake is:
(A) Lake Victoria
(B) Lake Michigan
(C) Lake Balkhash
(D) Lake Superior

Q.35: Which of the following volcanoes is located in Mexico?
(A) Colima
(B) Purace
(C) Semeru
(D) Etna

Q.36: In July 2007, the highest peak of Halmahera Island, Mount Gamkonora Volcano, erupted in which country?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

Q.37: The Black Forest is found in:
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Czechoslovakia
(D) Romania

Q.38: Greenland, the world’s largest island, is an integral part of:
(A) Norway
(B) North America
(C) Denmark
(D) Canada

Q.39: Kangaroos, platypuses, and koala bears are wildlife native to:
(A) Australia
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Africa

Q.40: Which of the following regions has no rainfall at any time of the year?
(A) Central Europe
(B) Central North America
(C) Polar region
(D) Sub-Saharan region

Q.41: The world’s tallest gravity dam is:
(A) Beas Dam
(B) Nangal Dam
(C) Bhakra Dam
(D) Hirakud Dam

Q.42: “The climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic herders.” This statement is true for which region?
(A) African Savannah
(B) Central Asian Steppes
(C) Siberian Tundra
(D) North American Prairies

Q.43: The world’s largest desert is:
(A) Arabian
(B) Kalahari
(C) Sahara
(D) Thar

Q.44: Which two countries are connected by an underwater tunnel?
(A) England and Spain
(B) Malaysia and Singapore
(C) England and Belgium
(D) France and England

Q.45: The world’s largest archipelago country is:
(A) Philippines
(B) Indonesia
(C) Sweden
(D) Greenland

Q.46: Which of the following is a landlocked sea?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea

---

Q.47: Where is the Normandy beach located?
(A) France
(B) Netherlands
(C) Spain
(D) Belgium

---

Q.48: ‘Dykes’ are specifically constructed in:
(A) Norway
(B) Holland
(C) France
(D) United Kingdom

---

Q.49: Colorado in America is famous for this landform _______________
(A) Grand Canyon
(B) Grand Craters
(C) Great Valleys
(D) Great Basin

---

Q.50: The largest island in the world is:
(A) New Guinea
(B) Madagascar
(C) Greenland
(D) Iceland

Physics (General Physics science) GK MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs selected from the previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.

Physics GK MCQ Questions in English

Q.1: If the velocity of a moving object increases by 1.5 times, its kinetic energy will:
A) Increase by 1.5 times.
B) Increase by 3 times.
C) Increase by 2.25 times.
D) Increase by 6 times.

---

Q.2: Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquakes?
A) Richter Scale
B) Metric Scale
C) Centigrade Scale
D) Newton Scale

---

Q.3: When a bottle of scent is opened in a corner of a room, its fragrance spreads to all parts of the room due to?
A) Evaporation
B) Absorption
C) Diffusion
D) Sublimation

---

Q.4: When a ray of light passes from one medium to another, its?
A) Wavelength remains constant
B) Frequency remains constant
C) Frequency increases
D) None of these

---

Q.5: The unit of resistance is?
A) Ampere
B) Coulomb
C) Henry
D) Ohm

---

Q.6: What is the unit of a light-year?
A) Intensity of light
B) Time
C) Distance
D) Speed of light

---

Q.7: Who invented the telescope?
A) Galileo
B) Gutenberg
C) Edison
D) Graham Bell

---

Q.8: What type of mirror is used by a dentist to examine a patient’s teeth?
A) Concave
B) Convex
C) Plane
D) Cylindrical

---

Q.9: Which of the following is not a unit of heat?
A) Calorie
B) Kilocalorie
C) Kilojoule
D) Watt

---

Q.10: What is used to correct farsightedness?
A) Concave lens
B) Convex lens
C) Convex mirror
D) Concave mirror

Q.11: Which instrument is used to measure the humidity of the air?
A) Hygrometer
B) Hydrometer
C) Manometer
D) Odometer

---

Q.12: Why is red color used as an emergency or danger signal?
A) It is an attractive color
B) It has the longest wavelength
C) It is scattered
D) It has the highest energy

---

Q.13: What is the velocity of the fastest object?
A) Speed of sound
B) Speed of light
C) Speed of an electron
D) Speed of an atom

---

Q.14: What is the unit of speed?
A) Newton
B) Watt
C) Meter/second
D) Joule

---

Q.15: What is the standard unit of volume?
A) Kilogram
B) Second
C) Liter
D) Meter

---

Q.16: What is the difference between displacement and distance?
A) Displacement is always greater than distance
B) Displacement is a scalar quantity, while distance is a vector quantity
C) Displacement is a vector, while distance is a scalar
D) Both are the same

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Q.17: Who gave the laws of motion?
A) Newton
B) Galileo
C) Einstein
D) Darwin

---

Q.18: What is Newton’s third law of motion?
A) An object will maintain its state unless acted upon by an external force
B) The direction and magnitude of force are always the same
C) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
D) The magnitude of force is proportional to the mass of an object

---

Q.19: What form of energy is converted in solar panels?
A) Mechanical energy
B) Kinetic energy
C) Electrical energy
D) Thermal energy

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Q.20: What does the speed of sound depend on?
A) Air pressure
B) Air temperature
C) Air humidity
D) All of the above

Q.21: What causes gravitational force?
A) Mass
B) Friction
C) Reflection
D) Motion

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Q. 22: What is thermal energy related to?
A) Temperature
B) Motion
C) Velocity
D) Force

---

Q.23: What is the unit of electric current?
A) Watt
B) Ohm
C) Ampere
D) Volt

---

Q.24: How is electrical resistance calculated?
A) Ohm’s Law
B) Newton’s Law
C) Galileo’s Law
D) Hooke’s Law

---

Q.25: In which state is the speed of sound the greatest?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) All of the above

---

Q.26: What is the unit of magnetic force?
A) Newton
B) Kilogram
C) Tesla
D) Watt

---

Q.27: What travels at the same speed as light?
A) Electron
B) Proton
C) Neutron
D) Photon

---

Q.28: Who gave the principle of induction?
A) Michael Faraday
B) James Clerk Maxwell
C) Luigi Galvani
D) Albert Einstein

---

Q.29: What is the unit of energy conversion?
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Volt
D) Meter

---

Q.30: What does ‘molecular motion’ refer to in physics?
A) Overall motion of particles
B) Intrinsic motion of molecules
C) Mechanical motion of an object
D) Motion of force

Q.31: What is the difference between speed and velocity?
A) Speed is only magnitude, while velocity has direction.
B) Speed and velocity are the same.
C) Velocity is only magnitude, while speed has direction.
D) Speed has direction, while velocity is only magnitude.

