Indian Geography MCQ Questions for Competitive Exams in English Medium. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free practice of upcoming exams.
Indian Geography MCQ
Q.1: Which hill station’s name means ‘place of the thunderbolt’?
Neighbouring Countries of India MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.
Neighbouring Countries of India MCQs
Question 1: With how many countries does India share its borders in total?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8
Answer
Answer: C) 7
Explanation: India shares its borders with a total of 7 countries. These countries are:
Question 2: What type of border exists between India and Sri Lanka?
A) Land border B) Sea border C) Border formed by rivers D) Border formed by mountains
Answer
Answer: B) Sea border
Explanation: The border between India and Sri Lanka is a sea border. There is a maritime boundary in the sea between the two countries, defined by a sea border between the islands of ‘Daman and Nicobar’ and Sri Lanka. The major points of this border are known as ‘Adam’s Bridge’ or ‘Ram Setu’, which indicate the sea route between India and Sri Lanka.
Question 3: Which neighboring country is located in the northwest of India?
A) Nepal B) Bhutan C) Pakistan D) Myanmar
Answer
Answer: C) Pakistan
Explanation: Pakistan is located in the northwest of India and shares its western border with India.
Question 4: In which direction is the border between India and Bangladesh located?
A) North B) South C) East D) West
Answer
Answer: C) East
Explanation: The border between India and Bangladesh is in the east. Bangladesh is located to the east of India.
Question 5: Which country is located in the north of India?
A) Bhutan B) Sri Lanka C) Bangladesh D) Myanmar
Answer
Answer: A) Bhutan
Explanation: Bhutan is located in the north of India. Bhutan’s border is in the north of India, while the borders of other countries are in different directions of India.
Question 6: What is the length of the border between India and Bhutan?
A) 699 kilometers B) 500 kilometers C) 400 kilometers D) 700 kilometers
Answer
Answer: A) 699 kilometers
Explanation: The length of the border between India and Bhutan is approximately 600 kilometers.
Question 7: What is the total length of India’s land border?
A) 15,200 kilometers B) 14,800 kilometers C) 15,700 kilometers D) 16,000 kilometers
Answer
Answer: A) 15,200 kilometers
Explanation: The length of its land borders is approximately 15,200 km. While the total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.
Question 8: What is the total length of the border between India and Bangladesh?
a) 4906 kilometers b) 5096 kilometers c) 7094 kilometers d) 6096 kilometers
Answer
Answer: a) 4906 kilometers
Explanation: Bangladesh and India share a 4,096 kilometer (2,545 mi) international border, which is the fifth-longest land border in the world.
Question 9: What type of border exists between India and Nepal?
A) Sea border B) International border C) Provincial border D) Border formed by rivers
Answer
Answer: B) International border
Explanation: The border between India and Nepal is an open international border that demarcates the boundaries of Nepal with various Indian states.
Question 10: What is the name of the major border line between India and Pakistan?
A) Durand Line B) Line of Actual Control (LoC) C) Raja Line D) Radcliffe Line
Answer
Answer: D) Radcliffe Line
Explanation: The major border line between India and Pakistan is called the “Radcliffe Line”. This line was drawn in 1947 by British official Sir Cyril John Radcliffe during the partition of India and Pakistan. It defines the international border between India and Pakistan.
Question 11: The border of Afghanistan touches which one Union Territory of India?
a) Ladakh b) Jammu and Kashmir c) Himachal Pradesh d) Uttarakhand
Answer
Answer: A) Ladakh
Explanation: The border of Afghanistan touches only the Union Territory of Ladakh in India. A small part of Ladakh, commonly known as the Wakhan Corridor, borders Afghanistan. There is no direct border post or line of control in this area, but geographically, the border meets here.
Question 12: Which state does not share a border with Nepal?
a) Bihar
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Sikkim
d) Assam
Answer
Answer: d) Assam
Explanation: Assam does not share its border with Nepal. The border between India and Nepal is an open international border between India and Nepal.
Question 13: Which is the smallest neighboring country of India in terms of area?
a) Bhutan b) China
c) Sikkim
d) Assam
Answer
Answer: a) Bhutan
Explanation: Bhutan is the smallest among India’s neighboring countries.
Question 14: The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states of India?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8
Answer
Answer: B) 8
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through a total of eight states of India (Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram).
Question 15: At which latitude is the Equator located?
A) 0° B) 23.5° North C) 23.5° South D) 45°
Answer
Answer: A) 0°
Explanation: The Equator divides the Earth into the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere, and its latitude is zero degrees (0°).
Question 16: Which hemisphere is located to the north of the Equator?
a) Southern Hemisphere b) Northern Hemisphere c) Arctic Hemisphere d) Antarctic Hemisphere
Answer
Answer: B) Northern Hemisphere
Explanation: The Northern Hemisphere is to the north of the Equator, and the Southern Hemisphere is to the south.
Question 17: At which latitude is the Tropic of Cancer located?
A) 20° North B) 23.5° North C) 25° North D) 30° North
Answer
Answer: B) 23.5° North
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer is located at 23.5° North latitude and is a major line of latitude in the Northern Hemisphere.
Question 18: Which countries are located to the east of India?
a) Nepal and Bhutan b) Pakistan and Afghanistan c) Bangladesh and Myanmar d) Sri Lanka and Maldives
Answer
Answer: C) Bangladesh and Myanmar
Explanation: Bangladesh and Myanmar are located to the east of India. Bangladesh is situated on India’s eastern border, and Myanmar is also located in India’s northeast direction.
Question 19: Which state of India is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides?
a) Maharashtra b) Kathmandu c) Chennai d) Tripura
Answer
Answer: d) Tripura
Explanation: Tripura is situated between the river valleys of Bangladesh and Myanmar. It is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides and is connected to Assam and Mizoram only in the northeast.
Question 20: What was the old name of Myanmar?
a) Sri Lanka b) Burma c) Yavadvipa d) Thailand
Answer
Answer: b) Burma
Explanation: In 1989, the official English name of the country was changed from the Union of Burma to the Union of Myanmar.
Question 21: By what name was Sri Lanka formerly known?
a) Siam b) Salisbury c) Ceylon d) Sandwich Islands
Answer
Answer: c) Ceylon
Explanation: Until 1972, its name was Ceylon, which was changed to Lanka in 1972, and in 1978, the honorific “Sri” was added before it, making it Sri Lanka.
Question 22: How many states of India are on the coast of the sea?
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
Answer
Answer: c) 9
Explanation: The Indian seacoast touches nine states – Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, and two Union Territories – Daman and Diu and Puducherry.
Question 23: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following states?
a) Odisha b) Gujarat c) Rajasthan d) West Bengal
Answer
Answer: a) Odisha
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through the state of Odisha.
Question 24: Which state of India does the Tropic of Cancer pass through?
a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Himachal Pradesh c) Bihar d) Jharkhand
Answer
Answer: d) Jharkhand
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer passes through several states of India, including Jharkhand.
Question 25: Which place is located closest to the Equator?
a) Cape Comorin b) Rameswaram c) Indira Point d) Indira Col
Answer
Answer: c) Indira Point
Explanation: Indira Point, located in the southern part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is the closest point to the Equator.
Question 26: Where is New Moore Island located?
a) Arabian Sea b) Bay of Bengal c) Gulf of Mannar d) Andaman Sea
Answer
Answer: b) Bay of Bengal
Explanation: New Moore Island is a submerged island located in the Bay of Bengal. This island is situated to the south of Bangladesh and to the east of West Bengal.
Question 27: Which water body separates India and Sri Lanka?
a) Great Channel b) Palk Strait c) 8 Degree Channel d) 10 Degree Channel
Answer
Answer: b) Palk Strait
Explanation: The Palk Strait is a strait located between the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Jaffna District of the Northern Province of Sri Lanka. This strait connects the Palk Bay in the northeast with the Gulf of Mannar in the southwest.
Question 28: Which line forms the border between India and China?
a) Radcliffe Line b) McMahon Line c) Durand Line d) Stateford Line
Answer
Answer: b) McMahon Line
Explanation: The McMahon Line marks the boundary between the Chinese-occupied and Indian-occupied regions of the eastern Himalayan region. This border line was the center and cause of the Sino-Indian War.
Question 29: India does not have a land international border with which country?
a) Pakistan b) Bangladesh c) Bhutan d) Sri Lanka
Answer
Answer: d) Sri Lanka
Explanation: India does not share a land international border with Sri Lanka.
Question 30: India has the shortest land border with which country?
a) Pakistan b) Nepal c) Myanmar d) Bhutan
Answer
Answer: d) Bhutan
Explanation: Bhutan, a Buddhist kingdom on the eastern edge of the Himalayas, is known for its monasteries, fortresses (or dzongs), and dramatic landscapes.
Question 31: Which place in India is currently known as ‘White Water’?
a) Leh b) Ladakh c) Kargil d) Siachen
Answer
Answer: d) Siachen
Explanation: Situated in rugged mountains, this place is always covered with snow, which is why it is also known as White Water.
Question 32: What is the area of India?
a) 3,257,405 sq km b) 3,268,276 sq km c) 3,287,263 sq km d) 3,287,679 sq km
Answer
Answer: c) 3,287,263 sq km
Explanation: The area of India is 3,287,263 sq km, stretching from the snow-capped Himalayas in the north to the equatorial rainforests in the south.
Question 33: In which hemisphere is India located?
a) Northern and Eastern b) Southern and Eastern c) Northern and Western d) Northern and Southern
Answer
Answer: a) Northern and Eastern
Explanation: It is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, between latitudes 8° 4′ and 37° 6′ north of the Equator, and longitudes 68° 7′ and 97° 25′ east.
Question 34: Which state was formerly known as NEFA?
a) Nagaland b) Manipur c) Arunachal Pradesh d) Assam
Answer
Answer: c) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: The North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA), originally known as the North-East Frontier Tracts (NEFT), was one of the political divisions1 in British India, and later the Republic of India until 20 January 1972, when it became2 a Union Territory. It comprised present-day Arunachal Pradesh and parts of Assam. Its administrative headquarters was Shillong (until 1974, when it was transferred to Itanagar). It attained statehood on 20 February 1987.
Question 35: Port Blair is located in?
a) North Andaman b) South Andaman c) Middle Andaman d) Little Andaman
Answer
Answer: b) South Andaman
Explanation: Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in South Andaman Island.
Question 36: The McMahon Line, which demarcates the border between India and China, is drawn on the northern border of which of the following provinces?
a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Uttar Pradesh c) Himachal Pradesh d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer
Answer: d) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: The McMahon Line defines the border between India and China, and this line is drawn on the northern border of Arunachal Pradesh.
Question 37: The only cold desert in India is?
a) Ladakh b) East Kameng c) Lachen d) Chamba
Answer
Answer: a) Ladakh
Explanation: Ladakh is the only cold desert in India, located in the Himalayas. It is not affected by monsoons as it lies in the rain shadow region of the Himalayas.
Question 38: Adam’s Bridge is located between which two countries?
a) India and Pakistan b) India and Bangladesh c) India and Sri Lanka d) India and Myanmar
Answer
Answer: c) India and Sri Lanka
Explanation: There is a chain of shoals in the shallows between the islands of Mannar, near northwestern Sri Lanka, and Rameswaram on the southeastern coast of India.
Uttarakhand General Knowledge (GK) Questions for Competitive Exams. Important questions from previous year exam question papers for practice.
Uttarakhand General Knowledge Questions
Question 1: In Uttarakhand, what is a ‘Doon’ called?
a) Structural valleys b) River valleys c) Alpine meadows d) Narrow valleys
Answer
Answer: d) Narrow valleys
Explanation: Doons are called narrow and longitudinal valleys. These valleys are found in the mountainous regions of the Himalayas. Examples include Kothari Doon, Dehradun, and Patli Doon.
Question 2: On which river is the Tehri Dam located?
a) Ganga b) Bhagirathi c) Yamuna d) Alaknanda
Answer
Answer: b) Bhagirathi
Explanation: The Tehri Dam is India’s highest and largest dam. It is built on the Bhagirathi River at a height of 260.5 meters. The Tehri Dam is the eighth largest dam in the world and is used for irrigation and power generation.
Question 3: Rishikesh is situated on the banks of which river?
a) Ganga b) Yamuna c) Nalanda d) Saryu
Answer
Answer: a) Ganga
Explanation: It is situated on the right bank of the Ganga River and is a pilgrimage site for Hindus.
Question 4: Which city in Uttarakhand is famous as the ‘City of Lakes’?
a) Nainital b) Dehradun c) Badrinath d) Haridwar
Answer
Answer: a) Nainital
Explanation: The center of Nainital’s beauty is the beautiful Naini Lake located here. In the sunlight, the seven… The Mall Road built on one side of the lake is now known as Pt. Govind Ballabh Marg… A large plain area on the northern part of the lake is known as Flats.
Question 5: Which city is known as the ‘Queen of the Mountains’?
a) Mussoorie b) Nainital c) Almora d) Yamunotri
Answer
Answer: a) Mussoorie
Explanation: Mussoorie or Mansuri is a hill station in the state of Uttarakhand, India, also known as the ‘Queen of the Mountains’.
Question 6: Where is Gangotri Dham located?
a) Yamunotri b) Haridwar c) Uttarkashi d) Dehradun
Answer
Answer: c) Uttarkashi
Explanation: Gangotri is a town and major Hindu pilgrimage site located in the Uttarkashi district of the state of Uttarakhand, India.
Question 7: What is the state tree of Uttarakhand?
a) ‘Buransh’ (Rhododendron arboreum) b) Peepal (Ficus religiosa) c) Tulsi (Holy Basil) d) Sal (Shorea robusta)
Answer
Answer: a) ‘Buransh’
Explanation: The state tree of Uttarakhand is ‘Buransh’ (Rhododendron arboreum). The flowers of the Buransh tree are found in various regions of the state and are considered environmentally important. Its flowers also have medicinal benefits and are used in various traditional treatments. This tree is found in high-altitude areas and has been declared the state tree due to its beauty.
Question 8: What is the state flower of Uttarakhand?
a) Buransh (Rhododendron arboreum)
b) Lotus (Nelumbo nucifera) c) Brahmakamal (Saussurea obvallata) d) Rose (Rosa)
Answer
Answer: c) Brahmakamal
Explanation: Brahmakamal is a perennial plant. It grows in high rocks and inaccessible areas. It is found abundantly in Kashmir, central Nepal, the Valley of Flowers in Uttarakhand, the Kedarnath-Shivling region, etc.
Question 9: The pedestrian journey for which religious pilgrimage begins from Gaurikund?
a) Badrinath b) Kedarnath c) Gangotri d) Amarnath
Answer
Answer: b) Kedarnath
Explanation: The Kedarnath Yatra (pilgrimage) begins on foot from Gaurikund.
Question 10: ‘Rajaji National Park’ is famous for which animal?
a) Elephant b) Deer c) Peacock d) Snake
Answer
Answer: a) Elephant
Explanation: Rajaji National Park is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. It is known for its elephant population.
Question 11: What is the capital of Uttarakhand?
a) Nainital b) Haridwar c) Dehradun d) Almora
Answer
Answer: c) Dehradun
Explanation: Dehradun is the permanent capital of Uttarakhand. It was declared the capital at the time of the formation of the state of Uttarakhand on November 9, 2000. It is the largest city and administrative center of the state, where the main offices of the state government and the Legislative Assembly are located. In addition, Gairsain has been declared the summer capital, where the sessions of the Legislative Assembly are held during the summer.
Question 12: Where is the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly located?
a) Haridwar b) Nainital c) Gairsain d) Dehradun
Answer
Answer: d) Dehradun
Explanation: The Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly is located in Dehradun.
Question 13: Where is the summer session of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly held?
a) Pithoragarh
b) Almora
c) Gairsain
d) Rishikesh
Answer
Answer: c) Gairsain
Explanation: The summer sessions of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly are held in Gairsain.
Question 14: What is the total number of members in the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly?
a) 60
b) 70
c) 80
d) 90
Answer
Answer: b) 70
Explanation: The total number of members in the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly is 70.
Question 15: When was the first session of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly held?
a) 2000
b) 2002
c) 2004
d) 2006
Answer
Answer: b) 2002
Explanation: The first session of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly was held in 2002.
Question 16: When was Gairsain declared the summer capital?
a) 2018
b) 2019
c) 2020
d) 2021
Answer
Answer: c) 2020
Explanation: Gairsain was declared the summer capital of Uttarakhand in 2020.
Question 18: In which year was Jim Corbett National Park established?
a) 1936
b) 1956
c) 1973
d) 1980
Answer
Answer: a) 1936
Explanation: Jim Corbett National Park was established in 1936. It is considered India’s first national park, and it is named after the famous hunter and conservationist Jim Corbett.
Question 19: In which year was the name of Uttarakhand changed from Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand?
a) January 2005
b) January 2007
c) July 2003
d) January 2008
Answer
Answer: b) January 2007
Explanation: In January 2007, the new state changed its name to Uttarakhand.
Question 20: Lakhudiyar is located in which city of Uttarakhand?
a) Nainital
b) Almora
c) Pithoragarh
d) Champawat
Answer
Answer: b) Almora
Explanation: Lakhudiyar is located in the Almora district of Uttarakhand. It is an ancient cave where rock paintings from the prehistoric period can be seen. “Lakhudiyar” means “one lakh caves,” and this place is famous for the artifacts and paintings of the early period of human civilization. The rock paintings here suggest that this place was inhabited in the early stages of human civilization’s development.
Question 21: ‘Katar Mal Surya Mandir’ (Katar Mal Sun Temple) is located in which place in Uttarakhand?
a) Ranikhet
b) Almora
c) Haridwar
d) Rishikesh
Answer
Answer: b) Almora
Explanation: Katar Mal Surya Mandir is located in Adheli Sunar village of Almora district in Uttarakhand. This temple is situated at an altitude of about 2,116 meters above sea level. It is one of the largest high-altitude temples in Kumaon.
Question 22: What was the ancient name of Jim Corbett National Park?
a) Hailey National Park
b) Rajaji National Park
c) Kaziranga National Park
d) Pench National Park
Answer
Answer: a) Hailey National Park
Explanation: The ancient name of Jim Corbett National Park was Hailey National Park, which was later changed in 1957 in honor of Jim Corbett.
Question 23: Jim Corbett National Park is famous for the conservation of which animal?
a) Asiatic Lion
b) Bengal Tiger
c) Indian Elephant
d) Himalayan Black Bear
Answer
Answer: b) Bengal Tiger
Explanation: Jim Corbett National Park is primarily famous for the conservation of the Bengal Tiger. This park was also the first reserve under ‘Project Tiger’, which was launched in 1973.