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Q.32: What is the unit for measuring mass?
A) Kilogram
B) Meter
C) Joule
D) Watt

---

Q.33: What is the unit of speed?
A) Meter/second
B) Kilogram/meter
C) Newton
D) Watt

---

Q.34: What is the unit of frequency for sound waves?
A) Hertz
B) Newton
C) Watt
D) Joule

---

Q.35: Which property of light is responsible for polarization?
A) Wave nature
B) Particle nature
C) Motion
D) Sound

---

Q.36: In which state of matter is the speed of sound the greatest?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) All of the above

---

Q.37: What is the definition of gravitational force?
A) The attractive force between two objects
B) The repulsive force between two objects
C) The sustainability of an object
D) The motion of an object

---

Q.38: How many laws are there in thermodynamics?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five

---

Q.39: What is the formula for electric current?
A) Voltage/Resistance
B) Voltage × Resistance
C) Voltage/Current
D) Resistance × Current

---

Q.40: In which field is resonance used?
A) Radio
B) Chemistry
C) Biology
D) Mathematics

Q. 41: What is the property of vibration known as?
A) Frequency
B) Voltage
C) Resistance
D) Temperature

---

Q.42: What is the fundamental principle of the table theory?
A) The relationship between the frequency of a wave and its speed
B) The relationship between force and motion of an object
C) The relationship between electric current and resistance
D) The relationship between the speed of sound and temperature

---

Q.43: What are the two main types of mechanical energy?
A) Kinetic and Potential
B) Thermal and Electrical
C) Sound and Light
D) Mass and Force

---

Q.44: What is the formula for electrical power?
A) Voltage × Current
B) Current × Resistance
C) Voltage / Current
D) Voltage / Resistance

---

Q.45: Traditionally, what type of waves are sound waves?
A) Three-dimensional
B) Two-dimensional
C) One-dimensional
D) All

---

Q.46: What is the mathematical formula for displacement?
A) Final position – Initial position
B) Final position + Initial position
C) Distance × Time
D) Time / Distance

---

Q.47: Which type of energy is lost during the cooling process?
A) Mechanical energy
B) Thermal energy
C) Electrical energy
D) Chemical energy

---

Q.48: What determines the direction of displacement?
A) Direction of motion
B) Direction of force
C) Initial and final position
D) All

---

Q.49: Which law of thermodynamics states the principle of energy conservation?
A) First law
B) Second law
C) Third law
D) Fourth law

---

Question 50: Who proposed the theory of emission?
A) Herschel
B) Planck
C) Henry
D) Newton

---

Q.51: What happens when force is applied in the direction of motion?
A) Speed increases
B) Speed decreases
C) Speed remains constant
D) No effect

---

Q.52: What is the definition of electrical resistance?
A) The ability to resist current
B) The ability to conduct current
C) Voltage capacity
D) Energy capacity

---

Q.53: At what frequency do sound waves have the most energy?
A) High frequency
B) Low frequency
C) Medium frequency
D) All the same

---

Q.54: Which law of Newton is used to calculate motion?
A) First law
B) Second law
C) Third law
D) All

---

Q.55: Which law describes the relationship between mass and force?
A) Newton’s first law
B) Newton’s second law
C) Newton’s third law
D) Newton’s fourth law

Q.56: What is involved in the maximum displacement of an object?
A) Work
B) Force
C) Energy
D) Speed

Q.57: What does the speed of sound not depend on?
A) Type of medium
B) Temperature
C) Frequency of sound
D) Amplitude of sound

Q.58: What is the Table Theory related to?
A) Properties of waves
B) Properties of sound
C) Properties of electricity
D) Properties of light

Q.59: What type of laws are the laws of motion?
A) Static
B) Diffraction
C) Mechanical
D) Electrical

Q.60: What is the unit of sound intensity?
A) Decibel
B) Hertz
C) Watt
D) Joule

Q.61: What type of energy is electricity?
A) Thermal
B) Mechanical
C) Chemical
D) Electrical

Indian Economy GK MCQ Question answer for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs on Economics of India from previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.

Medium : English

Indian Economy MCQ in English

Q.1: Which Five-Year Plan’s objectives were influenced by the Gadgil Formula in India?
(A) Second Five-Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five-Year Plan
(C) Third Five-Year Plan
(D) Seventh Five-Year Plan

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Q.2: When was the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) established?
(A) 1934
(B) 1935
(C) 1936
(D) 1949

---

Q.3: Name the Indian state with the highest tax revenue.
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra

---

Q.4: Which of the following public sector banks will receive a loan from the BRICS New Development Bank?
(A) Canara Bank
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) ICICI
(D) State Bank of India

---

Q.5: Which of the following countries recently overtook Thailand as the world’s largest rice exporter in 2015?
(A) India
(B) Myanmar
(C) China
(D) Vietnam

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Q.6: The Government of India has recently decided to integrate the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana with:
(A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) National Rural Livelihood Mission
(C) Hariyali
(D) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program

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Q.7: The PURA scheme, which envisages the provision of urban amenities in rural areas, was first advocated by:
(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(B) Shri A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Dr. Arvind Subramanian
(D) Prof. Dinshaw Mistry

---

Q.8: National income can be calculated by all of the following methods except:
(A) Sum of all expenditures
(B) Sum of all outputs
(C) Sum of all savings
(D) Sum of all incomes

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Q.9: In a national context, which of the following indicates a macroeconomic perspective?
(A) Inflation in India
(B) Sales of Bata Shoe Company
(C) Mango exports to the UK
(D) Income from Railways

Q.10: State Bank of India was previously known by this name:
(A) Imperial Bank of India
(B) Canara Bank
(C) Syndicate Bank
(D) Indian Cooperative Bank

Q.11: Whose signature appears on a one-rupee note?
(A) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(D) None of the above

Q.12: The full form of NABARD is:
(A) National Business for Accounting and Review
(B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(C) National Bank for Aeronautics and Radar Development
(D) National Bureau for Air and Road Transport

Q.13: When was the Reserve Bank of India nationalized?
(A) 1949
(B) 1951
(C) 1947
(D) 1935

Q.14: Which of the following indicates a microeconomic perspective in national terms?
(A) Per capita income in India
(B) Study of TISCO’s sales
(C) Inflation in India
(D) Educated unemployment in India

Q.15: How does agriculture promote industrial development in India?
(A) By opening markets for industrial products
(B) By providing food and clothing to workers
(C) By supplying raw materials
(D) All of the above

Q.16: The Industrial Development Bank of India was established in:
(A) July 1968
(B) July 1966
(C) July 1964
(D) July 1962

Q.17: The slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was included in:
(A) Second Plan
(B) First Plan
(C) Fifth Plan
(D) Fourth Plan

Q.18: Which bank is limited to the needs of agricultural and rural finance?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) IFC
(D) NABARD

Q.19: The Indian economy is a/an:
(A) Free economy
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Capitalist economy
(D) Communist economy

Q.20: The P. Rama Rao Committee is related to:
(A) Taxation
(B) Defense
(C) Industry
(D) Agriculture

Q.21: The lender of last resort is:
(A) SBI
(B) IDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI

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Q.22: The period of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan is:
(A) January 1, 2012 to December 31, 2017
(B) April 1, 2011 to March 31, 2016
(C) January 1, 2011 to December 31, 2016
(D) April 1, 2012 to March 31, 2017

---

Q.23: In which year was the Imperial Bank established?
(A) 1930
(B) 1935
(C) 1955
(D) 1921

---

Q.24: Which Five-Year Plan had a duration of only four years?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Seventh

---

Q.25: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for food grains was introduced in which year? (A) 1944
(B) 1964
(C) 1974
(D) 1954

---

Q.26: In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all nationalized commercial banks is determined by:
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Central Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks’ Association
(D) Reserve Bank of India

---

Q.27: Which of the following provides long-term loans to private industries in India? (A) Food Corporation of India
(B) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(C) Primary Credit Society
(D) Land Development Bank

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Q.28: “Agriculture should serve as a means of income, livelihood, and opportunities for local communities” – This statement was made by:
(A) Dr. Madhavan Nair
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Dr. Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

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Q.29: Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs was the focus of the Brundtland Commission. It is called:
(A) Sustainable Development
(B) Mitigation
(C) Disaster Management
(D) Capacity Building

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Q.30: SEBI was established in:
(A) 1992
(B) 1980
(C) 1984
(D) 1988

Q.31: India exports electricity to:
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bhutan

Q.32: The largest single item of current government expenditure in India is:
(A) Defense expenditure
(B) Interest payment on loans
(C) Subsidy payment
(D) Investment in social overheads

Q.33: The ‘More Mega Store’ retail chain is related to which Indian industry?
(A) Reliance Industries
(B) Bharti Enterprises
(C) Aditya Birla Group
(D) None of these

Q.34: Which spice tops in value as an export commodity of India?
(A) Black Pepper
(B) Chili
(C) Turmeric
(D) Cardamom

Q.35: In which year was the nationalization of fourteen major banks in India?
(A) 1967
(B) 1968
(C) 1969
(D) 1971

Q.36: One rupee notes are issued by:
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) President of India
(D) Government of India

Q.37: India adopted the decimal currency system in:
(A) 1955
(B) 1956
(C) 1957
(D) 1958

Q.38: The number of nationalized banks in India is:
(A) 14
(B) 21
(C) 20
(D) 22

Q.39: Maruti cars are mainly based on:
(A) Japanese technology
(B) Korean technology
(C) Russian technology
(D) German technology

Q.40: Which measure has not been undertaken by the government to curb inflation? (A) Increase in consumption
(B) Increase in production
(C) Reduction in deficit financing
(D) Taxation measures

Q.41: In the Indian economy, the ‘slack season’ refers to:
(A) March-April
(B) September-December
(C) January-June
(D) February-April

Q.42: Which of the following is not a qualitative credit control by a country’s central bank?
(A) Rationing of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Variation in margin requirements
(D) Regulation of margin requirements

Q.43: The market where funds can be borrowed is called:
(A) Reserved market
(B) Institutional market
(C) Money market
(D) Exchange market

Q.44: If the marginal return increases at a decreasing rate, then the total return:
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) Becomes income

Q.45: According to newspaper reports, the government plans to disinvest what percentage of its stake in Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL)?
(A) 5%
(B) 50%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%

Q.46: Ownership of RRB (Regional Rural Bank) is held by:
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Sponsor Bank
(D) Jointly by all of the above

Q.47: Which of the following methods is not used to determine the national income of a country?
(A) Income method
(B) Output method
(C) Input method
(D) Investment method

Q.48: Which scheme of the Government of India makes Indian cities slum-free?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Central Rural Sanitation Program MME
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Antyodaya

Q.49: The current fiscal deficit percentage in the GDP is:
(A) 7
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 1

Q.50: The term ‘Tragedy of the Commons’ related to the overuse of resources was propounded by:
(A) Garrett Hardin
(B) Seligman
(C) Adolf Wagner
(D) A.P. Lemierre

Books and Authors GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for preparation of Competitive exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.

Books and Authors MCQs in English

Q.1: Who is the author of the novel ‘When the River Sleeps’?
(A) Easterine Kire
(B) Anuradha Roy
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Shobha De

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Q.2: Which of the following books is written by Sachin Tendulkar?
(A) Playing It My Way
(B) Untold Story
(C) Train to Pakistan
(D) India of My Dreams

---

Q.3: The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ is related to whom?
(A) William Wordsworth
(B) John Keats
(C) Dr. Charles Dickens
(D) Dr. Jonathan Swift

---

Q.4: Who is the author of the book ‘Zest for Life’?
(A) Emile Zola
(B) H.G. Wells
(C) Virginia Woolf
(D) Mark Twain

---

Q.5: Who wrote the famous novel The Guide?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Satyajit Ray

---

Q.6: Who is the author of the book Magic Seeds?
(A) Cyrus Mistry
(B) V.S. Naipaul
(C) Jhumpa Lahiri
(D) Vikram Seth

---

Q.7: Who is the author of the book Romancing with Life?
(A) Kapil Dev
(B) Dev Anand
(C) Shashi Tharoor
(D) Bill Clinton

---

Q.8: Who is the author of Indica?
(A) Megasthenes
(B) Fa-Hien
(C) Seleucus
(D) Hiuen Tsang

---

Q.9: Who wrote The Discovery of India?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

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Q.10: Who wrote the book The Kingdom of God is Within You?
(A) Leo Tolstoy
(B) Henry David
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) John Ruskin

Q.11: In which year was the book ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ published?
(A) 1930
(B) 1932
(C) 1934
(D) 1936

Q.12: Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom from Fear’?
(A) Benazir Bhutto
(B) Corazon Aquino
(C) Aung San Suu Kyi
(D) Nayantara Sahgal

Q.13: Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty-Four’?
(A) J.M. Barrie
(B) Walter Scott
(C) George Orwell
(D) Thomas Hardy

Q.14: Who wrote ‘Mein Kampf’?
(A) Hitler
(B) Mussolini
(C) Bismarck
(D) Mazzini

Q.15: Who is the author of the book ‘The Life Divine’?
(A) M.K. Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Sri Aurobindo

Q.16: Who wrote ‘Das Kapital’?
(A) Asian Drama
(B) Emma
(C) Das Kapital
(D) The Good Earth

Q.17: Who wrote ‘Meghaduta’?
(A) Humayun Kabir
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) Banabhatta
(D) Kalidasa

Q.18: Which of the following is a famous English author?
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Mahadevi Verma
(C) Ashapoorna Devi
(D) Mulk Raj Anand