Question 24: In which district of Uttarakhand is Corbett National Park located?
a) Dehradun
b) Nainital
c) Haridwar
d) Uttarkashi
Answer
Answer: b) Nainital
Explanation: Corbett National Park is located in the Nainital district of the state of Uttarakhand. It is the oldest national park in India and was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park. It is named after the famous naturalist Jim Corbett. This park is famous for the conservation of the tiger species and has a diverse range of flora and fauna.
Question 25: In which year did the Chipko Movement start?
a) 1968
b) 1972
c) 1973
d) 1980
Answer
Answer: c) 1973
Explanation: The Chipko Movement started in 1973 when local people united to protest against the felling of forests.
Question 26: What was the main objective of the Chipko Movement?
a) Promotion of women’s education
b) Environmental protection
c) Agricultural reform
d) Environmental protection
Answer
Answer: b) Environmental protection
Explanation: The Chipko Movement was an environmental protection movement. It was carried out by farmers in the state of Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh) in India to protest against the felling of Angu trees. They were protesting against the felling of forests by contractors of the state forest department and asserting their traditional rights over them.
Question 27: Which city is situated at the confluence of the Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers?
a) Haridwar
b) Rishikesh
c) Rudraprayag
d) Devprayag
Answer
Answer: C) Rudraprayag
Explanation: Rudraprayag is a major city located in Uttarakhand where the Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers meet. This place is religiously significant and is a major site for pilgrims.
Question 28: Which is the highest mountain in Uttarakhand?
a) Kedarnath
b) Nanda Devi
c) Trishul
d) Uttar Karn
Answer
Answer: B) Nanda Devi
Explanation: Nanda Devi is the highest mountain in Uttarakhand with an approximate height of 7,816 meters (25,643 feet). This mountain is located in the Himalayan range and is situated in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
Question 29: Vigyan Dham (Science Center) is located in which city of Uttarakhand?
a) Haridwar
b) Nainital
c) Dehradun
d) Roorkee
Answer
Answer: c) Dehradun
Explanation: Vigyan Dham is located in the city of Dehradun in Uttarakhand. It is a major science and technology research center that works to promote science and technical education.
Question 30: Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) is located in which city of Uttarakhand?
a) Haridwar
b) Dehradun
c) Nainital
d) Roorkee
Answer
Answer: C) Nainital
Explanation: The Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) is located in the city of Nainital, Uttarakhand. This institute is known for its major contributions to research in astronomy and astrophysics.
Question 31: Dev Sanskriti Vishwavidyalaya (Dev Sanskriti University) is located in which city?
a) Haridwar
b) Dehradun
c) Rishikesh
d) Nainital
Answer
Answer: a) Haridwar
Explanation: Dev Sanskriti Vishwavidyalaya is located in Haridwar, Uttarakhand. It was established in 2002.
Question 32: Who established Shantikunj in Haridwar?
a) Swami Vivekananda
b) Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya
c) Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati
d) Swami Sachchidananda
Answer
Answer: b) Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya
Explanation: Shantikunj in Haridwar was established by Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya. Shantikunj is a spiritual and social organization whose aim is to re-establish ethics, religion, and humanity in society.
Question 33: Who is known as the ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’?
a) Pandit Shriram Sharma Acharya
b) Indramani Badoni
c) Maharshi Devprayag
d) Swami Vivekananda
Answer
Answer: b) Indramani Badoni
Explanation: Indramani Badoni is known as the ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’.
Question 34: Where is Gauchar Airport located?
a) Chamoli
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Nainital
Answer
Answer: a) Chamoli
Explanation: Gauchar Airport is located in the state of Uttarakhand. This airport is situated in Gauchar in the Chamoli district and is especially important for the Char Dham Yatra (pilgrimage).
Question 35: When are the gates of Badrinath Dham opened?
a) May
b) April
c) August
d) January
Answer
Answer: a) May
Explanation: Badrinath Dham is usually open from May to November. This shrine remains in seclusion for six months every year. The most suitable time to visit here is after the snowfall, which is between May to June and September to October.
Question 36: Who is considered the first freedom fighter of Uttarakhand?
a) Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna
b) Kalu Mehra
c) Shridev Suman
d) Govind Ballabh Pant
Answer
Answer: b) Kalu Mehra
Explanation: Kalu Mehra is considered the first freedom fighter of Uttarakhand. Kalu Mehra formed a secret organization ‘Krantiveer’ in Champawat in the year 1857 and fought against the British.
Question 37: Who is the first poet of Kumaon literature?
a) Shivdutt Sati
b) Mohan Upreti
c) Gumani Pant
d) Lakshmi Datt Joshi
Answer
Answer: c) Gumani Pant
Explanation: Gumani Pant is considered the first poet of Kumaon literature. He composed many important works in the Kumaoni language, including his poems, couplets, and satires.
Question 38: Where is the Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy located?
a) Mussoorie
b) Dehradun
c) Nainital
d) Shimla
Answer
Answer: a) Mussoorie
Explanation: The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) is located in Mussoorie, Uttarakhand. This academy is the premier institution for the training of Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers in India.
Question 39: Uttarakhand is which state of the country?
a) 27th
b) 15th
c) 18th
d) 23rd
Answer
Answer: a) 27th
Explanation: On November 9, 2000, the state of Uttaranchal became the 27th state of India. It was carved out of Uttar Pradesh, and in January 2007, the new state changed its name to Uttarakhand.
Question 40: By what name is Uttarakhand described in Buddhist texts?
a) Kedarkhand
b) Himavant
c) Shivalik
d) Manaskhand
Answer
Answer: b) Himavant
Explanation: In Buddhist texts, Uttarakhand is referred to as ‘Himavant’, which denotes the region close to the Himalayas.
Question 41:Where is the Central Building Research Institute (CBRI) located? a) New Delhi b) Roorkee c) Dehradun d) Lucknow
Answer
Answer: b) Roorkee
Explanation: The Central Building Research Institute (CBRI) is located in Roorkee, Uttarakhand. This institute conducts research in the fields of building construction, earthquake-resistant technology, disaster management, and building materials. It was established in 1947.
Question 42:Where is the Herbal Research and Development Institute located? a) Dehradun b) Gopeshwar c) Nainital d) Haridwar
Answer
Answer: b) Gopeshwar
Explanation: The Herbal Research and Development Institute is located in Gopeshwar, Uttarakhand. This institute works for the conservation, research, and development of medicinal plants and herbs.
Question 43:What types of programs are run by the Herbal Research and Development Institute? a) Training in the cultivation of medicinal plants b) Medical education c) Food security programs d) Environmental protection
Answer
Answer: a) Training in the cultivation of medicinal plants
Explanation: The institute provides training and technical assistance in the cultivation of medicinal plants to help farmers and researchers in this field.
Question 44:How many total districts are there in the state of Uttarakhand? a) 12 b) 14 c) 22 d) 13
Answer
Answer: d) 13
Explanation: There are a total of 13 districts in the state of Uttarakhand.
Question 45:Which country/state borders the south of the state of Uttarakhand? a) Nepal b) Uttar Pradesh c) Himachal Pradesh d) Bengal
Answer
Answer: b) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: The state of Uttar Pradesh borders the south of the state of Uttarakhand.
Question 46:Which city of Uttarakhand is called the ‘Gateway of Kumaon’? a) Nainital b) Haldwani c) Kashipur d) Rudrapur
Answer
Answer: b) Haldwani
Explanation: Haldwani, located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, is one of the most populous cities in the state. It is also called the “Gateway of Kumaon.“
Question 47:Which city of Uttarakhand is famous by the name ‘Lychee City’? a) Nainital b) Dehradun c) Haridwar d) Rudrapur
Answer
Answer: b) Dehradun
Explanation: Due to the large number of lychees in Dehradun, it was also called ‘Lychee City’. However, now only one or two lychee orchards are visible in Dehradun, which was once famous as ‘Lychee City’.
Question 48:Which is the largest district in Uttarakhand in terms of area? a) Dehradun b) Nainital c) Pithoragarh d) Chamoli
Answer
Answer: d) Chamoli
Explanation: The total area of Uttarakhand state is approximately 53,483 square km. This is about 1.69 percent of the area of India. Chamoli district is the largest district in the state in terms of area.
Question 49:The ‘Ichari Dam Project’ is located on which river? a) Ganga b) Yamunotri c) Tons d) Bhagirathi
Answer
Answer: c) Tons
Explanation: The Ichari Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Tons River about 13 km north of Dakpathar in Dehradun district of Uttarakhand, India. The dam’s primary purpose is hydroelectric power generation and it is a run-of-the-river type hydroelectric plant. It was completed in 1972.
Question 50:Where is the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) located in Uttarakhand? a) Dehradun b) Haldwani c) Rishikesh d) Nainital
Answer
Answer: c) Rishikesh
Explanation: The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in Uttarakhand is located in Rishikesh. AIIMS Rishikesh was inaugurated in 2012.
Question 51:Which British traveler discovered Nainital? a) John Hay b) Major Burton c) Peter Barron d) James Sutton
Answer
Answer: c) Peter Barron
Explanation: This city was discovered in the year 1841 by an English merchant named Peter Barron, but there is a tank in Nainital that proves that it was discovered even before 1841.
Question 52:In which year was the town of Ranikhet established? a) 1884 b) 1869 c) 1875 d) 1859
Answer
Answer: b) 1869
Explanation: The Ranikhet Cantonment Board was established in 1869 and its officer was known as the Cantonment Magistrate and his office as the Cantonment Court.
Question 53:Who is known as the founder of Garhwali painting? a) Devaki Nandan Kartikay b) Shankar Dhwaj c) Ramsingh Bhandari d) Mola Ram
Answer
Answer: d) Mola Ram
Explanation: The credit for being the founder of the Garhwali style of painting goes to the famous painter Mola Ram (1743-1833).
Awards and Honours MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important gk question with answer and explanation for free online practice.
Awards and Honours GK Questions
Question 1: The Grammy Award is given in which field?
A) Acting B) Music C) Singing D) Boxing
Answer
Answer: B) Music Explanation: The Grammy Award is presented for excellence in the field of music. It honors musicians, singers, producers, and other music professionals in various categories.
Question 2: Who was the first woman to receive the Bharat Ratna award?
A) Mother Teresa B) Indira Gandhi C) Lata Mangeshkar D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer
Answer: B) Indira Gandhi Explanation: Indira Gandhi was the first woman to be honored with the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award. She received it in 1971 for her leadership and significant contributions to the nation’s development.
Question 3: The Moortidevi Award is given annually in which of the following fields?
A) Literature B) Films C) Journalism D) Music
Answer
Answer: A) Literature Explanation: The Moortidevi Award is presented annually for contributions to Indian literature. It is awarded by the Bharatiya Jnanpith for literary works that reflect Indian philosophy and culture.
Question 4: The Oscar award has been won 26 times by whom?
A) Charlie Chaplin B) Alfred Hitchcock C) Walt Disney D) Akira Kurosawa
Answer
Answer: C) Walt Disney Explanation: Walt Disney holds the record for the most Academy Awards (Oscars) won by an individual, with a total of 26 wins and 59 nominations.
Question 5: How many Nobel Prizes are awarded each year?
A) 6 B) 5 C) 7 D) 4
Answer
Answer: A) 6
Explanation: The Nobel Prizes are awarded in the fields of Peace, Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature, and Economics. The Economics prize was added in 1968, so a total of 6 Nobel Prizes are awarded.
Question 6: Who was the first foreigner to receive the Bharat Ratna award?
A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan B) Nelson Mandela C) Dalai Lama D) Annie Besant
Answer
Answer: A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Explanation: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as “Frontier Gandhi,” was the first foreign citizen to receive the Bharat Ratna. He received this honor in 1987.
Question 7: In which year did Dadasaheb Phalke produce the first feature film?
A) 1911 B) 1913 C) 1910 D) 1912
Answer
Answer: B) 1913
Explanation: Dadasaheb Phalke produced India’s first feature film “Raja Harishchandra” in 1913. It is considered the foundation of Indian cinema.
Question 8: Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize of 2023?
A) Malala Yousafzai (Pakistan) B) Kailash Satyarthi (India) C) Both Malala Yousafzai (Pakistan) and Kailash Satyarthi (India) D) Narges Mohammadi
Answer
Answer: D) Narges Mohammadi
Explanation: In 2023, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Iranian human rights activist Narges Mohammadi.
Question 9: Who was awarded the first Nobel Prize in Economics?
A) Stiglitz B) Paul A. Samuelson C) Amartya Sen D) Jan Tinbergen and Ragnar Frisch
Answer
Answer: D) Jan Tinbergen and Ragnar Frisch
Explanation: In 1969, the first Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to Jan Tinbergen and Ragnar Frisch for their contributions to econometrics.
Question 10: In which city is the Nobel Peace Prize awarded?
A) Brussels B) Geneva C) Oslo D) Stockholm
Answer
Answer: C) Oslo
Explanation: The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo, Norway, while the other Nobel Prizes are awarded in Stockholm, Sweden.
Awards and Honours : Current Affairs
Question 11: Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize of 2023?
A) Malala Yousafzai B) Kailash Satyarthi C) Narges Mohammadi D) Abiy Ahmed Ali
Answer
Answer: C) Narges Mohammadi
Explanation: The Nobel Peace Prize 2023 was awarded to Iranian human rights activist Narges Mohammadi for her courageous actions.
Question 12: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2023?
A) Annie Ernaux B) Abdulrazak Gurnah C) Jon Fosse D) Olga Tokarczuk
Answer
Answer: C) Jon Fosse
Explanation: The Nobel Prize in Literature 2023 was awarded to Norwegian author Jon Fosse, known for his innovative plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable.
Question 13: In which field was the Nobel Prize in Economics awarded in 2023?
A) Environmental Economics B) Study of Global Poverty C) Banking Crisis D) Development Economics
Answer
Answer: C) Banking Crisis
Explanation: The 2023 Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to three economists for their research on banking and financial crises.
Question 14: Which film won the Oscar Award for Best Picture in 2023?
A) Everything Everywhere All at Once B) Top Gun: Maverick C) The Banshees of Inisherin D) Tár
Answer
Answer: (A) Everything Everywhere All at Once
Explanation: The Oscar for Best Picture in 2023 went to “Everything Everywhere All at Once,” a unique science fiction-comedy film.
Question 15: Who won the Oscar for Best Actress in 2023?
A) Cate Blanchett B) Michelle Yeoh C) Olivia Colman D) Ana de Armas
Answer
Answer: B) Michelle Yeoh
Explanation: Michelle Yeoh received the Oscar for Best Actress in 2023 for her exceptional performance in “Everything Everywhere All at Once.”
Question 16: Who was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2023?
A) Barbara Kingsolver B) Ernest Hemingway C) Margaret Atwood D) Jodi Picoult
Answer
Answer: A) Barbara Kingsolver
Explanation: Barbara Kingsolver won the 2023 Pulitzer Prize for her novel “Demon Copperhead.”
Question 17: Who was awarded France’s highest civilian honor “Legion of Honour” on Bastille Day in 2023?
A) Narendra Modi B) Shinzo Abe C) Vladimir Putin D) Joe Biden
Answer
Answer: A) Narendra Modi
Explanation: Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi was honored with the “Legion of Honour” by French President Emmanuel Macron on Bastille Day in 2023.
Question 18: Who was chosen as “Person of the Year” by Time magazine in 2023?
A) Elon Musk B) Joe Biden C) Vladimir Zelenskyy D) Taylor Swift
Answer
Answer: D) Taylor Swift
Explanation: American singer-songwriter Taylor Swift was chosen as “Person of the Year” in 2023 for her widespread cultural impact.
Question 19: Who won the Grammy Award for “Song of the Year” in 2023?
A) Beyoncé B) Harry Styles C) Bonnie Raitt D) Taylor Swift
Answer
Answer: C) Bonnie Raitt
Explanation: Bonnie Raitt won the Grammy Award for “Song of the Year” in 2023 for her song “Just Like That.”
Question 20: Which award did the Indian film “RRR” win in 2024?
A) Oscar B) Grammy C) BAFTA D) Golden Globe
Answer
Answer: D) Golden Globe
Explanation: In 2024, the song “Naatu Naatu” from the film “RRR” won the Golden Globe Award for Best Original Song.
Question 21: Who received the Booker Prize of 2023?
A) Shehan Karunatilaka B) George Saunders C) Jon Fosse D) Ian McEwan
Answer
Answer: A) Shehan Karunatilaka
Explanation: Sri Lankan author Shehan Karunatilaka received the 2023 Booker Prize for his novel “The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida.”
Question 22: Which Indian film director was honored at the Cannes Film Festival in 2023?
A) Anurag Kashyap B) Sanjay Leela Bhansali C) Mani Ratnam D) S.S. Rajamouli
Answer
Answer: C) Mani Ratnam
Explanation: Mani Ratnam was honored with a special award at the 2023 Cannes Film Festival for his contributions to Indian cinema.
Question 23: Who received India’s highest military honor, the “Param Vir Chakra,” in 2023?
A) Captain Vikram Batra B) Major Somnath Sharma C) Subedar Sanjay Kumar D) Captain Abhilash Mishra
Answer
Answer: D) Captain Abhilash Mishra
Explanation: Captain Abhilash Mishra was honored with the “Param Vir Chakra” in 2023 for his exceptional bravery in the Indian Army.
Question 24: Who received the prestigious “Billboard Music Award” for music in 2023?
A) Harry Styles B) Taylor Swift C) Drake D) Ed Sheeran
Answer
Answer: B) Taylor Swift
Explanation: Taylor Swift received awards in several categories at the 2023 Billboard Music Awards, including the title of Top Artist of the Year.
Question 25: Who was awarded the “Jnanpith Award” for literature in 2023?
A) Vasudevan Nair B) Damodar Mauzo C) Annamalai D) Raghuveer Chaudhari
Answer
Answer: B) Damodar Mauzo
Explanation: Goan author Damodar Mauzo was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 2023, which is the highest literary honor in India.
Question 26: In which field was the Rolex Award given in 2023?
A) Art B) Science C) Sports D) Environmental Protection
Answer
Answer: D) Environmental Protection
Explanation: The 2023 Rolex Award was given for contributions to environmental protection and for the benefit of humanity.
Question 27: Who won the “FIFA Best Player Award” for 2023?
A) Lionel Messi B) Cristiano Ronaldo C) Neymar D) Kylian Mbappé
Answer
Answer: A) Lionel Messi
Explanation: Lionel Messi was honored with the “FIFA Best Player Award” for 2023 after winning the FIFA World Cup for Argentina.
Question 28: Who received the Grammy Award for “Best New Artist” in 2024?
A) Olivia Rodrigo B) Billie Eilish C) Samara Joy D) Summer Walker
Answer
Answer: D) Samara Joy
Explanation: Samara Joy, an emerging jazz vocalist, received the Grammy Award for “Best New Artist” in 2024.
Question 29: Who was awarded the “Sahitya Akademi Award” in 2024?
A) Arundhati Roy B) Jet Thakur C) Giriraj Kishore D) Vasudha Ravindran
Answer
Answer: B) Jet Thakur
Explanation: Jet Thakur was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2024 for his novel “Aadhar.”
Question 30: Who was awarded the “Padma Bhushan” in 2024?
A) Shah Rukh Khan B) Ratan Tata C) Sudha Murthy D) Deepika Padukone
Answer
Answer: C) Sudha Murthy
Explanation: Sudha Murthy was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2024 for her social work and contributions to Indian literature.
Haryana General Knowledge : GK MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important previous year exam questions are provided for free online practice of students preparing for Haryana State Government jobs.
Haryana General Knowledge questions
Question 1: When was the state of Haryana established? a) 1 November 1966 b) 15 August 1947 c) 26 January 1950 d) 2 October 1965
Answer
Answer: (a) 1 November 1966 Explanation: Haryana was established as a separate state from Punjab on 1 November 1966. It was recognized as an independent state.
Question 2: What is the capital of Haryana? a) Rohtak b) Faridabad c) Chandigarh d) Hisar
Answer
Answer: (c) Chandigarh Explanation: Chandigarh is the shared capital of both Haryana and Punjab.
Question 3: Which is the largest district of Haryana in terms of area? a) Sirsa b) Bhiwani c) Gurugram d) Rohtak
Answer
Answer: (a) Sirsa Explanation: Sirsa is the largest district in Haryana by area. Earlier, Bhiwani was the largest, but after Charkhi Dadri was carved out, Sirsa became the largest.
Question 4: Which district of Haryana is known for the cotton textile industry? a) Hisar b) Panipat c) Sonipat d) Karnal
Answer
Answer: (b) Panipat Explanation: Panipat is known for its cotton textile industry and houses many textile mills.
Question 5: Which river is considered the most important in Haryana? a) Yamuna b) Ghaggar c) Sutlej d) Ganga
Answer
Answer: (a) Yamuna Explanation: The Yamuna River is the most important river in Haryana, flowing through the eastern part of the state.
Question 6: What is the state bird of Haryana? a) House Sparrow b) Black Francolin c) Peacock d) Parrot
Answer
Answer: (b) Black Francolin Explanation: The Black Francolin is the state bird of Haryana.
Question 7: Which place in Haryana is famous for ‘Bhagat Phool Singh Mahila Vishwavidyalaya’? a) Sonipat b) Panipat c) Rohtak d) Hisar
Answer
Answer: (a) Sonipat Explanation: ‘Bhagat Phool Singh Mahila Vishwavidyalaya’ is a prominent women’s university located in Sonipat.
Question 8: What is the state flower of Haryana? a) Rose b) Lotus c) Sunflower d) Marigold
Answer
Answer: (b) Lotus Explanation: Lotus is the state flower of Haryana.
Question 9: In which month is the ‘Surajkund Mela’ held in Haryana? a) January b) February c) March d) April
Answer
Answer: (b) February Explanation: The ‘Surajkund Mela’ is held every year in February at Surajkund in Faridabad district.
Question 10: Which is the oldest city in Haryana? a) Jind b) Panipat c) Hisar d) Rohtak
Answer
Answer: (a) Jind Explanation: Jind is a historic city in Haryana and one of the oldest districts in the state. It serves as the district headquarters.
Question 11: What is the state sport of Haryana? a) Football b) Kabaddi c) Hockey d) Wrestling
Answer
Answer: (d) Wrestling Explanation: Wrestling is considered the state sport of Haryana, and many wrestlers from here are famous at national and international levels.
Question 12: What is the state tree of Haryana? a) Peepal b) Neem c) Banyan d) Mango
Answer
Answer: (a) Peepal Explanation: The Peepal tree is the state tree of Haryana and is known for its medicinal properties.
Question 13: When was Kurukshetra University established in Haryana? a) 1950 b) 1957 c) 1960 d) 1965
Answer
Answer: (b) 1957 Explanation: Kurukshetra University was established in 1957 and is one of the leading educational institutions in the state.
Question 14: When was the Panchayati Raj system implemented in Haryana? a) 1950 b) 1956 c) 1994 d) 1965
Answer
Answer: (c) 1994 Explanation: The Panchayati Raj system was implemented in Haryana in 1994.
Question 15: What is the official language of Haryana? a) Hindi b) Punjabi c) Urdu d) Haryanvi
Answer
Answer: (a) Hindi Explanation: Hindi is the official language of Haryana. However, Haryanvi and Punjabi are also widely spoken.
Question 16: Which city in Haryana is known as the hub of boxing? a) Bhiwani b) Sonipat c) Panchkula d) Gurugram
Answer
Answer: (a) Bhiwani Explanation: Bhiwani is called “Mini Cuba” and the hub of boxing because a large number of boxers come from there.
Question 17: Which district of Haryana is known as “Science City”? a) Faridabad b) Gurugram c) Karnal d) Ambala
Answer
Answer: (d) Ambala Explanation: Ambala in Haryana is known for the production of scientific instruments.
Question 18: What is Haryana’s rank in India by area? a) 20th b) 22nd c) 24th d) 25th
Answer
Answer: (a) 20th Explanation: Haryana ranks 20th in India by area, covering 44,212 km².
Question 19: Which is the largest district of Haryana in terms of area? a) Faridabad b) Rohtak c) Panchkula d) Sirsa
Answer
Answer: (d) Sirsa Explanation: Sirsa is the largest district in Haryana by area, covering 4,277 sq. km.
Question 20: In which district of Haryana is the Agricultural University located? a) Kurukshetra b) Hisar c) Karnal d) Faridabad
Answer
Answer: (b) Hisar Explanation: ‘Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University’ is located in Hisar, and it is a major center for agricultural education and research.
Question 21: In which city of Haryana is the ‘Surajkund International Crafts Mela’ organized? a) Gurugram b) Faridabad c) Panchkula d) Karnal
Answer
Answer: (b) Faridabad Explanation: The Surajkund International Crafts Mela is held every year in Faridabad during the spring season in February.
Question 22: In which city of Haryana is the ‘IT Park’ located? a) Gurugram b) Hisar c) Karnal d) Panchkula
Answer
Answer: (d) Panchkula Explanation: The IT Park in Panchkula was established in 2008 and is located behind Nada Sahib Gurudwara in Sector 22.
Question 23: Where did Lord Krishna deliver the teachings of the Gita? a) Jyotisar b) Shahabad c) Ladwa d) Pehowa
Answer
Answer: (a) Jyotisar Explanation: Jyotisar in Kurukshetra is believed to be the place where Lord Krishna gave the teachings of the Gita to Arjuna during the Mahabharata war.
Question 24: Where is the Markandeshwar Temple of Haryana located? a) Kurukshetra b) Ambala c) Kaithal d) Panipat
Answer
Answer: (a) Kurukshetra Explanation: The Markandeshwar Mahadev Temple is
Question 25: What is the ancient epic of Haryana?
a) Mahabharata b) Samaveda c) Atharvaveda d) Ramayana
Answer
Answer: a) Mahabharata Explanation: In the Indian epic Mahabharata, Haryana is mentioned as Bahudhanaka and Bahudhana, which highlights its importance and prosperity.
Question 26: When was the Haryana State Agricultural Marketing Board established?
a) 1 August 1969 b) 1 September 1966 c) 1 September 1971 d) 1 August 1972
Answer
Answer: a) 1 August 1969 Explanation: The Haryana State Agricultural Marketing Board was established on 1st August, 1969.
Question 27: Who is known as the Iron Man of Haryana?
a) Bansi Lal b) Pt. Nekiram Sharma c) Chaudhary Chhotu Ram d) Pt. Bhagwat Dayal Sharma
Answer
Answer: a) Bansi Lal
Question 28: In which year was the Ambala Cantonment (military base) established in Haryana?
a) 1839 b) 1840 c) 1842 d) 1843
Answer
Answer: d) 1843
Question 29: Who was the longest-serving Chief Minister of Haryana?
a) Om Prakash Chautala b) Bhupinder Singh Hooda c) Bansi Lal d) Bhajan Lal
Answer
Answer: d) Bhajan Lal
Question 30: In which company’s petroleum complex is located in Panipat district of Haryana?
a) Bharat Petroleum b) Essar Petroleum c) Indian Oil Corporation d) Reliance Petroleum
Answer
Answer: c) Indian Oil Corporation
Question 31: Which city of Haryana was described in the book of the famous Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang for its grandeur and prosperity?
a) Panipat b) Rohtak c) Ambala d) Thanesar
Answer
Answer: d) Thanesar Explanation: Harshavardhana was born in 590 AD in Thanesar (Thanesar, Haryana), to King Prabhakaravardhana. Chinese Buddhist traveler Hiuen Tsang praised the achievements of King Harshavardhana in his writings.
Question 32: What is the average height of the alluvial plains in Haryana?
a) Between 200–220 meters b) Between 200–240 meters c) Between 210–270 meters d) Between 220–240 meters
Answer
Answer: c) Between 210–270 meters Explanation: The alluvial plain is situated at a height of 700 to 900 feet (210 to 270 meters), and the only perennial river, Yamuna, flows along the eastern border of the state.
Question 33: Who was the founder of Bhiwani?
a) Karampal b) Maharaja Dandpati c) Anangpal d) Neem Singh
Answer
Answer: d) Neem Singh Explanation: The district headquarters, Bhiwani city, is named after it. Bhiwani is believed to have been founded by a Rajput named Neem Singh, after his wife Bhani.
Question 34: Markanda is a major tributary of which river?
a) Yamuna b) Saraswati c) Indori d) Ghaggar
Answer
Answer: d) Ghaggar Explanation: The Markanda River is a tributary of the Ghaggar River. It originates from Uttamwala Baraban in Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh and passes through Ambala and Kurukshetra districts.
Question 35: When was Gurgaon renamed Gurugram?
a) 10 April 2016 b) 11 April 2016 c) 12 April 2016 d) 13 April 2016
Answer
Answer: c) 12 April 2016 Explanation: Gurgaon was renamed Gurugram in the year 2016.
Question 36: Where is the Pandu Mela held?
a) Papahana Asandh b) Amupur c) Salwan d) Indri
Answer
Answer: a) Papahana Asandh
Question 37: Sakshi Malik, who won a medal in the Rio Olympics, belongs to which district of Haryana?
a) Sirsa b) Panipat c) Rohtak d) Karnal
Answer
Answer: c) Rohtak Explanation: Sakshi Malik was born on 3rd September 1992 in Mokhra village of Rohtak district, Haryana.
Question 38: What is the first novel written in Haryanvi?
a) Kayakalp b) Harigandha c) Jhaadu Phiri d) Haryana Samvaad
Answer
Answer: c) Jhaadu Phiri Explanation: The first novel written in Haryanvi language is Jhaadu Phiri, authored by Rajaram Shastri.
Question 39: Who started the publication of ‘Haryana Sandesh’?
a) Brahmanand b) Pyarelal c) Atmaram Jain d) Pt. Neki Ram Sharma
Answer
Answer: d) Pt. Neki Ram Sharma Explanation:Haryana Sandesh was a weekly magazine started by Pt. Neki Ram Sharma.
Question 40: Where is the tomb of Sheikh Chilli located?
a) Thanesar b) Gharaunda c) Ganaur d) Jagadhri
Answer
Answer: a) Thanesar Explanation: The tomb of Sheikh Chilli is located in Thanesar near Kurukshetra.
Question 41: What is the highest literary award of Haryana?
a) Soor Samman b) Vyas Puraskar c) Arjun Puraskar d) Bheem Puraskar
Answer
Answer: a) Soor Samman Explanation: The Soor Samman Puraskar is awarded for excellence in literature and is the highest literary honor in Haryana.
Question 42: Who led the 1857 revolt in Kharkhoda?
a) Naharsingh b) Khemchand c) Rao Tularam d) Risaldar Bisarat Ali
Answer
Answer: d) Risaldar Bisarat Ali Explanation: The revolt in Kharkhoda was led by farmer leader Risaldar Bisarat Ali with the support of the Ranghars of Rohtak.
Question 43: Where was the first horticulture university of Haryana established?
a) Karnal b) Rohtak c) Jind d) Kurukshetra
Answer
Answer: a) Karnal Explanation: Haryana’s first horticulture university, Maharana Pratap Horticultural University, was established in Karnal.
Question 44: Where did the 1857 revolt begin in Haryana?
a) Ambala Cantonment b) Sirsa Cantonment c) Hansi Cantonment d) Rewari Cantonment
Answer
Answer: a) Ambala Cantonment Explanation: The 1857 revolt began at Ambala Cantonment on the morning of 10th May 1857, where the 5th Native Infantry was stationed.
Question 45: A large region of Haryana was once called ‘Shri Kanth Janpad’. Which dynasty’s ruler gave this name?
a) Naga b) Pushyabhuti c) Hun d) Gupta
Answer
Answer: a) Naga Explanation: A ruler of the Naga dynasty named a large part of Haryana as ‘Shri Kanth Janpad’.
Question 46: Who wrote the famous book Prithviraj Raso?
a) Chand Bardai b) Surdas c) Babur d) Kabirdas
Answer
Answer: a) Chand Bardai Explanation:Prithviraj Raso is an epic written by Chand Bardai, who accompanied Prithviraj Chauhan to Ghazni.
Question 47: The majority of Haryana’s land is dominated by which type of soil?
a) Kachari soil b) Desert soil c) Sandy-loamy soil d) Loamy soil
Answer
Answer: a) Kachari soil Explanation: Generally, Kachari soil is found in most parts of Haryana.
Question 48: In which district is the urea plant located?
a) Bhiwani b) Rohtak c) Sonipat d) Panipat
Answer
Answer: d) Panipat
Question 49: The village of Sihi near Faridabad is considered the birthplace of which famous devotional poet?
a) Ramdas b) Raidas c) Surdas d) Tulsidas
Answer
Answer: c) Surdas Explanation: Sihi village in Faridabad is believed to be the birthplace of the great saint-poet Surdas, born in 1535 (Samvat).
Question 50: How many days did the Mahabharata war last?
a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18
Answer
Answer: d) 18 Explanation: The Mahabharata war lasted for 18 days, during which Lord Krishna gave the teachings of the Gita.
Question 51: What was the ancient name of Panipat?
a) Thaneshwar b) Sthanuvishwar c) Panduprastha d) Somnath
Answer
Answer: c) Panduprastha Explanation: According to legend, Panipat was one of the five cities (prastha) established by the Pandavas, known as Panduprastha.
Question 52: Dr. Gopi Chand Bhargava, the first Chief Minister of Punjab, belonged to which district of Haryana?
a) Hisar b) Sirsa c) Bhiwani d) Yamunanagar
Answer
Answer: b) Sirsa Explanation: Dr. Gopi Chand Bhargava was born on 8 March 1889 in Sirsa, which was part of unified Punjab and is now in Haryana.
Question 53: Where does the Saraswati River enter Haryana?
a) From Pinjore b) From Kalesar c) From Panchkula d) From Adi Badri
Answer
Answer: d) From Adi Badri Explanation: The Saraswati River is believed to originate from Adi Badri, located slightly below the Shivalik Hills near Yamunanagar.
Bihar GK MCQs Questions for preparation of Competitive Exams. Important Bihar General Knowledge previous year exam question answer with explanation are provided below.
Bihar General Knowledge MCQs
Question 1: Which is the largest city in Bihar? a) Patna b) Gaya c) Muzaffarpur d) Bhagalpur
Answer
Answer: (a) Patna Explanation: Patna is the capital of Bihar and the largest city in the state.
Question 2: In which year did the Champaran Satyagraha start in Bihar? a) 1915 b) 1917 c) 1920 d) 1930
Answer
Answer: (b) 1917 Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi started a movement in Champaran in 1917 to support the indigo farmers.
Question 3: What is the official state animal of Bihar? a) Elephant b) Cow c) Ox d) Lion
Answer
Answer: (c) Ox Explanation: The ox has been declared the state animal of Bihar.
Question 4: Which district of Bihar is famous as the ‘Silk City’? a) Patna b) Gaya c) Bhagalpur d) Munger
Answer
Answer: (c) Bhagalpur Explanation: Bhagalpur is known for its silk textile industry and is called the ‘Silk City’.
Question 5: How many divisions (Pramandal) are there in Bihar? a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
Answer
Answer: (b) 9 Explanation: Bihar has a total of 9 divisions that administratively divide the state into different regions.
Question 6: Who is the current Chief Minister of Bihar? (As of August 2024) a) Nitish Kumar b) Tejashwi Yadav c) Jitan Ram Manjhi d) Sushil Modi
Answer
Answer: (a) Nitish Kumar Explanation: Nitish Kumar is currently serving as the Chief Minister of Bihar and has held the position multiple times.
Question 7: Who was the first Chief Minister of Bihar? a) Shri Krishna Singh b) Jagannath Mishra c) Lalu Prasad Yadav d) Karpoori Thakur
Answer
Answer: (a) Shri Krishna Singh Explanation: Shri Krishna Singh was the first Chief Minister of Bihar after independence.
Question 8: Which city in Bihar is considered the ‘center of education’? a) Patna b) Gaya c) Nalanda d) Darbhanga
Answer
Answer: (c) Nalanda Explanation: Nalanda was home to the ancient Nalanda University, which was a major center of education.
Question 9: On which date is Bihar Day celebrated? a) 15 January b) 22 March c) 1 April d) 2 October
Answer
Answer: (b) 22 March Explanation: Bihar Day is celebrated on 22nd March to mark the formation of the state in 1912 after separating from Bengal.
Question 10: What is the main language of Bihar? a) Hindi b) Bhojpuri c) Maithili d) Magahi
Answer
Answer: (a) Hindi Explanation: Hindi is the official language of Bihar, although Bhojpuri, Maithili, and Magahi are also widely spoken.
Question 11: Which is the largest district in Bihar? a) Patna b) West Champaran c) Gaya d) Bhagalpur
Answer
Answer: (b) West Champaran Explanation: Based on area, West Champaran is the largest district in Bihar.
Question 12: In which district of Bihar is the ‘Mahabodhi Temple’ located? a) Patna b) Gaya c) Muzaffarpur d) Darbhanga
Answer
Answer: b) Gaya Explanation: The Mahabodhi Temple is located in the Gaya district and is an important site in Buddhism.
Question 13: Which city of Bihar is the birthplace of ‘Sher Shah Suri’? a) Patna b) Sasaram c) Darbhanga d) Nalanda
Answer
Answer: b) Sasaram Explanation: Sasaram is the birthplace of Sher Shah Suri and is also famous for his mausoleum.