Q.19: Who wrote ‘Indica’?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Aryabhata
(D) Seleucus

Q.20: In which author’s book is the character ‘Rusty’ found?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Ruskin Bond
(C) R.K. Laxman
(D) Rabindranath Tagore

Q.21: Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’?
(A) Lamarck
(B) Buffon
(C) Darwin
(D) Linnaeus

Q.22: Who wrote the book ‘Narendra Modi: A Political Biography’?
(A) Andy Marino
(B) David Irving
(C) Jeffrey Dale
(D) Kingsley Amis

Q.23: Who is the author of ‘A Suitable Boy’?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) None of these

Q.24: Which of the following books was not written by Jawaharlal Nehru?
(A) Discovery of India
(B) My Experiments with Truth
(C) An Autobiography
(D) Glimpses of World History

Q.25: Who wrote the book ‘The Hindus: An Alternative History’?
(A) Shobhaa De
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Wendy Doniger
(D) Salman Rushdie

Q.26: Who wrote ‘The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian’?
(A) R.K. Narayan
(B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
(C) R.K. Laxman
(D) Rajmohan Gandhi

Q.27: Who is the author of ‘India of My Dreams’?
(A) J.B. Kripalani
(B) M.K. Gandhi
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.28: Who is the author of ‘Arthashastra’?
(A) Chandragupta
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Chanakya
(D) Seleucus Nicator

Q.29: Who wrote the book ‘Beyond the Lines: An Autobiography’?
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) General J.J. Singh
(C) Kuldip Nayar
(D) Ray Bradbury

Q.30: Who is the author of ‘Harsha Charitra’?
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Amarasimha
(C) Kalidasa
(D) Harisena

Q.31: Who wrote the book ‘Employment, Interest, and Money’?
(A) J.M. Keynes
(B) A. Marshall
(C) D. Patinkin
(D) A. Smith

Q.32: Who wrote the famous play ‘Nil Darpan’, depicting the atrocities of British indigo planters?
(A) Premchand
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Dinabandhu Mitra
(D) Subramania Bharati

Q.33: Who wrote ‘One Straw Revolution’?
(A) Rachel Carson
(B) M.S. Swaminathan
(C) Norman Borlaug
(D) Masanobu Fukuoka

Q.34: Who wrote ‘Natyashastra’?
(A) Bharat Muni
(B) Narad Muni
(C) Jandu Muni
(D) Vyas Muni

Q.35: Who is the author of the book ‘A Cricketing Life’?

(A) Christopher Martin Jenkins
(B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Tony Greig

Q.36: Which of the following works was Salman Rushdie’s first novel?
(A) Shame
(B) Midnight’s Children
(C) The Satanic Verses
(D) The Moor’s Last Sigh

Q.37: Which film directed by Satyajit Ray is based on Rabindranath Tagore’s story ‘Nastanirh’?
(A) Aparajito
(B) Charulata
(C) Pather Panchali
(D) Apur Sansar

Q.38: Which of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan?
(A) Malgudi Days
(B) Swami and Friends
(C) The Guide
(D) The Gardener

Q.39: Which literary work was written by Krishna Devaraya?
(A) Kavirajamarga
(B) Ushaparinayam
(C) Amuktamalyada
(D) Kathasaritsagara

Q.40: Who is the author of the book ‘The State of the Nation’?
(A) Mark Tully
(B) Vinod Mehta
(C) Kuldip Nayar
(D) Fali S. Nariman

Q.41: Who wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’?
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Rajmohan Gandhi
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) R.K. Karanjia

Q.42: Who is the author of the famous book ‘A Better India: A Better World’?
(A) Azim Premji
(B) Rajiv Sikri
(C) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(D) Prema Mahajan

Q.43: Who wrote the book ‘The Satanic Verses’?
(A) Agatha Christie
(B) Gunnar Myrdal
(C) Gabriela Sabatini
(D) Salman Rushdie

Q.44: Which of the following books was written by Atiq Rahimi?
(A) Earth and Ashes
(B) This Savage Rite
(C) The Red Devil
(D) Witness the Night

Q.45: ‘Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India’ was recently in the news and banned in some Indian states including Gujarat. Who is the author of this book?
(A) Joseph Lelyveld
(B) Michael Ondaatje
(C) Jack Welch
(D) Duncan Green

Q.46: Who is the author of the book ‘The Zigzag Way’?
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Salman Sodhi
(C) Jahnavi Barua
(D) Lisa Genova

Q.47: Who wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence’?

(A) Krishna Varma
(B) Madam Cama
(C) B.G. Tilak
(D) V.D. Savarkar

Q.48: Who wrote the Sanskrit grammar?
(A) Kalidasa
(B) Charaka
(C) Panini
(D) Aryabhata

Q.49: Which of the following famous books is related to Austin?
(A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
(B) Leviathan
(C) The Social Contract
(D) The Problem of Sovereignty

Q.50: Who is the author of the book ‘India Wins Freedom’?
(A) Kuldip Nayar
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Indira Gandhi

Important Indian Art and Culture MCQ Questions for competitive exams. General Knowledge MCQs in English for the preparation of UPSC, SSC and all Govt jobs competitive exams.

Art and Culture MCQs

Q.1: Papeti is a festival of which religion?
(a) Parsi
(b) Jain
(c) Sikh
(d) Buddhist

Q.2: Which of the following is a famous Assamese festival?
(a) Makar Sankranti
(b) Yugadi
(c) Onam
(d) Rongali Bihu

Q.3: The most popular festival in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Gudi Padwa
(b) Onam
(c) Bihu
(d) Pongal

Q.4: Which of the following languages has been granted the status of a classical language by the Central Government?
(a) Gujarati
(b) Tamil
(c) Marathi
(d) Malayalam

Q.5: Who initiated the famous Persian festival Nowruz?
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Firoz Tughlaq
(d) Balban

Q.6: Ganesh Chaturthi is celebrated with great enthusiasm in which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Q.7: Where is the ‘Pushkar Fair’ held?
(a) Jodhpur
(b) Ajmer
(c) Jaipur
(d) Udaipur

Q.8: What language is spoken by the people of Lakshadweep?
(a) Malayalam
(b) Tamil
(c) Kannada
(d) Telugu

Q.9: The folk painting style ‘Madhubani’ is popular in which of the following states of India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

Q.10: The Lalit Kala Akademi is dedicated to promoting:
(a) Fine Arts
(b) Literature
(c) Music
(d) Dance and Drama

Q.11: Who was the painter of the famous painting ‘Bharat Mata’?
(a) Gaganendranath Tagore
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Nandalal Bose
(d) Jamini Roy

Q.12: The birthplace of the distinguished personality Amrita Sher-Gil is:
(a) Hungary
(b) India
(c) Austria
(d) Poland