Question 14: At which place in Bihar did Lord Buddha deliver his first sermon? a) Nalanda b) Pawapuri c) Bodh Gaya d) Sarnath
Answer
Answer: c) Bodh Gaya Explanation: Lord Buddha attained enlightenment in Bodh Gaya, which is a major center of Buddhism.
Question 15: In which year did the reconstruction of Nalanda University begin? a) 2010 b) 2014 c) 2005 d) 2012
Answer
Answer: b) 2014 Explanation: The reconstruction of Nalanda University began in 2014 with contributions from India and many other countries.
Question 16: Which folk dance of Bihar is very famous? a) Bihu b) Jumari c) Kathak d) Chhau
Answer
Answer: b) Jumari Explanation: Jumari is one of the most famous folk dances of Bihar, especially performed by married women and connected deeply with the local culture and heritage.
Question 17: Which place in Bihar is known as the birthplace of Lord Mahavira? a) Nalanda b) Pawapuri c) Vaishali d) Bodh Gaya
Answer
Answer: c) Vaishali Explanation: Vaishali is the birthplace of Lord Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism.
Question 18: In which district is the Sonepur Mela organized? a) Patna b) Saran c) Gaya d) Nalanda
Answer
Answer: b) Saran Explanation: The Sonepur Mela is organized every year in the Saran district and is considered the largest cattle fair in Asia.
Question 19: Bihar shares its southern border with which state? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Jharkhand c) West Bengal d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer
Answer: b) Jharkhand Explanation: Bihar shares its southern border with Jharkhand, and many of its districts are adjacent to Jharkhand.
Question 20: What was the ancient name of Patna? a) Pataliputra b) Vaishali c) Magadh d) Rajgir
Answer
Answer: a) Pataliputra Explanation: The ancient name of Patna was Pataliputra, which was also the capital of the Maurya Empire.
Question 21: Which place is known as the ‘Education City’ of Bihar? a) Nalanda b) Patna c) Gaya d) Muzaffarpur
Answer
Answer: a) Nalanda Explanation: Nalanda is famous for its ancient university and has been a center of education for centuries.
Question 22: Which place in Bihar is called the “Capital of Religion”? a) Gaya b) Rajgir c) Bodh Gaya d) Pawapuri
Answer
Answer: c) Bodh Gaya Explanation: Bodh Gaya is called the “Capital of Religion” because it is the place where Gautam Buddha attained enlightenment.
Question 23: Where are the remains of the Vikramshila University found? a) Patna b) Bhagalpur c) Nalanda d) Munger
Answer
Answer: b) Bhagalpur Explanation: The remains of Vikramshila University are located in Bhagalpur district, which was a center of ancient education.
Question 24: Which city in Bihar is known as the “City of Kabir”? a) Patna b) Sasaram c) Motihari d) Darbhanga
Answer
Answer: b) Sasaram Explanation: Sasaram has a large number of followers of Saint Kabir, hence it is known as the “City of Kabir”.
Question 25: Where is the Mahatma Gandhi Setu located? a) Patna b) Hajipur c) Bhagalpur d) Buxar
Answer
Answer: a) Patna Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi Setu is built over the Ganges river in Patna and is one of the longest bridges in India.
Question 26: What is the original meaning of the word “Bihar”? a) Mountain b) River c) Buddhist Monastery d) Fort
Answer
Answer: c) Buddhist Monastery Explanation: The word “Bihar” is derived from the Sanskrit word “Vihar”, meaning “Buddhist Monastery”. In ancient times, this region was a significant center for Buddhism, with many monasteries.
Question 27: When was the Patna High Court established? a) 1912 b) 1916 c) 1919 d) 1935
Answer
Answer: b) 1916 Explanation: Patna High Court was established on 3rd February 1916 after the separation of Bihar and Odisha. Justice Edward Mayne Stuart was its first Chief Justice.
Question 28: How many seats does Bihar have in the Rajya Sabha? a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18
Answer
Answer: c) 16 Explanation: Bihar has 16 representatives in the Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of the Parliament of India. These members are elected by the elected members of the Bihar Legislative Assembly.
Question 29: For what was Nalanda University world-famous? a) Advancement in Physics b) Expertise in Ayurveda c) Study of Buddhism and Philosophy d) Excellence in Mathematics and Astronomy
Answer
Answer: c) Study of Buddhism and Philosophy Explanation: Nalanda University was located in Bihar and was active from the 5th to the 12th century. It was especially famous for the study of Buddhism and Philosophy and was one of the most prestigious ancient universities.
Question 30: What was the main cause of the destruction of Nalanda University? a) Turkish Invasion b) Chinese Invasion c) Muslim Invasion d) Mongol Invasion
Answer
Answer: c) Muslim Invasion Explanation: Nalanda University was destroyed in 1193 AD by Muslim invaders. Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khilji attacked and completely destroyed the university, which ended its prosperous educational legacy.
Question 31: In which district are the ruins of Nalanda University located? a) Patna b) Nalanda c) Gaya d) Saran
Answer
Answer: b) Nalanda Explanation: The ruins of the ancient Nalanda University are located in Nalanda district.
Question 32: What is the state tree of Bihar? a) Peepal b) Ashoka c) Neem d) Banyan
Answer
Answer: a) Peepal Explanation: The Peepal tree is the state tree of Bihar. It holds great significance in Indian culture and is considered sacred in religious beliefs.
Question 33: When was Jharkhand separated from Bihar? a) 15 August 1947 b) 1 January 2000 c) 15 November 2000 d) 26 January 1950
Answer
Answer: c) 15 November 2000 Explanation: Jharkhand was separated from Bihar on 15 November 2000, which is also the birth anniversary of tribal leader Birsa Munda. Prior to this, Jharkhand was part of Bihar.
Question 34: In which year was the first Hindi newspaper “Bihar Bandhu” published in Bihar? a) 1862 b) 1872 c) 1882 d) 1892
Answer
Answer: b) 1872 Explanation: “Bihar Bandhu” was the first Hindi newspaper in Bihar, published in 1872, marking the beginning of Hindi journalism in the state.
Question 35: Who was the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha? a) Meira Kumar b) Ranjit Kumari c) Urmila Singh d) Shobha Yadav
Answer
Answer: a) Meira Kumar Explanation: Meira Kumar was the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving during the 15th Lok Sabha from 2009 to 2014.
Question 36: Which great personality of Bihar is known for contributing to the historical development of “Magadh”? a) Ashoka b) Chandragupta Maurya c) Emperor Akbar d) Bimbisara
Answer
Answer: d) Bimbisara Explanation: Bimbisara was a great ruler of the Magadh Empire and significantly contributed to its historical development.
Question 37: In which district is the “Bihar Museum” located? a) Patna b) Darbhanga c) Muzaffarpur d) Gaya
Answer
Answer: a) Patna Explanation: Bihar Museum is located in Patna and showcases the cultural and historical heritage of the state.
Question 38: “Litti Chokha” is a dish of which state? a) Bihar b) Kerala c) Goa d) Punjab
Answer
Answer: a) Bihar
Question 39: Which is the largest municipal corporation in Bihar? a) Patna b) Bhagalpur c) Muzaffarpur d) Gaya
Answer
Answer: a) Patna Explanation: Patna is the largest municipal corporation in Bihar. It is also the capital of the state and has the highest population and area among cities in Bihar.
Question 40: On which day is ‘Dr. Rajendra Prasad’s’ birth anniversary celebrated in Bihar?
a) January 3 b) January 26 c) August 15 d) December 3
Answer
Answer: d) December 3 Explanation: Rajendra Prasad was born on December 3, 1884, in Ziradei, Siwan district of Bihar. Being the youngest in a large joint family, he was very much loved. He had a deep bond with his mother and elder brother Mahendra.
Question 41: Who founded the ‘Nalanda’ University in Bihar?
a) Ashoka b) Chandragupta Maurya c) Kumaragupta d) Vikramaditya I
Answer
Answer: c) Kumaragupta I Explanation: Nalanda University was founded by Kumaragupta I. It was one of the most prominent educational centers of ancient India, offering studies in Buddhism, Tantra, Mathematics, and Science.
Question 42: Which district of Bihar is famous for ‘Madhubani Painting’?
a) Patna b) Madhubani c) Gaya d) Bhagalpur
Answer
Answer: b) Madhubani Explanation: Madhubani district is famous for Madhubani painting, which is a traditional Indian art style.
Question 43: Which district of Bihar is famous for ‘Litchi’?
a) Darbhanga b) Muzaffarpur c) Patna d) Gaya
Answer
Answer: b) Muzaffarpur Explanation: Muzaffarpur district is known for the production of high-quality litchi.
Question 44: In which district of Bihar is ‘Tilka Manjhi’ University located?
a) Patna b) Bhagalpur c) Muzaffarpur d) Gaya
Answer
Answer: b) Bhagalpur Explanation: Tilka Manjhi University is located in Bhagalpur and is named after the freedom fighter Tilka Manjhi.
Question 45: What is the western border state of Bihar?
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Rajasthan d) West Bengal
Answer
Answer: a) Uttar Pradesh Explanation: Uttar Pradesh lies on the western border of Bihar. Several major rivers flow between these two states.
Question 46: Which is the smallest district in Bihar in terms of area?
a) Patna b) Sheohar c) Gopalganj d) Bhagalpur
Answer
Answer: b) Sheohar Explanation: Sheohar is the smallest district of Bihar by area, covering a total of 443 square kilometers.
Question 47: Which district of Bihar has the lowest population?
a) Sheikhpura b) Kishanganj c) Darbhanga d) Gaya
Answer
Answer: a) Sheikhpura Explanation: Sheikhpura is a small district in Bihar with a comparatively low population. As per the 2011 Census, its population is about 4.8 lakhs.
Question 48: Where is the oil refinery located in Bihar?
a) Patna b) Barauni c) Muzaffarpur d) Bhagalpur
Answer
Answer: b) Barauni Explanation: The only oil refinery in Bihar is located in Barauni. It is operated by Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) and was established in 1964.
Question 49: By whose hands was the glory of Nalanda University destroyed?
a) Ashoka b) Mahmud of Ghazni c) Bakhtiyar Khilji d) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
Answer
Answer: c) Bakhtiyar Khilji Explanation: Nalanda University, a prominent educational and Buddhist center of ancient India, was destroyed in 1193 CE by Turkish invader Bakhtiyar Khilji. He burned down the university and killed many scholars and monks. Thousands of manuscripts and books stored in the library were lost, deeply impacting the history of Indian education and Buddhism.
Question 50: In which state is the Chanakya National Law University (CNLU) located?
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Bihar c) Jharkhand d) West Bengal
Answer
Answer: b) Bihar Explanation: Chanakya National Law University (CNLU) is located in Patna, Bihar. It is a premier law university of the state and was established in 2006.
Question 51: What is the main monsoon season in Bihar?
a) April-May b) June-September c) October-November d) December-January
Answer
Answer: b) June-September Explanation: The main monsoon season in Bihar occurs between June and September. Most of the rainfall in the state happens during this time, which is very important for agriculture.
Question 52: How many districts are there in Bihar?
a) 35 b) 38 c) 40 d) 42
Answer
Answer: b) 38 Explanation: Bihar has a total of 38 districts. These districts play an important role in the smooth functioning of administrative and developmental activities in the state.
Question 53: Who constructed the ‘Golghar’ located in Patna?
a) Lord Cornwallis b) John Garstin c) Sher Shah Suri d) Emperor Ashoka
Answer
Answer: b) John Garstin Explanation: The Golghar in Patna was built by John Garstin in 1786. It is a large grain storage facility.
Question 54: In which district of Bihar is the Kanwar Lake Bird Sanctuary located?
a) Munger b) West Champaran c) Begusarai d) Gaya
Answer
Answer: c) Begusarai Explanation: The Kanwar Lake Bird Sanctuary is located in Begusarai district of Bihar. The ancient Buddhist-era Harshai Stupa, of archaeological significance, is also situated in this region.
Question 55: In whose court did the Greek ambassador Megasthenes come to Pataliputra?
a) Chandragupta Maurya b) Ashoka c) Vikramaditya d) Sultan Tipu
Answer
Answer: a) Chandragupta Maurya Explanation: The Greek ambassador Megasthenes visited the court of Chandragupta Maurya. He was a well-known Greek envoy and writer who traveled across the Indian subcontinent. His book Indica provides detailed information about the social, political, and economic conditions of India during that time.
Question 56: In which year was cow slaughter banned by law in Bihar?
a) 1963 b) 1955 c) 1959 d) 1960
Answer
Answer: b) 1955 Explanation: Cow slaughter was banned in Bihar through the Bihar Animal Preservation and Improvement Act of 1955. Violation of the law can lead to imprisonment of up to six months or a fine of up to one thousand rupees.
Answer: (B) Harmanpreet Kaur Explanation: Harmanpreet Kaur led the Indian women’s cricket team in the 2022 Women’s World Cup.
Question 36: Which Indian athlete won the first gold medal at the Tokyo Olympics 2021?
(A) P. V. Sindhu (B) Neeraj Chopra (C) Bajrang Punia (D) Mirabai Chanu
Answer
Answer: (B) Neeraj Chopra Explanation: Neeraj Chopra won India’s first gold medal in the javelin throw event at the Tokyo Olympics 2021.
Question 37: When is National Sports Day celebrated in India?
(A) 15th August (B) 29th August (C) 2nd October (D) 26th January
Answer
Answer: (B) 29th August Explanation: In India, National Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August in honor of the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand./su_spoiler]
Question 38: In which sport is the term “dribbling” used?
(A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Tennis (D) Football
Answer
Answer: (D) Football Explanation: Dribbling in football refers to a player's ability to control and move the ball forward while avoiding defenders.
Question 39: In which year was the first season of IPL (Indian Premier League) played?
(A) 2007 (B) 2008 (C) 2010 (D) 2011
Answer
Answer: (B) 2008 Explanation: The first season of IPL was played in 2008, and Rajasthan Royals won the championship.
Question 40: Who won India's first Olympic medal in boxing?
(A) Vijender Singh (B) Mary Kom (C) Shiva Thapa (D) Akhil Kumar
Answer
Answer: (A) Vijender Singh Explanation: Vijender Singh won a bronze medal in boxing at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, making him India’s first Olympic boxing medalist.
Question 41: What is the highest award given in the field of sports?
(A) Jnanpith Award (B) Padma Shri Award (C) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (D) Bharat Bhushan Award
Answer
Answer: (C) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award Explanation: The highest award given in the field of sports in India is the ‘Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.’ In 2021, the name of this award was changed from ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award’ to ‘Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.’
Question 42: Which sport is Navjot Singh Sidhu associated with?
(A) Football (B) Tennis (C) Cricket (D) Hockey
Answer
Answer: (C) Cricket Explanation: Navjot Singh Sidhu is a former Indian cricketer who played for India in both Test and One-Day formats.
Question 43: What does 'Albatross' mean in golf?
(A) Scoring three strokes under par (B) Scoring more than two strokes over par (C) Scoring exactly par (D) Scoring more than four strokes over par
Answer
Answer: (A) Scoring three strokes under par Explanation: An ‘Albatross’ occurs when a player completes a golf hole three strokes under the designated number of strokes (par).
Question 44: Federer, Nadal, and Djokovic are associated with which sport?
(A) Football (B) Golf (C) Badminton (D) Tennis
Answer
Answer: (D) Tennis Explanation: These three players are considered among the greatest tennis players of all time and have won multiple Grand Slam titles.
Question 45: Who was India's first Grand Slam winner?
Answer: (B) Mahesh Bhupathi Explanation: Mahesh Bhupathi became India’s first Grand Slam winner by winning the French Open mixed doubles title in 1997.
Question 46: In which sport is the 'Bulgarian Bag' used?
(A) Wrestling (B) Weightlifting (C) Boxing (D) Badminton
Answer
Answer: (A) Wrestling Explanation: The ‘Bulgarian Bag’ is used in wrestling training to enhance endurance and strength.
Question 47: In which sport has P.V. Sindhu won an Olympic medal?
(A) Tennis (B) Badminton (C) Hockey (D) Athletics
Answer
Answer: (B) Badminton Explanation: P.V. Sindhu won a silver medal in badminton at the 2016 Rio Olympics and a bronze medal at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics.
Question 48: In which country was the FIFA World Cup 2022 held?
(A) Qatar (B) Brazil (C) Russia (D) South Africa
Answer
Answer: (A) Qatar Explanation: The 2022 FIFA World Cup was held in Qatar, marking the first time the tournament was hosted in the Middle East.
Question 49: Who is known as the "Little Master" in Indian cricket?
Answer: (C) Sunil Gavaskar Explanation: Sunil Gavaskar is called the “Little Master” due to his exceptional batting skills and records. He was one of India’s first cricketing legends.
Question 50: Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the highest runs scored in a single Test match innings?
Answer: (B) Sachin Tendulkar Explanation: Sachin Tendulkar holds the record for the highest runs scored in a single Test innings for India with his 248* against Bangladesh in 2004.
Question-51: Who was the captain of the Indian team that won the first World Cup in 1983?
A) Sunil Gavaskar B) Kapil Dev C) Mohammad Azharuddin D) Sourav Ganguly
Answer
Answer: B) Kapil Dev Explanation: Kapil Dev led the Indian team to its first World Cup victory in 1983, defeating the West Indies in the final.
Question-52: Which Indian cricketer is known by the nickname "Dada"?
A) Sachin Tendulkar B) Sourav Ganguly C) Rahul Dravid D) Anil Kumble
Answer
Answer: B) Sourav Ganguly Explanation: Sourav Ganguly is known as “Dada,” a term used in Bengali to mean elder brother.
Question-53: In which year did India win its first T20 World Cup?
A) 2005 B) 2007 C) 2011 D) 2013
Answer
Answer: B) 2007 Explanation: India won its first T20 World Cup in 2007 under the captaincy of Mahendra Singh Dhoni.
Question-54: Who was the highest run-scorer for India in the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup?
A) Sachin Tendulkar B) Virat Kohli C) Gautam Gambhir D) Kumar Sangakkara
Answer
Answer: C) Gautam Gambhir Explanation: Gautam Gambhir was the highest run-scorer for India in the 2011 World Cup, scoring 808 runs.
Question-55: Who was the first Indian cricketer to score a double century in a One-Day International (ODI) match?
A) Sachin Tendulkar B) Virat Kohli C) Rohit Sharma D) Shikhar Dhawan
Answer
Answer: C) Rohit Sharma Explanation: Rohit Sharma has scored three double centuries in ODI matches, with his first one coming against Australia in 2013.
Question-56: Which Indian cricketer was the first to take 10 wickets in a single Test innings?
A) Bishan Singh Bedi B) Anil Kumble C) Erapalli Prasanna D) Ravi Shastri
Answer
Answer: B) Anil Kumble Explanation: Anil Kumble achieved this rare feat in 1999 against Pakistan, taking all 10 wickets in a single innings.
Question-57: Which Indian cricketer is known as "The Wall"?
A) Sachin Tendulkar B) Rahul Dravid C) Virender Sehwag D) Sunil Gavaskar
Answer
Answer: B) Rahul Dravid Explanation: Rahul Dravid is known as “The Wall” due to his solid and dependable batting technique.
Question-58: Which Indian cricketer holds the record for the highest individual score in an ODI match?
A) Sachin Tendulkar B) Virat Kohli C) Rohit Sharma D) Shikhar Dhawan
Answer
Answer: C) Rohit Sharma Explanation: Rohit Sharma holds the record for the highest individual score in ODI cricket, scoring 264 runs.
Question-59: Which Indian bowler holds the record for the most wickets in T20 International cricket?
A) Harbhajan Singh B) Yuvraj Singh C) Ravi Ashwin D) Jasprit Bumrah
Answer
Answer: C) Ravi Ashwin Explanation: Ravi Ashwin holds the record for the most wickets for India in T20 International cricket.
Question-60: Who was the first Indian cricketer to score a century in T20 International cricket?
A) Virat Kohli B) Suresh Raina C) Yuvraj Singh D) Rohit Sharma
Answer
Answer: B) Suresh Raina Explanation: Suresh Raina was the first Indian to score a century in T20 International cricket, achieving this against South Africa in 2010.
Question-61: Who was the captain of the Indian team in the 2003 Cricket World Cup final?
A) Sourav Ganguly B) Rahul Dravid C) MS Dhoni D) Sachin Tendulkar
Answer
Answer: A) Sourav Ganguly Explanation: Sourav Ganguly was the captain of the Indian team in the 2003 Cricket World Cup final, where India played against Australia.
Question-62: Who was the first Indian cricketer to win the ICC Cricketer of the Year award?
A) Sachin Tendulkar B) Rahul Dravid C) MS Dhoni D) Virat Kohli
Answer
Answer: A) Sachin Tendulkar Explanation: Sachin Tendulkar was the first Indian cricketer to win the ICC Cricketer of the Year award in 2010.
Question-63: Which Indian cricketer is famous for hitting six sixes in an over in T20 cricket?
A) MS Dhoni B) Yuvraj Singh C) Virender Sehwag D) Rohit Sharma
Answer
Answer: B) Yuvraj Singh Explanation: Yuvraj Singh hit six sixes in an over against Stuart Broad during the 2007 T20 World Cup.
World History MCQs Questions with answer and explanation for Competitive Exams. Important previous year questions.
Medium: English
World History Questions
Question 1: Which part of India did Alexander the Great invade? a) Punjab b) Bengal c) Kashmir d) Tamil Nadu
Answer
Answer: a) Punjab Explanation: Alexander the Great invaded the northwestern part of India, particularly Punjab. His campaign brought significant changes to the Indian subcontinent.
Question 2: Who was the first emperor of the Maurya Empire? a) Chandragupta Maurya b) Ashoka c) Bindusara d) Emperor Vikramaditya
Answer
Answer: a) Chandragupta Maurya Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire and became its first emperor. He established a significant empire in India during the 4th century BCE.
Question 3: When did World War I end? a) 1914 b) 1918 c) 1920 d) 1939
Answer
Answer: b) 1918 Explanation: World War I ended in 1918 when all major powers signed peace agreements.
Question 4: Which country conducted the first nuclear bomb test? a) USA b) Russia c) England d) Japan
Answer
Answer: a) USA Explanation: The USA conducted the first nuclear bomb test in 1945, which was a significant event towards the end of World War II.
Question 5: Which empire developed the ‘Code of Laws’ in Mesopotamia? a) Babylonian b) Assyrian c) Maurya d) Greek
Answer
Answer: a) Babylonian Explanation: The Babylonian Empire developed Hammurabi’s Code, which was an important ancient legal document.
Question 6: What was the role of the ‘Senate’ in ancient Rome? a) Function as a court b) Make laws and provide advice c) Expand the empire d) Control trade deals
Answer
Answer: b) Make laws and provide advice Explanation: The main role of the Senate in ancient Rome was to create laws and advise the ruler. It was a crucial part of the Roman government.
Question 7: What does “Drops of John” refer to? a) A political plan b) A war name c) A social movement in the USA d) A scientific discovery
Answer
Answer: c) A social movement in the USA Explanation: “Drops of John” was the name of a social movement in the USA aimed at prohibiting alcohol. This movement led to “Prohibition” in the 1920s, banning alcohol production and sales.
Question 8: Which action led to the October Revolution in Russia? a) Economic crisis b) War defeat c) Political dissatisfaction d) Foreign invasion
Answer
Answer: b) War defeat Explanation: The main cause of the October Revolution (1917) in Russia was the country’s defeat in World War I, which led to economic and social crises, ultimately fueling the Bolshevik Revolution.
Question 9: Who was the prominent ruler of the Babylonian Empire? a) Hammurabi b) Nebuchadnezzar II c) Alexander d) Ramses II
Answer
Answer: b) Nebuchadnezzar II Explanation: Nebuchadnezzar II was a significant ruler of the Babylonian Empire, known for constructing the Hanging Gardens of Babylon.
Question 10: Which ancient civilization built the pyramids? a) Mesopotamia b) Egypt c) Greece d) India
Answer
Answer: b) Egypt Explanation: The ancient Egyptian civilization built the pyramids, which reflected their religious and cultural significance.
Question 11: In which year did the French Revolution begin? (A) 1787 (B) 1789 (C) 1792 (D) 1794
Answer
Answer: (B) 1789 Explanation: The French Revolution began in 1789. It was caused by deep social inequality and an economic crisis, with the main goal of ending the old feudal system and implementing the principles of equality, liberty, and fraternity.
Question 12: Which emperor commissioned the construction of the Taj Mahal, famous for its tomb and architecture? (A) Akbar (B) Shah Jahan (C) Aurangzeb (D) Babur
Answer
Answer: (B) Shah Jahan Explanation: The Taj Mahal was built by Shah Jahan in memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal. It is an excellent example of Indian architecture.
Question 13: In which year did Columbus first discover America? (A) 1492 (B) 1498 (C) 1500 (D) 1520
Answer
Answer: (A) 1492 Explanation: Christopher Columbus discovered America in 1492. This journey was a significant historical event for the Americas.
Question 14: Which empire led to the unification of modern Germany? (A) Roman Empire (B) Frankish Empire (C) Prussian Empire (D) Ottoman Empire
Answer
Answer: (C) Prussian Empire
Question 15: Which king achieved major victories to gain control over the Indian Ocean? (A) Chandragupta Maurya (B) Ashoka (C) Samudragupta (D) Shivaji
Answer
Answer: (D) Shivaji Explanation: Shivaji achieved significant victories to gain control over the Indian Ocean and established the Maratha Empire as a Chhatrapati.
Question 16: Which emperor adopted Islam as the state religion? (A) Akbar (B) Aurangzeb (C) Babur (D) Shah Jahan
Answer
Answer: (B) Aurangzeb Explanation: Aurangzeb adopted Islam as the state religion of the Mughal Empire and implemented Islamic laws during his rule.
Question 17: When was the United Nations established after World War II? (A) 1945 (B) 1947 (C) 1949 (D) 1950
Answer
Answer: (A) 1945 Explanation: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II with the aim of maintaining global peace and security.
Question 18: Which prominent scholar and writer in Akbar’s court wrote “Akbarnama”? (A) Zahir-ud-din Babur (B) Abul Fazl (C) Akbar (D) Ibrahim Lodi
Answer
Answer: (B) Abul Fazl Explanation: Abul Fazl was a prominent scholar and writer in Akbar’s court who wrote “Akbarnama,” a detailed account of Akbar’s life and reign.
Question 19: Who gave the slogan “Liberty, Equality, Fraternity” during the French Revolution? (A) Louis XVI (B) Napoleon Bonaparte (C) Georges Danton (D) Maximilien Robespierre
Answer
Answer: (D) Maximilien Robespierre Explanation: The slogan “Liberty, Equality, Fraternity” was given by Maximilien Robespierre during the French Revolution. It symbolized revolutionary ideals.
Question 20: In which year did the American War of Independence begin? (A) 1776 (B) 1783 (C) 1800 (D) 1790
Answer
Answer: (A) 1776 Explanation: The American War of Independence began in 1776 when America declared independence from Britain.
Question 21: Which empire was founded by Alexander the Great? A) Roman Empire B) Mongol Empire C) Macedonian Empire D) Sassanian Empire
Answer
Answer: C) Macedonian Empire Explanation: Alexander the Great founded the Macedonian Empire and expanded it over a vast territory.
Question 22: Which country was most affected by the Seven Years’ War? A) Britain B) France C) Russia D) Germany
Answer
Answer: B) France Explanation: The Seven Years’ War (1756-1763) significantly impacted France, resulting in the loss of many of its colonial possessions to Britain.
Question 23: In which famous battle did Napoleon Bonaparte face defeat? A) Battle of Waterloo B) Battle of Trafalgar C) Battle of Austerlitz D) Battle of Lützen
Answer
Answer: A) Battle of Waterloo Explanation: Napoleon Bonaparte faced defeat in the Battle of Waterloo in 1815, marking the end of his rule and bringing stability to Europe.
Question 24: Which major book was written during Akbar’s reign? A) Baburnama B) Akbarnama C) Ain-i-Akbari D) Mughalnama
Answer
Answer: C) Ain-i-Akbari Explanation: “Ain-i-Akbari” was written by Abul Fazl, detailing the administrative, social, and religious aspects of Akbar’s reign.
Question 25: Which revolution in China was a major outcome under Mao Zedong’s leadership? A) Taiping Rebellion B) Summer Uprising C) Communist Revolution of China D) Xinhai Revolution
Answer
Answer: C) Communist Revolution of China Explanation: The Communist Revolution of China (1949), led by Mao Zedong, resulted in the establishment of Communist Party rule in China.
Question 26: In which year did Japan surrender after World War II? A) 1945 B) 1946 C) 1944 D) 1947
Answer
Answer: A) 1945 Explanation: Japan surrendered in 1945, marking the end of World War II and leading to the formation of the United Nations.
Question 27: What was the primary goal of the Bolshevik Revolution? A) End of imperialism B) Establishment of communism C) Establishment of democracy D) End of colonialism
Answer
Answer: B) Establishment of communism Explanation: The main goal of the Bolshevik Revolution was to establish communism, leading to the formation of a communist government in Russia.
Question 28: Which great empire played a major role in Europe after the Roman Empire? A) Byzantine Empire B) Ottoman Empire C) Frankish Empire D) British Empire
Answer
Answer: A) Byzantine Empire Explanation: The Byzantine Empire, also known as the Eastern Roman Empire, played a dominant role in Europe after the fall of the Roman Empire.
Question 29: The “Napoleonic Code” was implemented in which country? A) Britain B) France C) Spain D) Italy
Answer
Answer: B) France Explanation: The “Napoleonic Code” was implemented in France and became an important legal framework codifying civil laws.
Question 30: When was the World Trade Organization (WTO) established? A) 1995 B) 1990 C) 1985 D) 2000
Answer
Answer: A) 1995 Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established in 1995 to regulate international trade and resolve trade disputes.
Question 31: When did the ancient Egyptian empire begin? A) 3100 BCE B) 3000 BCE C) 2500 BCE D) 2000 BCE
Answer
Answer: A) 3100 BCE Explanation: The ancient Egyptian empire began around 3100 BCE when Narmer unified Egypt and established the first dynasty.
Question 32: In which country is the “Great Wall” located? A) India B) China C) Japan D) Vietnam
Answer
Answer: B) China Explanation: The Great Wall of China was built in ancient times to defend against foreign invasions.
Question 33: Where was Genghis Khan born? A) China B) Mongolia C) India D) Russia
Answer
Answer: B) Mongolia Explanation: Genghis Khan was born in Mongolia. He founded the Mongol Empire and conquered a vast territory.
Question 34: Which U.S. president played a crucial role in the construction of the Panama Canal? A) Theodore Roosevelt B) Woodrow Wilson C) Franklin D. Roosevelt D) Abraham Lincoln
Answer
Answer: A) Theodore Roosevelt Explanation: Theodore Roosevelt played a significant role in the construction of the Panama Canal, which was completed in 1914, providing a navigational route between the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
Question 35: In which decade did colonialism come to an end? A) 1940s B) 1950s C) 1960s D) 1970s
Answer
Answer: C) 1960s Explanation: Colonialism largely ended in the 1960s when many African and Asian countries gained independence from colonial powers.
Question 36: In which country was the center of the Renaissance? A) France B) England C) Italy D) Spain
Answer
Answer: C) Italy Explanation: The Renaissance was centered in Italy, particularly in Florence, Venice, and Rome, where major advancements in art, literature, and science took place.
Question 37: Who was one of the main revolutionary leaders during the French Revolution? A) Maximilien Robespierre B) Louis XVI C) Napoleon Bonaparte D) Georges Danton
Answer
Answer: A) Maximilien Robespierre Explanation: Maximilien Robespierre was a key revolutionary leader during the French Revolution and played a crucial role in its radical phase.
Question 38: When was the World Trade Organization (WTO) established? A) 1995 B) 1990 C) 2000 D) 1985
Answer
Answer: A) 1995 Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established in 1995. It is responsible for regulating global trade and resolving international trade disputes.
Question 39: Which war established the modern European balance of power? A) Seven Years’ War B) Thirty Years’ War C) Napoleonic Wars D) French Revolution
Answer
Answer: A) Seven Years’ War Explanation: The Seven Years’ War (1756–1763) established the modern European balance of power, leading to a global redistribution of power between Britain and France.
Question 40: What was the first constitution of France after the French Revolution? A) Constitution of 1791 B) Constitution of 1789 C) Constitution of 1804 D) Constitution of 1795
Answer
Answer: A) Constitution of 1791 Explanation: The Constitution of 1791 was the first constitution of France after the French Revolution. It established a constitutional monarchy, limiting the powers of the king.
Question 41: Who became the first President of Russia after the dissolution of the Soviet Union?
A) Mikhail Gorbachev B) Boris Yeltsin C) Vladimir Putin D) Nikita Khrushchev
Answer
Answer:B) Boris Yeltsin Explanation: After the dissolution of the Soviet Union, Boris Yeltsin became the first President of Russia. He served from 1991 to 1999.
Question 42: The “Cold War” was fought between which two countries?
A) USA and Japan B) USA and Soviet Union C) Britain and France D) Germany and Italy
Answer
Answer:B) USA and Soviet Union Explanation: The Cold War was an ideological and political conflict between the USA and the Soviet Union after World War II, lasting from 1947 to 1991.
Question 43: In which year was the Berlin Wall brought down?
A) 1987 B) 1989 C) 1991 D) 1993
Answer
Answer:B) 1989 Explanation: The Berlin Wall was demolished in 1989, marking the reunification of East and West Germany and signaling the end of the Cold War.
Question 44: When did the “D-Day” operation take place during World War II?
A) 1941 B) 1942 C) 1944 D) 1945
Answer
Answer:C) 1944 Explanation: The D-Day operation took place on June 6, 1944, when Allied forces landed in Normandy, France. This was a crucial step in defeating Nazi Germany.
Question 45: Where did the “Renaissance” begin?
A) England B) France C) Italy D) Germany
Answer
Answer:C) Italy Explanation: The Renaissance began in Florence, Italy, during the 14th to 17th centuries. It led to major advancements in art, science, and culture.
Question 46: Who established democracy in Athens?
A) Solon B) Pericles C) Aristotle D) Plato
Answer
Answer:B) Pericles Explanation: Under the leadership of Pericles, democracy was established in Athens. He encouraged civic participation and made Athens a cultural and political hub.
Question 47: In which battle was the great French leader Napoleon Bonaparte defeated?
A) Battle of Waterloo B) Battle of Trafalgar C) Battle of Leipzig D) Battle of Austerlitz
Answer
Answer:A) Battle of Waterloo Explanation: Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated in the Battle of Waterloo in 1815. After this defeat, he was exiled, bringing peace to Europe.
Question 48: Who was the first Emperor of Rome?
A) Nero B) Julius Caesar C) Augustus D) Caligula
Answer
Answer:C) Augustus Explanation: Augustus was the first Emperor of Rome. He was the successor of Julius Caesar and expanded the Roman Empire during his reign.
Question 49: In which country did the “Industrial Revolution” first begin?
A) Germany B) France C) Britain D) United States
Answer
Answer:C) Britain Explanation: The Industrial Revolution started in Britain in the mid-18th century. It brought revolutionary changes in production methods and had a global economic impact.
Question 50: In which country did the Bolshevik Revolution take place?
A) China B) Russia C) Cuba D) Vietnam
Answer
Answer:B) Russia Explanation: The Bolshevik Revolution occurred in Russia in 1917, leading to the rise of communism and the establishment of the Soviet Union under Vladimir Lenin.
Question 51: In which year did the American War of Independence end?
A) 1776 B) 1781 C) 1783 D) 1791
Answer
Answer: C) 1783 Explanation: The American War of Independence ended in 1783 with the Treaty of Paris, in which Britain recognized the independence of the 13 American colonies.
Question 52: Along which river did the ancient Egyptian civilization develop?
A) Tigris B) Yangtze C) Nile D) Indus
Answer
Answer: C) Nile Explanation: The ancient Egyptian civilization developed along the Nile River. The annual flooding of the Nile provided the necessary resources for agriculture and survival.
Question 53: Who led the Allied Powers during World War II?
A) Winston Churchill B) Adolf Hitler C) Joseph Stalin D) Franklin D. Roosevelt
Answer
Answer: A) Winston Churchill Explanation: Winston Churchill led the Allied Powers during World War II and played a crucial role in the fight against Nazi Germany.
Question 54: Who is known as the “Founder of Revolutionary China”?
A) Chiang Kai-shek B) Mao Zedong C) Sun Yat-sen D) Deng Xiaoping
Answer
Answer: B) Mao Zedong Explanation: Mao Zedong is known as the “Founder of Revolutionary China.” He established the People’s Republic of China in 1949 and laid the foundation for communist rule in China.
Question 55: In which year did the Glorious Revolution of England take place?
A) 1642 B) 1688 C) 1701 D) 1789
Answer
Answer: B) 1688 Explanation: The Glorious Revolution of England took place in 1688. It was a peaceful revolution in which King James II was deposed, and his daughter Mary and her husband, William of Orange, were installed as rulers. This revolution laid the foundation for constitutional governance in England, establishing parliamentary supremacy over the monarchy.