Q.13: Raja Ravi Varma from Kerala was a distinguished:
(a) Dancer
(b) Painter
(c) Poet
(d) Singer

Q.14: Jamini Roy made a name for himself in which field?
(a) Badminton
(b) Painting
(c) Theater
(d) Sculpture

Q.15: Who painted the masterpiece ‘Hamsa Damayanti’?
(a) Anjolie Ela Menon
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Amrita Sher-Gil
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.16: In which field did Prodosh Dasgupta distinguish himself?
(a) Sculpture
(b) Painting
(c) Instrumental Music
(d) Hindustani Vocal Music

Q.17: Who was the founder of the Bengal School of Art?
(a) Nandalal Bose
(b) B.C. Sanyal
(c) Jamini Roy
(d) Abanindranath Tagore

Q.18: Rajasthani and Pahari art styles are famous for:
(a) Music
(b) Dance
(c) Sculpture
(d) Painting

Q.19: In which state is the folk painting ‘Madhubani’ popular?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
(c) Bihar
(d) Assam

Q.20: During which period did the Gandhara art develop?
(a) Gupta
(b) Maurya
(c) Satavahana
(d) Kushan

Q.21: What do the paintings of Ajanta depict?
(a) Ramayana
(b) Mahabharata
(c) Jataka
(d) Panchatantra

Q.22: Where did the miniature painting of Indian heritage develop?
(a) Guler
(b) Mewar
(c) Bundi
(d) Kishangarh

Q.23: In which field did Jamini Roy earn fame?
(a) Sculpture
(b) Music
(c) Painting
(d) Drama

Q.24: Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh, was a citizen of which country?
(a) Netherlands
(b) Portugal
(c) UK
(d) France

Q.25: Who among the following is famous in the field of painting?
(a) Parveen Sultana
(b) Prof. T.N. Krishnan
(c) Ramkinkar
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.26: Who among the following is famous in the field of sculpture?
(a) Manjit Bawa
(b) Saroja Vaidyanathan
(c) Ramkinkar
(d) Raja Ravi Varma

Q.27: Who among the following is a renowned painter?
(a) Amrita Sher-Gil
(b) N Rajam
(c) Kamla Dasgupta
(d) U Srinivas

Q.28: Which of the following Sikh heritage sites is not in India?
(a) Nanded
(b) Kesgarh Sahib
(c) Paonta Sahib
(d) Nankana Sahib

Q.29: The oldest form of Hindustani classical music composition is:
(a) Dhrupad
(b) Thumri
(c) Ghazal
(d) None of the above

Q.30: Raga Kameshwari was composed by:
(a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(b) None of the above
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar
(d) Uday Shankar

Q.31: The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is:
(a) Kuchipudi
(b) Odissi
(c) Bharatanatyam
(d) Kathakali

Q.32: Who directed the film based on the bandit queen Phoolan Devi?
(a) Abbas-Mustan
(b) Shashi Kapoor
(c) Shekhar Kapur
(d) Anil Kapoor

Q.33: Which of the following is a folk dance of India?
(a) Mohiniyattam
(b) Kathakali
(c) Manipuri
(d) Garba

Q.34: What was the first Indian talkie film?
(a) Kisan Kanya
(b) Raja Harishchandra
(c) Bharat Mata
(d) Alam Ara

Q.35: Hariprasad Chaurasia is a renowned player of:
(a) Shehnai
(b) Tabla
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.36: The Kathakali dance form is associated with which state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Manipur
(d) Kerala

Q.37: The religious text of the Jewish people is:
(a) Analects
(b) Torah
(c) Tripitaka
(d) Zend-Avesta

Q.38: Shiv Kumar Sharma is famous for playing which instrument?
(a) Santoor
(b) Sitar
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.39: The great Indian maestro Ustad Bismillah Khan is associated with:
(a) Shehnai
(b) Tabla
(c) Sarod
(d) Flute

Q.40: What is the name of the famous folk theatre of the Bhils?
(a) Gawarl
(b) Swang
(c) Tamasha
(d) Rammat

Q.41: Sanjukta Panigrahi was famous for which dance?
(a) Bharatanatyam
(b) Kathak
(c) Manipuri
(d) Odissi

---

Q.42: Kathakali classical dance originated from:
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

---

Q.43: ‘Bhangra’ is a dance form of:
(a) Haryana
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Punjab

---

Q.44: ‘Dandiya’ is a popular dance of:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Assam
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Maharashtra

---

Q.45: ‘Sattriya Dance’ was recognized as a classical dance of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi only in 2000. It originated from:
(a) Assam
(b) Karnataka
(c) Gujarat
(d) Tripura

---

Q.46: In which of the following films did Pran act as a character artist instead of a villain?
(a) Ram Aur Shyam
(b) Zanjeer
(c) Madhumati
(d) Himalay Ki God Mein

---

Q.47: Which of the following films was not directed by Satyajit Ray?

(a) Aparajito
(b) Charulata
(c) Pather Panchali
(d) Salaam Bombay

---

Q.48: Nautanki is a folk dance of which state?
(a) Haryana
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat

---

Q.49: Guru Gopinath was a proponent of:
(a) Kathak
(b) Kathakali
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Bharatanatyam

---

Q.50: Satyajit Ray was associated with which of the following?
(a) Classical Dance
(b) Journalism
(c) Classical Music
(d) Film Direction

History of Modern India MCQ questions for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from the previous year exam question paper of SSC, UPSSSC and other govt jobs examinations.

Modern Indian History MCQs

European Companies

Q.1 What is the name of the fort built by the British in Calcutta?
a) Fort St. David
b) Fort St. Andrew
c) Fort William
d) Fort Victoria

Q.2 Which was the first trading center established by the British?
a) Calcutta
b) Surat
c) Madras
d) Bombay

Q.3 Which of the following is not a French settlement in India?
a) Pondicherry
b) Mahe
c) Goa
d) Chandernagore

Q.4 In 1651, where did the Mughal rulers allow the East India Company to trade and build a factory in Bengal?
a) Calcutta
b) Kasim Bazar
c) Singur
d) Bardhaman

Q.5 Who introduced the cultivation of potatoes in India?
a) The British
b) The Dutch
c) The Portuguese
d) The French

Q.6 Which of the following was the main headquarters of the Portuguese in India?
a) Cochin
b) Goa
c) Calicut
d) Kannur

Q.7 When was the French East India Company founded?
a) 1600 AD
b) 1620 AD
c) 1664 AD
d) 1604 AD

Q.8 Which European nation was the first to establish and influence trade in India?
a) British
b) French
c) Dutch
d) Portuguese

Q.9 Who discovered the sea route to India via the Cape of Good Hope?
a) Vasco da Gama
b) Amundsen
c) Christopher Columbus
d) John Cabot