Question 56: From which country did the European Renaissance begin?
A) England B) France C) Italy D) Greece
Answer
Answer: C) Italy Explanation: The European Renaissance was a cultural and intellectual movement that marked a revival in art, science, and literature after the Middle Ages. It began in Italy in the late 14th century and lasted until the 17th century.
Question 57: Who was the Mughal emperor during the Revolt of 1857?
A) Akbar B) Shah Alam C) Bahadur Shah Zafar D) Shah Jahan
Answer
Answer: C) Bahadur Shah Zafar Explanation: Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor during the Revolt of 1857, also known as the First War of Indian Independence. He was seen as a symbolic leader by the rebels and led the uprising in Delhi against British rule.
Question 58: When did Alexander invade India?
A) 326 BCE B) 356 BCE C) 300 BCE D) 250 BCE
Answer
Answer: A) 326 BCE Explanation: Alexander invaded India in 326 BCE and fought the Battle of Hydaspes against King Porus on the banks of the Jhelum River.
Question 59: When was Bangladesh established?
A) 1972 B) 1971 C) 1970 D) 1975
Answer
Answer: B) 1971 Explanation: In 1971, Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and the Awami League declared independence for Bangladesh on March 26. This led to the liberation of Bangladesh from Pakistan.
Question 60: Who discovered the Harappan civilization?
A) Alexander Cunningham B) Robert Bruce Foote C) Dayaram Sahni D) John Marshall
Answer
Answer: C) Dayaram Sahni Explanation: The Harappan civilization was discovered in 1921 by Dayaram Sahni. He was an official of the Archaeological Survey of India and conducted excavations at Harappa (now in Pakistan). Later, this civilization was termed the Indus Valley Civilization, one of the world’s oldest civilizations.
Uttar Pradesh General Knowledge MCQs questions for Competitive Exams. Important questions practice set from previous year papers of UPSSSC exams in English.
Question 1: On which of the following dates is Uttar Pradesh Foundation Day celebrated?
A) March 10 B) January 24 C) December 21 D) June 23
Answer
Answer: B) January 24 Explanation: On January 24, 1950, the name of the United Provinces was changed to Uttar Pradesh.
Question 2: Which is the largest city in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Meerut B) Agra C) Kanpur D) Varanasi
Answer
Answer: C) Kanpur Explanation: Kanpur is the largest city in Uttar Pradesh and is also known for its industrial sector.
Question 3: What is the state bird of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Peacock B) Sarus Crane C) Crow D) Pigeon
Answer
Answer: B) Sarus Crane Explanation: The state bird of Uttar Pradesh is the ‘Sarus Crane’ (Grus antigone). It is the tallest flying bird in India, with a height of 5 to 6 feet. It can be easily recognized by its long neck, bright red head, and white wings. The Sarus Crane is mainly found in the plains of Uttar Pradesh.
Question 4: Through which of the following districts does the Ganga River flow in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Ballia B) Prayagraj C) Gorakhpur D) Agra
Answer
Answer: B) Prayagraj Explanation: In Uttar Pradesh, the Ganga and Yamuna rivers meet at Prayagraj.
Question 5: What is the state animal of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Elephant B) Barasingha (Swamp Deer) C) Chital (Spotted Deer) D) Ganges Dolphin
Answer
Answer: B) Barasingha (Swamp Deer) Explanation: The state animal of Uttar Pradesh is the ‘Barasingha’ (Swamp Deer). It is also known as the ‘Swamp Deer’ in local language. It is recognized by its long antlers, which usually have twelve or more branches. The Barasingha is mainly found in grasslands and swampy areas. Dudhwa National Park in Uttar Pradesh is famous for the conservation of Barasingha. This animal was chosen as the state animal to symbolize the state’s biodiversity and wildlife conservation efforts.
Question 6: Which is the major river of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Yamuna B) Gomti C) Ganga D) Saraswati
Answer
Answer: C) Ganga Explanation: The Ganga River is the major river of Uttar Pradesh and holds great significance in Indian culture.
Question 7: Which is the major festival of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Diwali B) Holi C) Makar Sankranti D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: D) All of the above Explanation: In Uttar Pradesh, major festivals like Diwali, Holi, and Makar Sankranti are celebrated with great enthusiasm.
Question 8: Who is the current Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Akhilesh Yadav B) Mayawati C) Yogi Adityanath D) Rahul Gandhi
Answer
Answer: C) Yogi Adityanath Explanation: Yogi Adityanath is the current Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. He assumed office in 2017.
Question 9: Where is the famous “Buland Darwaza” located in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Agra B) Lucknow C) Fatehpur Sikri D) Varanasi
Answer
Answer: C) Fatehpur Sikri Explanation: The famous “Buland Darwaza” is located in Fatehpur Sikri, Uttar Pradesh. It was built by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1601 to commemorate his victory over Gujarat. This gate is an architectural marvel and is considered the highest entrance gate in the world, standing approximately 54 meters tall. It is made of red sandstone.
Question 10: In which district of Uttar Pradesh is diamond found?
A) Banda B) Lalitpur C) Varanasi D) Jaunpur
Answer
Answer: A) Banda Explanation: Diamonds are found in Banda district, which is located in the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh. In Banda, diamonds are extracted from deep mines.
Question 11: Which of the following universities is located in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Indraprastha University B) Banaras Hindu University C) Takshashila University D) Ambedkar University
Answer
Answer: B) Banaras Hindu University Explanation: Banaras Hindu University (BHU) is a prominent university in Uttar Pradesh and is globally renowned.
Question 12: Where is Chaukhandi Stupa located in Uttar Pradesh?
a) Agra b) Varanasi c) Lucknow d) Sarnath
Answer
Answer: d) Sarnath Explanation: Chaukhandi Stupa is located in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh. It is associated with Buddhism and important events in the life of Gautam Buddha.
Question 13: Which state borders Uttar Pradesh in the north?
A) Haryana B) Bihar C) Uttarakhand D) Rajasthan
Answer
Answer: C) Uttarakhand Explanation: Uttarakhand is located to the north of Uttar Pradesh.
Question 14: Which is the largest district in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Lucknow B) Allahabad C) Lakhimpur Kheri D) Saharanpur
Answer
Answer: C) Lakhimpur Kheri Explanation: Lakhimpur Kheri, situated on the India-Nepal border, is the largest district in Uttar Pradesh.
Question 15: Which major fair is held in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Kumbh Mela B) Surajkund Mela C) Kite Festival D) Dussehra Fair
Answer
Answer: A) Kumbh Mela Explanation: Kumbh Mela is held every four years in Prayagraj (Allahabad) and is the largest religious gathering in the world.
Question 16: Who founded the city of Agra?
A) Bahlol Lodi B) Firoz Tughlaq C) Khizr Khan D) Sikandar Lodi
Answer
Answer: D) Sikandar Lodi Explanation: Sikandar Lodi founded the city of Agra in 1504 AD. It was an important city of the Mughal Empire.
Question 17: What is the main language of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Hindi B) Urdu C) English D) Punjabi
Answer
Answer: A) Hindi Explanation: Hindi is the primary language of Uttar Pradesh and holds a significant place in the state’s governance and education system.
Question 18: What are the major industries in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Textile B) Information Technology C) Agriculture D) Automobile
Answer
Answer: C) Agriculture Explanation: Uttar Pradesh is an agriculture-based state where wheat, rice, and sugarcane are the main crops.
Question 19: In which region of Uttar Pradesh is gold found?
A) Gomti – Ghaghra Rivers B) Gomti – Sharda Rivers C) Sharda – Ramganga Rivers D) Sharda – Ghaghra Rivers
Answer
Answer: C) Sharda – Ramganga Rivers
Question 20: What is the area of Uttar Pradesh?
a) 2,40,928 sq. km b) 3,00,000 sq. km c) 1,94,024 sq. km d) 2,10,000 sq. km
Answer
Answer: a) 2,40,928 sq. km Explanation: Uttar Pradesh covers an area of 2,40,928 sq. km, making it the fourth largest state in India. It shares borders with 9 states and holds significant importance in agriculture, population, and cultural heritage.
Question 21: Where is the ‘Sangam’ located in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Ganga and Yamuna B) Ganga and Yamunashar C) Yamuna and Saraswati D) Ganga and Gomti
Answer
Answer: A) Ganga and Yamuna Explanation: The confluence of the Ganga, Yamuna, and Saraswati rivers is known as the ‘Sangam’ and is located in Prayagraj.
Question 22: During which festival is the Kumbh Mela held in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Diwali B) Holi C) Magh Mela D) Dussehra
Answer
Answer: C) Magh Mela Explanation: Kumbh Mela is held during the month of Magh in Prayagraj and is of great religious significance.
Question 23: Which district in Uttar Pradesh is called the ‘Land of Saints’?
A) Mathura B) Kanpur C) Varanasi D) Agra
Answer
Answer: C) Varanasi Explanation: Varanasi is called the ‘Land of Saints’ as it has been home to many renowned saints and sages.
Question 24: Which city in Uttar Pradesh is famous for the leather industry?
A) Saharanpur B) Varanasi C) Kanpur D) Jhansi
Answer
Answer: C) Kanpur Explanation: Kanpur is known for its leather industry.
Question 25: Where is Shri Kashi Vishwanath Temple located?
A) Ayodhya B) Allahabad C) Varanasi D) Lucknow
Answer
Answer: C) Varanasi Explanation: The Kashi Vishwanath Temple is located in Varanasi and is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Question 26: Which country shares a border with Uttar Pradesh?
A) Pakistan B) Nepal C) China D) Bangladesh
Answer
Answer: B) Nepal Explanation: Uttar Pradesh shares its border with Nepal, located in the northeastern region of India.
Question 27: Through which major city does the Gomti River flow in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Lucknow B) Varanasi C) Kanpur D) Allahabad
Answer
Answer: A) Lucknow Explanation: The Gomti River flows through Lucknow and is a river of regional significance.
Question 28: Which district in Uttar Pradesh is famous for its ‘Tiger Reserve’?
A) Lakhimpur B) Gorakhpur C) Dudhwa D) Sultanpur
Answer
Answer: C) Dudhwa Explanation: Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is located in Lakhimpur district and is home to tigers and other wildlife species.
Question 29: What is the state tree of Uttar Pradesh?
a) Peepal b) Ashoka c) Neem d) Bael
Answer
Answer: b) Ashoka Explanation: The state tree of Uttar Pradesh is ‘Ashoka’ (Saraca asoca), which holds great cultural and religious significance in India.
Question 30: Which part of Uttar Pradesh is known as the ‘Sugarcane Belt’?
A) Purvanchal B) Bundelkhand C) Western Uttar Pradesh D) Central Uttar Pradesh
Answer
Answer: C) Western Uttar Pradesh Explanation: Western Uttar Pradesh is known as the ‘Sugarcane Belt’ due to its extensive sugarcane cultivation.
Question 31: Which famous ‘bathing’ site is located in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Haridwar B) Prayagraj C) Rishikesh D) Shirdi
Answer
Answer: B) Prayagraj Explanation: People from all over the world come to bathe at the Sangam in Prayagraj, especially during the Kumbh Mela.
Question 32: Which is the major commercial center of Uttar Pradesh?
A) Noida B) Ghaziabad C) Lucknow D) Kanpur
Answer
Answer: D) Kanpur Explanation: Kanpur is the major commercial center of Uttar Pradesh and is known for its industrial activities.
Question 33: With which state does Uttar Pradesh share its southern border?
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Bihar C) Rajasthan D) Uttarakhand
Answer
Answer: A) Madhya Pradesh Explanation: Uttar Pradesh shares its southern border with Madhya Pradesh.
Question 34: In which place of Uttar Pradesh is the memory of ‘Rani Lakshmibai’ preserved?
A) Kanpur B) Jhansi C) Lucknow D) Agra
Answer
Answer: B) Jhansi Explanation: The memory of Rani Lakshmibai is preserved in Jhansi, where she fought against the British East India Company.
Question 35: ‘Bodh Gaya’ in Uttar Pradesh is famous for which great personality?
A) Buddha B) Mahavira C) Ram D) Krishna
Answer
Answer: A) Buddha Explanation: Bodh Gaya is famous as the place where Buddha attained enlightenment, although it is located in Bihar.
Question 36: Which is a major ‘cultural site’ in Uttar Pradesh?
A) New Delhi B) Banaras C) Shimla D) Kashmir
Answer
Answer: B) Banaras Explanation: Banaras is famous as a cultural and religious site, showcasing the vibrant essence of Indian traditions.
Question 37: In which city of Uttar Pradesh is ‘Hazratganj’ located?
A) Kanpur B) Lucknow C) Varanasi D) Agra
Answer
Answer: B) Lucknow Explanation: Hazratganj is a major commercial and cultural hub in Lucknow.
Question 38: ‘Kaiserbagh’ in Uttar Pradesh is famous for which major landmark?
A) Historical Palace B) Religious Site C) Industrial Area D) Museum
Answer
Answer: A) Historical Palace Explanation: Kaiserbagh is a historical palace located in Lucknow, built during the era of the Nawabs.
Question 39: What is the birthplace of ‘Sant Ravidas’ in Uttar Pradesh?
A) Varanasi B) Lucknow C) Allahabad D) Agra
Answer
Answer: A) Varanasi Explanation: Sant Ravidas was born in Varanasi, where he became known for his religious and social teachings.
Question 40: The ‘Kannauj’ district of Uttar Pradesh is famous for which product?
A) Tea B) Perfume C) Knives D) Cottage Industry
Answer
Answer: B) Perfume Explanation: Kannauj is famous for its production of perfumes, and its traditional perfume-making techniques are ancient.
Question 41: Where is the Buland Darwaza located in Uttar Pradesh? A) Kanpur B) Delhi C) Lucknow D) Fatehpur Sikri
Answer
Answer: D) Fatehpur Sikri Buland Darwaza is located in Fatehpur Sikri, Agra district. It was built by Emperor Akbar.
Question 42: The ‘Satavahana’ in Uttar Pradesh is related to which field? A) Pandavas B) Maurya C) Buddhist D) Rajput
Answer
Answer: C) Buddhist Satavahana is associated with the Buddhist era. Uttar Pradesh has many important Buddhist sites.
Question 43: What is ‘Saharanpur’ in Uttar Pradesh famous for? A) Tea B) Wooden handicrafts C) Cottage industries D) Herbal medicines
Answer
Answer: B) Wooden handicrafts Saharanpur is famous for its high-quality wooden handicrafts and carvings.
Question 44: Vrindavan in Uttar Pradesh is famous for which religious site? A) Krishna B) Ram C) Shiva D) Ganesha
Answer
Answer: A) Krishna Vrindavan is known for Lord Krishna’s temples and is an important pilgrimage site.
Question 45: What is ‘Hardoi’ in Uttar Pradesh famous for? A) Tea B) Flower cultivation C) Religious sites D) Cottage industries
Answer
Answer: B) Flower cultivation Hardoi is known for its flower farming, and its flowers are of excellent quality.
Question 46: Uttar Pradesh’s ‘Mathura’ is famous for which major religious site? A) Ganga B) Krishna Janmabhoomi C) Maheshwari D) Ram Janmabhoomi
Answer
Answer: B) Krishna Janmabhoomi Mathura is the birthplace of Lord Krishna and a major religious site.
Question 47: Where is the ‘Secretariat’ in Uttar Pradesh located? A) Allahabad B) Lucknow C) Varanasi D) Agra
Answer
Answer: B) Lucknow The Secretariat of Uttar Pradesh is in Lucknow, the state capital.
Question 48: Where is the High Court of Uttar Pradesh located? A) Lucknow B) Prayagraj C) Agra D) Meerut
Answer
Answer: B) Prayagraj The main High Court of Uttar Pradesh is in Prayagraj, with a bench in Lucknow.
Question 49: What is the main folk dance of Uttar Pradesh? A) Dhobiya B) Nautanki C) Shayara D) Neelam
Answer
Answer: B) Nautanki Nautanki is a popular folk dance and theatre form in Uttar Pradesh.
Question 50: What is the headquarters of Gautam Buddha Nagar district? A) Greater Noida B) Ghaziabad C) Ramabai Nagar D) Noida
Answer
Answer: D) Noida The district headquarters of Gautam Buddha Nagar is in Greater Noida.
Question 51: Which is the highest dam in Uttar Pradesh? A) Matatila B) Meja C) Rihand D) Ramganga
Answer
Answer: D) Ramganga Ramganga Dam is located in Moradabad district and is built on the Ramganga River.
Question 52: Where is the first open university of Uttar Pradesh located? A) Agra B) Jhansi C) Prayagraj D) Delhi
Answer
Answer: C) Prayagraj Uttar Pradesh Rajarshi Tandon Open University is in Prayagraj, named after Rajarshi Purushottam Das Tandon.
Important National and International Days GK MCQs Questions for Competitive Exams. Medium: English
Important Days and Dates GK MCQs
Question 1: When is Republic Day celebrated?
A) 15th August B) 2nd October C) 26th January D) 14th November
Answer
Answer: C) 26th January Explanation: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January in India because the Indian Constitution was implemented on this day in 1950.
Question 2: When is Independence Day celebrated?
A) 15th August B) 26th January C) 2nd October D) 5th September
Answer
Answer: A) 15th August Explanation: India gained independence from British rule on 15th August 1947, so this day is celebrated as Independence Day.
Question 3: When is Gandhi Jayanti celebrated?
A) 5th September B) 14th November C) 2nd October D) 1st May
Answer
Answer: C) 2nd October Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was born on 2nd October 1869, so this day is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti.
Question 4: When is Teacher’s Day celebrated?
A) 5th September B) 14th November C) 2nd October D) 26th January
Answer
Answer: A) 5th September Explanation: Teacher’s Day is celebrated on 5th September to honor Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, India’s first Vice President and second President.
Question 5: When is Children’s Day celebrated?
A) 2nd October B) 14th November C) 26th January D) 1st May
Answer
Answer: B) 14th November Explanation: Children’s Day is celebrated on 14th November, the birth anniversary of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, reflecting his love for children.
Question 6: When is National Unity Day celebrated?
A) 31st October B) 8th March C) 5th September D) 1st July
Answer
Answer: A) 31st October Explanation: National Unity Day is celebrated on 31st October to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Question 7: When is Constitution Day celebrated?
A) 26th November B) 15th August C) 26th January D) 14th April
Answer
Answer: A) 26th November Explanation: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November as the Indian Constitution was adopted on this day in 1949.
Question 8: When is Doctor’s Day celebrated?
A) 1st July B) 5th September C) 14th November D) 21st June
Answer
Answer: A) 1st July Explanation: Doctor’s Day is celebrated on 1st July in honor of Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy, a renowned physician and former Chief Minister of West Bengal.
Question 9: When is International Women’s Day celebrated?
A) 8th March B) 14th November C) 31st October D) 1st May
Answer
Answer: A) 8th March Explanation: International Women’s Day is celebrated on 8th March to raise awareness of women’s rights and equality.
Question 10: When is World Environment Day celebrated?
A) 22nd April B) 5th June C) 1st July D) 14th November
Answer
Answer: B) 5th June Explanation: World Environment Day is celebrated on 5th June to promote awareness about environmental conservation.
Question 11: When is International Workers’ Day celebrated?
A) 1 May B) 5 June C) 31 May D) 2 October
Answer
Answer: A) 1 May
Explanation: International Workers’ Day is celebrated on 1 May to honor the rights and contributions of workers.
Question 12: When is National Science Day celebrated?
A) 28 February B) 14 March C) 5 June D) 12 January
Answer
Answer: A) 28 February
Explanation: National Science Day is celebrated on 28 February to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect by Dr. C.V. Raman.
Question 13: When is International Yoga Day celebrated?
A) 21 June B) 1 July C) 15 August D) 5 September
Answer
Answer: A) 21 June
Explanation: International Yoga Day is celebrated on 21 June to promote the benefits of yoga.
Question 14: When is National Youth Day celebrated?
A) 12 January B) 5 September C) 2 October D) 26 January
Answer
Answer: A) 12 January
Explanation: National Youth Day is celebrated on 12 January in honor of the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.
Question 15: When is World AIDS Day celebrated?
A) 1 December B) 14 November C) 5 June D) 31 March
Answer
Answer: A) 1 December
Explanation: World AIDS Day is celebrated on 1 December to raise awareness about HIV/AIDS.
Question 16: When is World Water Day celebrated?
A) 22 March B) 5 June C) 1 May D) 8 March
Answer
Answer: A) 22 March
Explanation: World Water Day is celebrated on 22 March to highlight the importance of water conservation and management.
Question 17: When is National Sports Day celebrated?
A) 29 August B) 24 September C) 15 August D) 5 July
Answer
Answer: A) 29 August
Explanation: National Sports Day is celebrated on 29 August to honor the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand.
Question 18: When is World Population Day celebrated?
A) 11 July B) 1 May C) 14 November D) 2 October
Answer
Answer: A) 11 July
Explanation: World Population Day is celebrated on 11 July to raise awareness about population-related issues and challenges.
Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?
A) 22 April B) 5 June C) 31 May D) 1 July
Answer
Answer: A) 22 April
Explanation: Earth Day is celebrated on 22 April to raise awareness about environmental protection and sustainable development.
Question 20: When is International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women celebrated?
A) 25 November B) 8 March C) 10 December D) 5 June
Answer
Answer: A) 25 November
Explanation: The International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women is celebrated on 25 November to aim at ending violence against women.
Question 21: When is World Book Day celebrated?
A) 23 April B) 22 March C) 1 May D) 14 November
Answer
Answer: A) 23 April
Explanation: 23 April is celebrated as World Book and Copyright Day to raise awareness about literature and reading.
Question 22: When is World Mother’s Day celebrated?
A) Second Sunday of May B) 21 June C) 14 November D) 31 October
Answer
Answer: A) Second Sunday of May
Explanation: Mother’s Day is celebrated on the second Sunday of May in honor of mothers.
Question 23: When is World Peace Day celebrated?
A) 21 September B) 1 May C) 8 March D) 31 December
Answer
Answer: A) 21 September
Explanation: 21 September is celebrated as World Peace Day to dedicate efforts towards peace and non-violence.
Question 24: When is World Human Rights Day celebrated?
A) 10 December B) 1 May C) 5 June D) 14 November
Answer
Answer: A) 10 December
Explanation: 10 December is observed as World Human Rights Day to honor the United Nations’ declaration on human rights.
Question 25: When is International Labour Organization Day celebrated?
A) 28 April B) 1 May C) 8 March D) 22 March
Answer
Answer: A) 28 April
Explanation: 28 April is observed as International Labour Organization Day to raise awareness about workplace safety and health.
Question 26: When is World Food Day celebrated?
A) 16 October B) 1 July C) 22 April D) 5 September
Answer
Answer: A) 16 October
Explanation: 16 October is celebrated as World Food Day to raise awareness about food security and hunger issues.
Question 27: When is National Safety Day celebrated?
A) 4 March B) 15 August C) 26 January D) 5 September
Answer
Answer: A) 4 March
Explanation: 4 March is celebrated as National Safety Day to spread awareness about industrial safety.
Question 28: When is World Red Cross Day celebrated?
A) 8 May B) 14 June C) 1 December D) 16 October
Answer
Answer: A) 8 May
Explanation: 8 May is observed as World Red Cross Day to honor the work of the International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement.
Question 29: When is World Blood Donor Day celebrated?
A) 14 June B) 1 July C) 5 June D) 8 March
Answer
Answer: A) 14 June
Explanation: 14 June is observed as World Blood Donor Day to raise awareness about the importance of blood donation and saving lives.
Question 30: When is International Nurses Day celebrated?
A) 12 May B) 5 July C) 14 November D) 31 August
Answer
Answer: A) 12 May
Explanation: 12 May is celebrated as International Nurses Day on the birth anniversary of Florence Nightingale.
Question 31: When is World TB (Tuberculosis) Day celebrated?
A) 24 March B) 5 June C) 14 November D) 1 July
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 24 March Explanation: World TB Day is celebrated on 24 March to raise awareness about tuberculosis disease.
Question 32: When is World Tiger Day celebrated?
A) 29 July B) 5 June C) 1 May D) 21 June
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 29 July Explanation: World Tiger Day is celebrated on 29 July to raise awareness for tiger conservation.
Question 33: When is World Consumer Rights Day celebrated?
A) 15 March B) 1 May C) 2 October D) 24 January
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 15 March Explanation: World Consumer Rights Day is celebrated on 15 March to promote consumer rights.
Question 34: When is International Literacy Day celebrated?
A) 8 September B) 5 June C) 31 May D) 1 July
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 8 September Explanation: International Literacy Day is celebrated on 8 September to promote the importance of education and literacy.
Question 35: When is World Health Day celebrated?
A) 7 April B) 5 June C) 31 May D) 1 December
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 7 April Explanation: World Health Day is celebrated on 7 April, commemorating the foundation of the World Health Organization (WHO).
Question 36: When is World Hepatitis Day celebrated?
A) 28 July B) 5 June C) 14 November D) 21 June
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 28 July Explanation: World Hepatitis Day is celebrated on 28 July to raise awareness about hepatitis.
Question 37: When is World Malaria Day celebrated?
A) 25 April B) 7 April C) 1 May D) 5 June
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 25 April Explanation: World Malaria Day is celebrated on 25 April to raise awareness about malaria.
Question 38: When is International Family Day celebrated?
A) 15 May B) 5 June C) 14 April D) 8 March
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 15 May Explanation: International Family Day is celebrated on 15 May to highlight the importance of families.
Question 39: When is World Cancer Day celebrated?
A) 4 February B) 5 June C) 31 May D) 8 March
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: A) 4 February Explanation: World Cancer Day is celebrated on 4 February to raise awareness about cancer.
Question 40: When is National Space Day celebrated in India?
A) 20 July B) 23 August C) 15 September D) 4 October
Answer
Answer] Correct Answer: B) 23 August Explanation: National Space Day is celebrated on 23 August to highlight India’s achievements in space exploration.
Question 41: When is National Voters’ Day celebrated?
A) 25th January B) 1st July C) 14th November D) 31st May
Answer
Answer: A) 25th January
Explanation: National Voters’ Day is celebrated on 25th January to promote the importance of voting.
Question 42: When is World Sight Day celebrated?
A) Second Thursday of October B) 5th June C) 14th November D) 1st May
Answer
Answer: A) Second Thursday of October
Explanation: World Sight Day is celebrated on the second Thursday of October to raise awareness about eye health.
Question 43: When is International Day of the Girl Child celebrated?
A) 11th October B) 14th November C) 8th March D) 21st June
Answer
Answer: A) 11th October
Explanation: International Day of the Girl Child is celebrated on 11th October to raise awareness about girls’ rights and education.
Question 44: When is Constitution Maker Day celebrated?
A) 26th November B) 14th April C) 15th August D) 2nd October
Answer
Answer: B) 14th April
Explanation: Constitution Maker Day is celebrated on 14th April, the birth anniversary of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution.
Question 45: When is Universal Children’s Day celebrated?
A) 20th November B) 14th November C) 2nd October D) 1st May
Answer
Answer: A) 20th November
Explanation: Universal Children’s Day is celebrated on 20th November to raise awareness about children’s rights and welfare.
Question 46: When is International Day of Older Persons celebrated?
A) 1st October B) 14th November C) 2nd October D) 5th September
Answer
Answer: A) 1st October
Explanation: International Day of Older Persons is celebrated on 1st October to honor the elderly and reflect on society’s responsibilities toward them.
Question 47: When is International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction celebrated?
A) Second Wednesday of October B) 5th June C) 31st May D) 1st July
Answer
Answer: A) Second Wednesday of October
Explanation: International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction is celebrated on the second Wednesday of October to promote disaster preparedness.
Question 48: When is Human Rights Day celebrated?
A) 10th December B) 1st July C) 14th November D) 22nd March
Answer
Answer: A) 10th December
Explanation: Human Rights Day is celebrated on 10th December to raise awareness about human rights and their protection.
Question 49: When is World Heart Day celebrated?
A) 29th September B) 5th June C) 31st May D) 14th November
Answer
Answer: A) 29th September
Explanation: World Heart Day is celebrated on 29th September to raise awareness about heart health and related diseases.
Question 50: When is World Hearing Day celebrated?
A) 3rd March B) 5th June C) 8th March D) 14th November
Answer
Answer: A) 3rd March
Explanation: World Hearing Day is celebrated on 3rd March to raise awareness about hearing health.
Question 51: When is World Tourism Day celebrated?
A) 27th September B) 1st May C) 5th June D) 14th November
Answer
Answer: A) 27th September] Explanation: World Tourism Day is celebrated on 27th September to highlight the importance of tourism and the preservation of cultural heritage.
Question 52: When is World Wildlife Day celebrated?
A) 3rd March B) 5th June C) 1st May D) 21st June
Answer
Answer: A) 3rd March] Explanation: World Wildlife Day is celebrated on 3rd March to raise awareness about wildlife conservation and biodiversity.
Question 53: When is Hindi Day celebrated?
A) 14th September B) 15th August C) 26th January D) 2nd October
Answer
Answer: A) 14th September] Explanation: Hindi Day is celebrated on 14th September as on this day in 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted Hindi as the official language of the country.
Question 54: When is Partition Horrors Remembrance Day celebrated?
A) 15th August B) 14th August C) 26th January D) 2nd October
Answer
Answer: B) 14th August] Explanation: Partition Horrors Remembrance Day, also known as Partition Horrors Memorial Day, is observed on 14th August every year in India.
Question 55: When is Kargil Vijay Diwas celebrated?
A) 26th June B) 26th July C) 26th August D) 26th September
Answer
Answer: B) 26th July] Explanation: Kargil Vijay Diwas is celebrated on 26th July every year to commemorate the success of “Operation Vijay” in 1999, during which the Indian Army recaptured strategic positions in the Kargil sector from Pakistani intruders.
Question 56: When is National Navy Day celebrated in India?
A) 26th January B) 15th August C) 4th December D) 10th November
Answer
Answer: C) 4th December] Explanation: National Navy Day is celebrated on 4th December in India to commemorate the success of “Operation Trident” during the 1971 Indo-Pak war, when the Indian Navy attacked Pakistan’s Karachi port.
Question 57: When is International Ozone Day celebrated?
A) 5th June B) 16th September C) 22nd April D) 10th December
Answer
Answer: B) 16th September] Explanation: International Ozone Day is observed on 16th September every year to mark the adoption of the “Montreal Protocol,” which represents global efforts to protect the ozone layer.
Question 58: When is Farmer’s Day celebrated in India?
A) 26th January B) 15th August C) 23rd December D) 5th June
Answer
Answer: C) 23rd December] Explanation: Farmer’s Day is celebrated on 23rd December in India to honor the contributions of farmers. The day marks the birth anniversary of Chaudhary Charan Singh, the 5th Prime Minister of India.
Question 59: When is Biodiversity Day celebrated?
A) 22nd May B) 5th July C) 12th March D) 28th February
Answer
Answer: A) 22nd May] Explanation: Biodiversity Day is celebrated on 22nd May every year. It marks the anniversary of the adoption of the Convention on Biological Diversity at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.
Question 60: When is “Constitution Murder Day” observed?
A) 26th January B) 25th June C) 15th August D) 2nd October
Answer
Answer: B) 25th June] Explanation: The Government of India declared that 25th June will be observed as “Constitution Murder Day” to honor those who opposed and fought against the injustice during the Emergency period.
Chemistry GK MCQs for Competitive Exams for free online practice. Collection of Important previous year questions for preparation of upcoming SSC,RRB examinations.
Chemistry GK MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following dietary components provides the maximum energy per gram to humans?
A) Carbohydrates B) Fats C) Fibers D) Proteins
Answer
Answer: B) Fats] Explanation: Fats are the primary source of energy in our diet. 1 gram of fat provides 9.5 kilocalories of energy, which is the highest among food components.
Question 2: Which of the following is a noble gas?
A) Ozone B) Nitrogen C) Hydrogen D) Helium
Answer
Answer: D) Helium] Explanation: A noble gas is one that typically does not participate in chemical reactions and is always available in a free state.
Question 3: Which of the following elements belongs to the d-block of the modern periodic table?
A) Na B) Fe C) Ca D) Mg
Answer
Answer: B) Fe] Explanation: From the electronic configurations of elements, it is evident that Fe belongs to the d-block because its outermost electron occupies the d-orbital.
Question 4: According to the modern periodic table, which element has the atomic number 30?
A) Co B) Ni C) Zn D) Fe
Answer
Answer: C) Zn] Explanation: Zinc is a chemical element with the symbol Zn and atomic number 30.
Question 5: Which iron ore contains the highest amount of iron?
A) Magnetite B) Hematite C) Limonite D) Siderite
Answer
Answer: A) Magnetite] Explanation: Magnetite contains the highest iron content, followed by other ores in the listed order.
Question 6: Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the neutron?
A) Chadwick B) Rutherford C) Niels Bohr D) Roentgen
Answer
Answer: A) Chadwick] Explanation: Sir James Chadwick, a British physicist, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935 for his discovery of the neutron in 1932.
Question 7: What is the chemical name of Plaster of Paris?
A) Calcium hypochlorite B) Calcium carbonate C) Calcium oxide D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate
Answer
Answer: D) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate] Explanation: Plaster of Paris is used for setting broken bones, making sculptures and toys, and producing chalk, among other uses.
Question 8: What is the chemical formula of washing soda?
A) Na2SO4 B) Ca(OH)2 C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O D) NaHCO3
Answer
Answer: C) Na2CO3 . 10H2O] Explanation: Sodium carbonate is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula Na2CO3. It is commonly known as washing soda or soda ash and is used for laundry due to its alkaline nature.
Question 9: In a water molecule, what is the ratio of the masses of hydrogen and oxygen?
A) 1:4 B) 1:8 C) 1:16 D) 1:2
Answer
Answer: B) 1:8] Explanation: The atomic mass of hydrogen is 1 u, and the atomic mass of oxygen is 16 u. Since a water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom, their mass ratio is 2:16 or 1:8.
Question 10: α particles are doubly charged ions of ____________.
A) Beryllium B) Hydrogen C) Helium D) Lithium
Answer
Answer: C) Helium] Explanation: α particles consist of two protons and two neutrons. They are doubly charged helium ions.
Question 11: What is the atomic number of Copper?
A) 29 B) 26 C) 30 D) 32
Answer
Answer: A) 29 Explanation: The atomic number of Copper is 29.
Question 12: What is the most common isotope of Oxygen?
A) O-16 B) O-17 C) O-18 D) O-19
Answer
Answer: A) O-16 Explanation: The most common isotope of Oxygen is O-16, which is found in nature in the highest abundance.
Question 13: What is the chemical name of NH₃ (Ammonia)?
A) Nitrogen Trihydride B) Hydrogen Nitride C) Nitrogen Hydride D) Hydrogen Trinitride
Answer
Answer: C) Nitrogen Hydride Explanation: NH₃ is known as Nitrogen Hydride, commonly referred to as Ammonia.
Question 14: What is the chemical symbol for Mercury?
A) Hg B) Pb C) Au D) Ag
Answer
Answer: A) Hg Explanation: The chemical symbol for Mercury is Hg.
Question 15: Which acid is a harmful enzyme?
A) Hydrochloric Acid B) Sulfuric Acid C) Nitric Acid D) Hydrofluoric Acid
Answer
Answer: A) Hydrochloric Acid Explanation: Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) is essential for digestion in the human stomach, but at high concentrations, it can be harmful.
Question 16: What is the approximate pH value of water?
A) 1 B) 7 C) 14 D) 9
Answer
Answer: B) 7 Explanation: The pH value of water is around 7, making it neutral.
Question 17: Which element exhibits metallic properties?
A) Hydrogen B) Oxygen C) Calcium D) Sulfur
Answer
Answer: C) Calcium Explanation: Calcium is a metal and shows properties similar to other metals.
Question 18: Which chemical is a strong acid?
A) Ethanol B) Acetic Acid C) Sulfuric Acid D) Ammonia
Answer
Answer: C) Sulfuric Acid Explanation: Sulfuric Acid (H₂SO₄) is a very strong acid.
Question 19: What is formed when carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in water?
A) Carbonic Acid B) Hydrochloric Acid C) Sulfuric Acid D) Nitric Acid
Answer
Answer: A) Carbonic Acid Explanation: When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, it forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).
Question 20: Which element has the highest relative atomic mass?
A) Hydrogen B) Helium C) Lithium D) Uranium
Answer
Answer: D) Uranium Explanation: Uranium has the highest relative atomic mass.
Question 21: Which element remains in a gaseous state at room temperature?
A) Iron B) Sodium C) Nitrogen D) Gold
Answer
Answer: C) Nitrogen Explanation: Nitrogen remains in a gaseous state at room temperature.
Question 22: Which metal is the lightest?
A) Lithium B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Magnesium
Answer
Answer: A) Lithium Explanation: Lithium is the lightest metal.
Question 23: What is formed when hydrochloric acid and ammonia react?