Q.10 Who was the greatest Portuguese governor who laid the real foundation of Portuguese power in India?
a) Almeida
b) Francis Drake
c) Albuquerque
d) Vasco da Gama

Regional State

Q.11 Which of the following treaties did Tipu Sultan sign with the British to end the Third Anglo-Mysore War?
a) Treaty of Mangalore
b) Treaty of Srirangapatnam
c) Treaty of Mysore
d) Treaty of Bidnur

Q.12 Who founded the ‘Khalsa’?
a) Guru Gobind Singh
b) Guru Ramdas
c) Guru Nanak
d) Arjun Dev

Q.13 The Baisakhi festival of 1999 holds special historical significance for Punjab because –
a) It marks the 300th anniversary of the founding of the Khalsa
b) It is the last festival of the 20th century
c) A large number of non-resident Indians are participating
d) None of the above

Q.14 Who initiated the military sect of Sikhs known as ‘Khalsa’?
a) Har Rai
b) Har Kishan
c) Gobind Singh
d) Tegh Bahadur

Q.15 Where was Guru Nanak born?
a) Gurdaspur
b) Amritsar
c) Lahore
d) Talwandi

Q.16 Lahore was Ranjit Singh’s political capital. Which city was known as his religious capital?
a) Amritsar
b) Anandpur Sahib
c) Gujranwala
d) Peshawar

Q.17 Which Governor-General greeted Ranjit Singh with great honor at Ropar?
a) Minto I
b) William Bentinck
c) Hastings
d) Auckland

Q.18 Which Mughal emperor among the following overthrew the Sayyid Brothers?
a) Bahadur Shah I
b) Rafi-ud-Daulah
c) Shah Jahan II
d) Muhammad Shah

Q.19 In which of the following battles did Nadir Shah defeat Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah?
a) Delhi
b) Karnal
c) Panipat
d) Kanpur

Q.20 Which Governor fought against Tipu Sultan in the Third Mysore War?
a) Lord Wellesley
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord Cornwallis
d) Lord Wellington

Q.21 In which year did the British annex Punjab?
a) 1828
b) 1831
c) 1849
d) 1856

Q.22 Who among the following was the Portuguese who captured Goa?
a) Francisco de Almeida
b) Afonso de Albuquerque
c) Vasco da Gama
d) Roberto de Nobili

Q.23 Which of the following countries was Indonesia a colony of?
a) Dutch
b) Spain
c) Portugal
d) Belgium

Q.24 In which of the following battles did the British completely defeat the French?
a) Battle of Wandiwash
b) Battle of Buxar
c) Battle of Plassey
d) Battle of Adyar

Cultural and Social Reform Movements

Q.25 Arya Samaj is against which of the following?
a) The existence of God
b) Religious rituals and idol worship
c) Hinduism
d) Islam

Q.26 Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission?
a) Vivekananda
b) Ramakrishna
c) M.G. Ranade
d) Keshavchandra Sen

Q.27 Who was the first to propose the concept of Basic Education?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Dayanand Saraswati

Q.28 Who founded the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh?
a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
b) Muhammad Ali
c) Shaukat Ali
d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

Q.29 Who is called the ‘Prophet of New India’?
a) Dayanand Saraswati
b) Sri Ramakrishna
c) Raja Rammohan Roy
d) Swami Vivekananda

Q.30 Who among the following was a pioneer in social reform movements in 19th century India?
a) Aurobindo Ghosh
b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Devendranath Tagore
d) Keshavchandra Sen

Q.31 Who was the founder of ‘Prarthana Samaj’?
a) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
b) Swami Vivekananda
c) Atmaram Pandurang
d) Dayanand Saraswati

Q.32 Whose main efforts led to the abolition of the Sati practice?
a) British Viceroy
b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Religious preachers
d) Maharshi Karve

Q.33 Raja Rammohan Roy organized a historic movement against which of the following?
a) Caste system
b) The evil practice of Sati
c) The degrading status of women in society
d) Following unnecessary religious rituals

Q.34 Why did Gandhi oppose the Communal Award, and what was the reason behind it?
a) Communal bias
b) It would create differences within Hindu society
c) Economic deterioration of India
d) Destruction of handicrafts

Q.35 Which among the following was the first commission to focus on primary and secondary education in India?
a) Macaulay Commission
b) Charles Commission
c) Hunter Commission
d) Bentinck Commission

Q.36 ‘Sarvodaya’ means:
a) Complete revolution
b) Non-cooperation
c) Upliftment of all
d) Non-violence

Q.37 Who was the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal (established in 1784)?
a) Warren Hastings
b) Sir William Jones
c) Sir James Mackintosh
d) James Prinsep

Q.38 The 19th-century Indian Renaissance was limited to which of the following classes?
a) Royal class
b) Upper middle class
c) Wealthy farmers
d) Urban landlords (landowners)

Q.39 The Indian Universities Act of 1904 was passed under the dominion of which Viceroy?
a) Lord Lytton
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Ripon
d) Lord Hardinge-I

Nicknames, Statements, and Books

Q.40 Who composed Gandhiji’s favorite song “Vaishnav Jan To…”?
a) Narsi Mehta
b) Premanand
c) Chunilal
d) Dharmik Lal

Q.41 Who is the author of the book “The Indian War of Independence”?
a) Krishna Varma
b) Madal Kamma
c) B.G. Tilak
d) V.D. Savarkar

Q.42 Who developed the idea that “means justify the ends”?
a) Kautilya
b) Raja Rammohan Roy
c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
d) Mahatma Gandhi

Q.43 Who is referred to as the ‘Nightingale of India’?
a) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
b) Sarojini Naidu
c) Aruna Asaf Ali
d) Sucheta Kriplani

Q.44 Who is known as the ‘Bismarck of India’?
a) Vallabhbhai Patel
b) Subhas Chandra Bose
c) Bhagat Singh
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.45 Who first estimated the national income of India?
a) Mahalanobis
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) V.K.R.V. Rao
d) Sardar Patel

Q.46 Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons?
a) Lord Sinha
b) S.N. Tagore
c) W.C. Banerjee
d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Q.47 Who propounded the theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ from India to Britain?
a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) Surendranath Banerjee
d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Q.48 Gandhi is considered as –
a) Philosophical Anarchist
b) Original Anarchist
c) Marxist
d) Fabian

Q.49 Who is the author of the book ‘Anandmath’?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
c) Sarojini Naidu
d) Sri Aurobindo

Q.50 Who referred to Mahatma Gandhi as the “Half-naked Fakir”?
a) Winston Churchill
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) Lord Wavell
d) Lord Linlithgow

Q.51 During which movement did Gandhi give the slogan “Do or Die” to the nation?
a) Rowlatt Satyagraha
b) Salt Satyagraha
c) Quit India Movement
d) Non-Cooperation Movement