A) Ammonium Chloride B) Ammonium Hydroxide C) Hydrogen Chloride D) Hydrochloric Acid
Answer
Answer: A) Ammonium Chloride Explanation: Hydrochloric acid and ammonia combine to form ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl).
Question 24: In chemistry, what does ‘pH’ stand for?
A) Measurement of acidity B) Measurement of basicity C) Measurement of gaseous state D) Measurement of solid state
Answer
Answer: A) Measurement of acidity Explanation: pH measures acidity and basicity.
Question 25: Which acid is a natural acid found in fruits?
A) Sulfuric Acid B) Acetic Acid C) Citric Acid D) Hydrochloric Acid
Answer
Answer: C) Citric Acid Explanation: Citric acid is found in fruits, especially lemons and oranges.
Question 26: Which element has only one electron in its outer shell?
A) Helium B) Hydrogen C) Lithium D) Boron
Answer
Answer: B) Hydrogen Explanation: Hydrogen has only one electron in its outer shell.
Question 27: What is the atomic number of Iron (Fe)?
A) 20 B) 26 C) 29 D) 32
Answer
Answer: B) 26 Explanation: The atomic number of Iron (Fe) is 26.
Question 28: What is the chemical symbol for Silver?
A) Ag B) Au C) Pb D) Hg
Answer
Answer: A) Ag Explanation: The chemical symbol for silver is Ag.
Question 29: Which element is commonly found as a diatomic molecule?
A) Hydrogen B) Sodium C) Calcium D) Iron
Answer
Answer: A) Hydrogen Explanation: Hydrogen is commonly found as H₂.
Question 30: Which gas is produced during the oxidation and burning of water?
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen C) Nitrogen D) Carbon Dioxide
Answer
Answer: B) Hydrogen Explanation: Hydrogen gas is produced during the electrolysis of water.
Question 31: Which acid is predominant in acid rain?
A) Hydrochloric acid B) Sulfuric acid C) Citric acid D) Acetic acid
Answer
Answer: B) Sulfuric acid Explanation: Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) plays a major role in acid rain.
Question 32: Which chemical is used as a pesticide?
A) Cysteine B) Chloroform C) DDT D) Aniline
Answer
Answer: C) DDT Explanation: DDT is used as a pesticide.
Question 33: Which is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?
A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon dioxide D) Argon
Answer
Answer: B) Nitrogen Explanation: Nitrogen makes up 78% of the Earth’s atmosphere.
Question 34: Which element is most commonly used as a salt?
A) Sodium B) Calcium C) Potassium D) Iron
Answer
Answer: A) Sodium Explanation: Sodium is the main element used in common salts like table salt (NaCl).
Question 35: What compound is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen?
A) Methane B) Ammonia C) Water D) Carbon dioxide
Answer
Answer: C) Water Explanation: Water (H₂O) is formed by the combination of oxygen and hydrogen.
Question 36: Which element is used in the production of atomic bombs?
A) Plutonium B) Sodium C) Boron D) Magnesium
Answer
Answer: A) Plutonium Explanation: Plutonium (Pu) is used in the production of atomic bombs.
Question 37: Which substance is used to clean teeth?
A) Calcium carbonate B) Sodium chloride C) Silica D) Glycerine
Answer
Answer: C) Silica Explanation: Silica is used in toothpaste for cleaning teeth.
Question 38: Which substance is called ‘white poison’ in the diet?
A) Salt B) Sugar C) Sodium bicarbonate D) Calcium
Answer
Answer: B) Sugar Explanation: Sugar is often referred to as ‘white poison’ due to its excessive consumption leading to health issues.
Question 39: Which chemical is used to preserve food?
A) Acetic acid B) Sulfur dioxide C) Hydrochloric acid D) Nitric acid
Answer
Answer: B) Sulfur dioxide Explanation: Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is used to preserve food.
Question 40: Which substance is a good conductor of electricity?
A) Wood B) Plastic C) Copper D) Rubber
Answer
Answer: C) Copper Explanation: Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity.
Question 41: Which compound is found in oily color?
A) Carbon dioxide B) Potassium permanganate C) Water D) Sodium chloride
Answer
Answer: B) Potassium permanganate Explanation: Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) has an oily color.
Question 42: What is the chemical symbol of Helium?
A) He B) H C) Hg D) H₂
Answer
Answer: A) He Explanation: The chemical symbol for Helium is He.
Question 43: Which chemical is used to extinguish fire?
A) Carbon dioxide B) Hydrogen C) Ammonia D) Sulfur
Answer
Answer: A) Carbon dioxide Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is used for extinguishing fires.
Question 44: Which element plays a significant role in DNA as an important biomolecule?
A) Carbon B) Hydrogen C) Nitrogen D) Oxygen
Answer
Answer: C) Nitrogen Explanation: Nitrogen plays an essential role in the structure of DNA.
Question 45: Which element is used in radiotherapy?
A) Iodine B) Sodium C) Boron D) Calcium
Answer
Answer: A) Iodine Explanation: Iodine is used in radiotherapy.
Question 46: Which chemical is used in burning and also found in fireworks?
A) Nitrogen B) Potassium nitrate C) Sodium chloride D) Hydrochloric acid
Answer
Answer: B) Potassium nitrate Explanation: Potassium nitrate (KNO₃) is used in burning and in fireworks.
Question 47: Which color indicator is used to identify acidic properties?
A) Red B) Blue C) Green D) Yellow
Answer
Answer: A) Red Explanation: Red color indicator is used to identify acidic properties.
Question 48: Which substance dissolves in water but not in oil?
A) Salt B) Sugar C) Flour D) Fat
Answer
Answer: A) Salt Explanation: Salt (sodium chloride) dissolves in water but not in oil.
Question 49: What is the most common example of a hydrogen bond?
A) Ammonia B) Water C) Carbon dioxide D) Methane
Answer
Answer: B) Water Explanation: Water is the most common example of hydrogen bonding, where hydrogen of one water molecule bonds with the oxygen of another water molecule.
Question 50: Which element is used in batteries?
A) Lithium B) Sodium C) Calcium D) Potassium
Answer
Answer: A) Lithium Explanation: Lithium is used in batteries.
Question 51: Which element is used in making steel?
A) Carbon B) Silicon C) Zinc D) Platinum
Answer
Answer: A) Carbon Explanation: Carbon is used in making steel.
Question 52: Which element plays an important role in biological instruments?
A) Iron B) Sodium C) Calcium D) Gold
Answer
Answer: C) Calcium Explanation: Calcium plays a vital role in biological structures such as bones and teeth.
Question 53: Which metal is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust?
A) Chromium B) Zinc C) Rhodium D) Tin
Answer
Answer: B) Zinc Explanation: Zinc is used in galvanization to protect iron from corrosion and rust.
Question 54: Bronze is an alloy of which of the following?
A) Copper and Zinc B) Tin and Zinc C) Copper and Tin D) Iron and Zinc
Answer
Answer: C) Copper and Tin
Question 55: What is the bond called when electrons are shared between two elements?
A) Covalent bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Ionic bond D) Dative bond
Answer
Answer: A) Covalent bond Explanation: A covalent bond is formed when electrons are shared between the atoms of the elements.
Question 56: The isotope of which element is used in cancer treatment?
A) Cobalt B) Nickel C) Aluminum D) Iron
Answer
Answer: A) Cobalt Explanation: Cobalt isotopes are used in cancer treatment.
Question 57: A naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO is?
A) Acetophenone B) Benzophenone C) Propiophenone D) Methcathinone
Answer
Answer: B) Benzophenone
Question 58: What is the atomic mass of sodium?
A) 13 B) 23 C) 40 D) 12
Answer
Answer: B) 23 Explanation: The atomic number of sodium is 11, and it has 12 neutrons, making its atomic mass 11 + 12 = 23.
Question 59: Which gas is produced when lead nitrate is heated?
A) Nitrogen dioxide B) Lead dioxide C) Lead oxide D) Nitrogen oxide
Answer
Answer: A) Nitrogen dioxide Explanation: When lead nitrate is heated, it decomposes to produce lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen.
Question 60: Which chemical element from group 18 of the periodic table is produced in soil and rocks due to the natural radioactive decay of uranium?
Biology – General Science MCQs for GK paper in competitive exams. Important questions from previous year exam papers for free online practice.
Biology GK MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is commonly known as a blood thinner?
A) Coagulation inhibitor B) Antibiotic C) Immunosuppressant D) Anticoagulant
Answer
Answer: D) Anticoagulant Explanation: Anticoagulants are commonly known as blood thinners and are used to treat and prevent blood clots. Antibiotics are medications used to treat bacterial infections.
Question 2: Bile is stored in a sac called __________.
A) Gallbladder B) Urinary bladder C) Pancreas D) Liver
Answer
Answer: A) Gallbladder Explanation: Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder in the human digestive system.
Question 3: What is the pH of human blood?
A) 7.4 B) 10 C) 6.5 D) 5.8
Answer
Answer: A) 7.4 Explanation: The pH value of human blood is 7.4, which makes it alkaline in nature.
Question 4: Which of the following plant kingdom groups is known as algae?
A) Bryophyta B) Thallophyta C) Angiosperm D) Pteridophyta
Answer
Answer: B) Thallophyta Explanation: Thallophytes are commonly known as algae. Most of them are aquatic and represent a primitive form of plant life without vascular tissues for transporting water and minerals.
Question 5: Deficiency of which vitamin causes swollen neck glands?
A) Vitamin C B) Iodine C) Calcium D) Vitamin D
Answer
Answer: B) Iodine Explanation: Swelling in the neck glands is generally associated with iodine deficiency.
Question 6: Which of the following belongs to the Platyhelminthes classification under the kingdom Animalia?
A) Tapeworm B) Leech C) Wuchereria D) Sycon
Answer
Answer: A) Tapeworm Explanation: Tapeworm is an invertebrate parasite that lives in the bodies of vertebrates, including humans. Some species can grow up to 100 feet (30 meters) long, and their bodies are ribbon-like and segmented.
Question 7: In the cytoplasm, ribosomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus are examples of __________.
A) Organs B) Cells C) Organelles D) Tissues
Answer
Answer: C) Organelles Explanation: Golgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi body, is an organelle found in most eukaryotic cells.
Question 8: What is the normal body temperature of humans?
A) 98.6°C B) 98.6°F C) 37°F D) 40°C
Answer
Answer: B) 98.6°F Explanation: The normal body temperature is around 98.6°F (37°C). Fever is usually indicated by a temperature above 100.4°F (38°C).
Question 9: In which part of the plant does the process of respiration occur?
A) Roots B) Stem C) Leaves D) Flowers
Answer
Answer: C) Leaves Explanation: The leaves perform respiration by absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.
Question 10: How many major systems are there in the human body?
A) 7 B) 10 C) 12 D) 5
Answer
Answer: C) 12 Explanation: There are 12 major systems in the human body, such as the digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, etc.
Question 11: What is the full form of DNA?
A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid B) Deoxyribonucleotide Acid C) Deoxyribonuclear Acid D) Deoxynucleic Acid
Answer
Answer: A) Deoxyribonucleic Acid Explanation: The full form of DNA is Deoxyribonucleic Acid, which stores genetic information.
Question 12: By which process do herbivorous plants prepare food?
A) Respiration B) Photosynthesis C) Maturation D) Regeneration
Answer
Answer: B) Photosynthesis Explanation: Herbivorous plants prepare food through photosynthesis, which uses sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide.
Question 13: Which is the largest gland in the human body?
A) Pancreas B) Liver C) Pituitary Gland D) Thyroid
Answer
Answer: B) Liver Explanation: The liver is the largest gland in the human body and performs many important functions.
Question 14: What is an enzyme?
A) A type of vitamin B) A type of acid C) A type of protein D) A type of mineral
Answer
Answer: C) A type of protein Explanation: An enzyme is a type of protein that accelerates biological chemical reactions.
Question 15: What is the function of papillae?
A) Digesting food B) Regulating body temperature C) Detoxifying the body D) Solidifying blood
Answer
Answer: A) Digesting food Explanation: Papillae in the stomach help in digesting food.
Question 16: Which cell has a cell membrane?
A) Animal cell B) Plant cell C) Bacterial cell D) All cells
Answer
Answer: D) All cells Explanation: All cells have a cell membrane that separates the cell from its external environment.
Question 17: Which organ is not part of the central nervous system?
A) Brain B) Spinal cord C) Nerve D) Brain and spinal cord
Answer
Answer: C) Nerve Explanation: Nerves are not part of the central nervous system; the brain and spinal cord are.
Question 18: Where is energy produced in a cell?
A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Chloroplast D) Ribosome
Answer
Answer: B) Mitochondria Explanation: Mitochondria produce the cell’s energy, known as ATP.
Question 19: Where is cartilage found?
A) In bones B) In the skin C) In the blood D) In the nails
Answer
Answer: A) In bones Explanation: Cartilage is found in bones and helps to lubricate joints.
Question 20: Which enzyme aids in chemical digestion?
A) Pancreatic lipase B) Lactase C) Amylase D) All
Answer
Answer: D) All Explanation: Pancreatic lipase, lactase, and amylase all aid in chemical digestion.
Question 21: Which gas is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis?
A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon Dioxide D) Hydrogen
Answer
Answer: C) Carbon Dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is primarily used in the process of photosynthesis.
Question 22: Where is a virus found?
A) Microorganisms B) Plants C) Animals D) Bacteria
Answer
Answer: A) Microorganisms
Explanation: A virus is found in microorganisms, such as viruses.
Question 23: In which organ does the first digestion of food occur?
A) Stomach B) Mouth C) Intestine D) Esophagus
Answer
Answer: B) Mouth
Explanation: The first digestion of food occurs in the mouth, where enzymes initiate the digestion process.
Question 24: What is the study of microorganisms called?
A) Biology B) Microbiology C) Physiology D) Ecology
Answer
Answer: B) Microbiology
Explanation: The study of microorganisms is called microbiology.
Question 25: Which organ purifies the blood?
A) Liver B) Heart C) Kidneys D) Lungs
Answer
Answer: C) Kidneys
Explanation: The kidneys purify the blood and remove waste products.
Question 26: Which part of the papillary helps in digestion?
A) Gastric juice B) Hydrochloric acid C) Pepsin D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Gastric juice, hydrochloric acid, and pepsin all help in digestion.
Question 27: What is not present in living cells?
A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplast C) Lysosomes D) Volcans
Answer
Answer: D) Volcans
Explanation: Volcans are not found in living cells, whereas mitochondria, chloroplast, and lysosomes are present in cells.
Question 28: What condition arises due to a lack of oxygen?
A) Hypoxia B) Hyperthermia C) Hypoglycemia D) Hypothermia
Answer
Answer: A) Hypoxia
Explanation: Hypoxia is a condition that arises due to a lack of oxygen, where the body’s tissues do not receive enough oxygen.
Question 29: What is the main organ for food transportation in plants?
A) Roots B) Leaves C) Stem D) Flowers
Answer
Answer: C) Stem
Explanation: The stem is the main organ for food transportation in plants.
Question 30: How many major types of cells are there in human blood?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Answer
Answer: C) 4
Explanation: There are four major types of cells in human blood: red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and blood plasma.
Question 31: What controls cognitive functions?
A) Heart B) Brain C) Kidneys D) Liver
Answer
Answer: B) Brain
Explanation: Cognitive functions, such as thinking and processing, are controlled by the brain.
Question 32: What is the function of genes?
A) Digestion of food B) Production of energy C) Storage of genetic information D) Formation of blood
Answer
Answer: C) Storage of genetic information
Explanation: Genes store genetic information and transfer it to the next generation.
Question 33: What is the function of mitochondria?
A) Production of energy B) Protein synthesis C) Cell division D) Cell structure
Answer
Answer: A) Production of energy
Explanation: Mitochondria produce energy in the cell.
Question 34: What type of organism are bacteria?
A) Unicellular B) Multicellular C) Viruses D) Fungi
Answer
Answer: A) Unicellular
Explanation: Bacteria are unicellular organisms.
Question 35: During which stage of the nutrition process is the most energy obtained?
A) Digestion of carbohydrates B) Digestion of proteins C) Digestion of fats D) All equally
Answer
Answer: C) Digestion of fats
Explanation: Digestion of fats provides the most energy.
Question 36: Which gland plays a major role in body growth?
A) Thyroid B) Pituitary C) Pancreas D) Liver
Answer
Answer: B) Pituitary
Explanation: The pituitary gland plays a major role in the growth of the body.
Question 37: Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets?
A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin C
Answer
Answer: C) Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets (bone weakness).[
Question 38: What type of antibodies are found in blood group A?
A) B antibodies B) A antibodies C) AB antibodies D) O antibodies
Answer
Answer: A) B antibodies
Explanation: Blood group A has B antibodies.
Question 39: What studies the ecosystem?
A) Zoology B) Botany C) Ecology D) Microbiology
Answer
Answer: C) Ecology
Explanation: The study of ecosystems is done by ecology.
Question 40: What is a neuron?
A) Blood cell B) Nerve cell C) Digestive cell D) Liver cell
Answer
Answer: B) Nerve cell
Explanation: A neuron is a nerve cell and an essential part of the nervous system.
Question 41: Which organ produces hormones?
A) Heart B) Liver C) Thyroid D) Kidneys
Answer
Answer: C) Thyroid Explanation: The thyroid produces hormones that control many vital functions in the body.
Question 42: Which organ plays a major role in the process of respiration?
A) Heart B) Lungs C) Liver D) Kidneys
Answer
Answer: B) Lungs Explanation: The lungs play a major role in respiration, facilitating the exchange of oxygen.
Question 43: In the digestive system, which organ produces digestive enzymes?
A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Stomach D) Intestine
Answer
Answer: B) Pancreas Explanation: The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that aid in food digestion.
Question 44: Which organ in plant cells assists in photosynthesis?
A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplast C) Ribosome D) Nucleus
Answer
Answer: B) Chloroplast Explanation: Chloroplasts assist in photosynthesis in plant cells.
Question 45: What is the largest organ in the human body?
A) Heart B) Liver C) Skin D) Kidneys
Answer
Answer: C) Skin Explanation: The skin is the largest organ in the human body.
Question 46: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to which disease?
A) Rickets B) Scurvy C) Pellagra D) Burkitt’s
Answer
Answer: B) Scurvy Explanation: A deficiency of Vitamin C leads to scurvy, which causes swollen and bleeding gums.
Question 47: What is the largest cell in the human body?
A) Human Egg B) Red Blood Cell C) Liver Cell D) Nerve Cell
Answer
Answer: A) Human Egg Explanation: The human egg (ovum) is the largest cell in the human body.
Question 48: What is considered the best sensory organ?
A) Eye B) Ear C) Skin D) Nose
Answer
Answer: C) Skin Explanation