Q.52 Who gave the famous slogan “Do or Die”?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Vallabhbhai Patel
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Rajiv Gandhi

Q.53 Who called for a return to the Vedas?
a) Swami Vivekananda
b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
c) Aurobindo Ghosh
d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Q.54 Who was the first European to translate the Bhagavad Gita into English?
a) Sir Alexander Cunningham
b) William Jones
c) Charles Wilkins
d) James Prinsep

Q.55 Who compiled the holy book of the Sikhs, the ‘Adi Granth’?
a) Guru Tegh Bahadur
b) Guru Nanak
c) Guru Arjun Dev
d) Guru Angad

Q.56 What was the main goal of Jyotiba Phule’s ‘Satyashodhak Samaj’ in the last century?
a) To protect lower castes from the exploitative Brahmins and their opportunistic religious texts
b) To attack the caste system
c) To lead the anti-landlord and anti-moneylender rebellion in Satara
d) To demand separate representation for untouchables

Q.57 After the Urdu weekly ‘Al-Hilal’ started by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad in 1912 was banned by the government, when did he establish ‘Al-Balagh’?
a) In 1913
b) In 1914
c) In 1915
d) In 1916

Q.58 Who is associated with the title ‘Deshbandhu’?
a) B.R. Ambedkar
b) C.R. Das
c) V.C. Pal
d) Rabindranath Tagore

Q.59 Whose famous statement is “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it”?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Bhagat Singh
c) Lokmanya Tilak
d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.60 Who was the editor of ‘Young India’ and ‘Harijan’?
a) Nehru
b) Ambedkar
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Subhas Chandra Bose

Q.61 Who composed the famous national song ‘Vande Mataram’?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
d) Surendranath Bandopadhyay

Q.62 Who is associated with the title “Frontier Gandhi”?
a) Mohandas K. Gandhi
b) Abdul Wali Khan
c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Q.63 Who is famously known as the “Lady with the Lamp”?
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Florence Nightingale
c) Indira Gandhi
d) Mayawati

Q.64 Who wrote the patriotic song “Sare Jahan Se Achha”?
a) Mohammad Iqbal
b) Bahadur Shah Zafar
c) Amir Khusro
d) Mirza Ghalib

Q.65 Which of the following works is not associated with Mahatma Gandhi?
a) My Experiments with Truth
b) Harijan
c) The Holy Family
d) Hind Swaraj

Q.66 What was the name of the first newspaper published in India?
a) The Calcutta Chronicle
b) The Calcutta Gazette
c) The Oriental Magazine of Calcutta
d) The Bengal Gazette

Q.67 Who said, “Give me blood, and I will give you freedom”?
a) Subhas Chandra Bose
b) Lala Lajpat Rai
c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q.68 Match the following:

(A) Abdul Ghaffar Khan	1. Mahatma
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji	2. Frontier Gandhi
(C) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi	3. Grand Old Man of India
(D) Rabindranath Tagore	4. Gurudev

a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Q.69 Under what name was the song ‘Jana Gana Mana,’ written by Rabindranath Tagore, first published in January 1912?
a) Rashtra Jagriti
b) Tatva Bodhini
c) Bharat Bhagya Vidhata
d) None of the above

Revolutionary Activities: History of Modern India MCQ

Q.70 Which of the following revolutionaries was sentenced to death by the British?
a) Jatin Das
b) Chandrashekhar Azad
c) Rajguru
d) Kalpana Dutt

Q.71 Who was the author of the play ‘Neel Darpan,’ which depicted the revolt of indigo farmers?
a) Dinabandhu Mitra
b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) Nabin Chandra Sen

Q.72 Which of the following novels became a source of inspiration for Indian freedom fighters?
a) Pariksha Guru
b) Anandamath
c) Rangbhoomi
d) Padmarag

Q.73 Who was the leader of the armed attack on the Chittagong government armory in 1930?
a) Chandrashekhar Azad
b) Bhagat Singh
c) Surya Sen
d) Sukhdev

Q.74 Which of the following British personalities acknowledged that the revolt of 1857 was a national uprising?
a) Lord Dalhousie
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Ellenborough
d) Disraeli

Q.75 Where is ‘India House’ located?
a) New Delhi
b) Kolkata
c) London
d) New York

Q.76 Against whom was the Lahore Conspiracy Case registered?
a) V.D. Savarkar
b) Bhagat Singh
c) Chandrashekhar Azad
d) Aurobindo Ghosh

Q.77 Who was a prominent leader of the Ghadar Party?
a) P. Mitra
b) Lala Har Dayal
c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d) Bipin Chandra Pal

Q.78 Har Dayal, a great intellectual, was associated with:
a) Home Rule Movement
b) Ghadar Movement
c) Swadeshi Movement
d) Non-Cooperation Movement

Q.79 Who founded the Indian National Party in Berlin in 1914?
a) Subhash Chandra Bose
b) W.C. Bonnerjee
c) Surendranath Banerjee
d) Champakaraman Pillai

Q.80 In which region was Birsa Munda’s movement against the British taking place?
a) Punjab
b) Chota Nagpur
c) Terai
d) Manipur

1857 Revolution

Q.81 Who among the following leaders was the first to sacrifice his life in 1857?
a) Kunwar Singh
b) Tatya Tope
c) Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi
d) Mangal Pandey

Q.82 When did the British government start directly ruling India?
a) After the Battle of Plassey
b) After the Battle of Panipat
c) After the Mysore Wars
d) After the Sepoy Mutiny

Q.83 The administrative outcome of the 1857 rebellion was the transfer of power from:
a) East India Company to the British Crown
b) British Crown to the East India Company
c) East India Company to the Governor-General
d) British Crown to the Board of Directors

Q.84 Who was the Governor-General of India during the 1857 rebellion?
a) Lord Dalhousie
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Mayo
d) Lord Ripon

Q.85 Arrange the following places where the 1857 rebellion took place in the correct order:
1)Jhansi
2)Meerut
3)Delhi
4)Barrackpore
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4, 3
c) 2, 3, 4, 1
d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Q.86 Who among the following advocated reconciliation between the British and Muslims while analyzing the causes of the 1857 revolt?
a) Syed Ahmad Barelvi
b) Shah Waliullah
c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
d) Syed Amir Ali

Q.87 Who led the 1857 rebellion in Lucknow?
a) Kunwar Singh
b) Tatya Tope
c) Rani Lakshmibai
d) Hazrat Mahal

Q.88 Where was the royal court held on 1st November 1858 to issue the Queen’s Proclamation?
a) Lucknow
b) Kanpur
c) Delhi
d) Allahabad

Q.89 What was Nana Sahib’s second name?
a) Ramchandra Panduranga
b) Dhondu Pant
c) Tatya Tope
d) Kunwar Singh

Q.90 Which of the following events inspired the British monarch to take control of Indian administration?
a) Battle of Plassey
b) Battle of Buxar
c) Violent War
d) Sepoy Mutiny

Governor General

Q.91 Who attended the Imperial Durbar of 1877 wearing hand-spun Khadi clothes?
a) M.K. Gandhi
b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c) Bipin Chandra Pal
d) G.V. Joshi

Q.92 Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal?
a) Clive
b) Hastings
c) Wellesley
d) Cornwallis

Q.93 Who introduced the ‘Ryotwari System’ in the then Madras Presidency during British rule?
a) Macartney
b) Elphinstone
c) Thomas Munro
d) John Lawrence

Q.94 Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal?
a) Lord Clive
b) Warren Hastings
c) Lord John Shore
d) Lord Cornwallis

Q.95 Why did the British introduce railways in India?
a) To promote heavy industries in India
b) To facilitate British commerce and administrative control
c) To transport food grains during famines
d) So that Indians could travel freely within the country

Q.96 In which year was the first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra opened?
a) 1852
b) 1853
c) 1854
d) 1855

Q.97 Which Indian state was not annexed by the “Doctrine of Lapse”?
a) Satara
b) Nagpur
c) Jhansi
d) Punjab

Q.98 Who was the first Indian selected for the Indian Civil Service?
a) Satyendranath Tagore
b) Sarojini Naidu
c) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) C.R. Das

Q.99 Which Governor introduced civil services in India for the first time?
a) Lord Cornwallis
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord Wellesley
d) Lord Hastings

Q.100 Match the following:

(A) Lord Clive	1. Subsidiary Alliance
(B) Lord Wellesley	2. Indian Universities Act
(C) Lord Dalhousie	3. Doctrine of Lapse
(D) Lord Curzon	4. Dual Government in Bengal

      A   B    C   D
a)    2   3    4   1
b)    4   1    3   2
c)    4   3    2   1
d)    1   4    2   3

Q.101 Who was the first Viceroy of India?
a) Lord Cornwallis
b) Pitt
c) Lord Canning
d) Robert Clive

Q.103 Who was the last Viceroy of India?
a) Lord Linlithgow
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) Lord Wavell
d) Clement Attlee

Q.104 Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
a) Lord Attlee
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) C. Rajagopalachari
d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q.105 Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) S. Radhakrishnan
c) Lord Mountbatten
d) Lord Wavell

Q.106 During which Governor-General’s tenure was the Indian National Congress formed?
a) Lord Ripon
b) William Bentinck
c) Lord Dufferin
d) Lord Curzon

Q.107 Which of the following can be considered Lord Curzon’s most useful and important reform, especially concerning the people of undivided Punjab province?
a) Educational reforms
b) Police reforms
c) Industrial reforms
d) Agricultural reforms

Q.108 Which British Viceroy is associated with the partition of Bengal?
a) Lord Canning
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Lord Wellesley

Q.109 During Lord Curzon’s viceroyalty, which of the following events did not occur? a) Partition of Bengal
b) Establishment of the Archaeological Department
c) Second Delhi Durbar
d) Formation of the Indian National Congress

Q.110 Who is referred to as the “Father of Local Self-Government” in India?
a) Lord Ripon
b) Lord Hardinge
c) Lord Dalhousie
d) Lord Lytton

Constitutional Development

Q.111 Under the ‘Pitt’s India Act,’ which of the following was established?
a) Foreigners’ Court
b) Board of Control
c) Board of Revenue
d) Permanent Council

Q.112 Which Charter Act ended the East India Company’s trade monopoly with China? a) Charter Act, 1793
b) Charter Act, 1813
c) Charter Act, 1833
d) Charter Act, 1853

Q.113 In India, who introduced the system of communal electorates?
a) Indian Councils Act of 1892
b) Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909
c) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919
d) Government of India Act, 1935

Q.114 The popular name of the Indian Councils Act of 1909 is:
a) Parliament Act
b) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
c) Minto-Morley Reforms
d) Judiciary Act

Q.115 Which Act’s important feature was provincial autonomy?
a) 1935
b) 1919
c) 1909
d) 1858

Q.116 Who introduced the concept of ‘Dyarchy’ in the 1919 Act?
a) Montagu
b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
c) Lionel Curtis
d) Chelmsford

Q.117 Who inaugurated the Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal) in 1921?
a) Lord Curzon
b) Lord Wellesley
c) Duke of Connaught
d) Duke of Wellington

Q.118 During whose tenure was the Rowlatt Act of 1919 implemented? a) Lord Chelmsford
b) Lord William
c) Lord Minto
d) Lord Bentinck

Q.119 The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on:
a) Simon Commission
b) Lord Curzon Commission
c) Dimitrov Thesis
d) Lord Clive’s Report

Economic Condition

Q.120 Who was the President of the Indian National Congress during 1940-46?
a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Maulana Azad

Q.121 Which system relates to the Ryotwari system of land tenure?
a) The ryot is the landowner who pays land revenue directly to the government for the land he occupies.
b) The ryot is a tenant farmer who pays land revenue to the landlord.
c) The person cultivates the land leased by the landlord and pays rent to the landlord.
d) The land is collectively owned and cultivated on a cooperative basis.

Q.122 Who benefitted the most from the British land revenue system in India?
a) Sharecroppers
b) Farmers
c) Zamindars
d) Agricultural laborers

National Movement : History of Modern India MCQs

Q.123 What was the aim of Gandhiji’s movement to boycott foreign goods?
a) Complete independence
b) To create anti-British sentiment
c) To promote a welfare state
d) To encourage cottage industries

Q.124 What was meant by ‘Secretary of State for India’ during British rule?
a) The officer who worked like the secretary of the Viceroy of India
b) A secretary-level officer appointed for each presidency region of India
c) A British minister under whose control the Government of India worked
d) A senior officer appointed by the Viceroy to oversee the internal administration of India

Q.125 Which of the following are the most important teachings of Gandhiji?
1. Truth
2. Non-violence
3. Religion
4. Satyagraha
a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 2 and 4
c) Only 1 and 2
d) Only 1, 2, and 3

Q.126 Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party?
1. Motilal Nehru
2. Sardar Patel
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, and 3

Q.127 C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ after-
a) The Swadeshi Movement
b) The Non-cooperation Movement
c) The Civil Disobedience Movement
d) The Quit India Movement

Q.128 In which zodiac sign was Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru born?
a) Leo
b) Capricorn
c) Taurus
d) Scorpio

Q.129 Who represented the Indian National Congress at the Congress of Oppressed Nationalities in Brussels in 1927?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Dr. Ansari
d) Motilal Nehru

Q.130 Who was the first woman president of the Indian National Congress?
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Bhikaiji Cama
c) Annie Besant
d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit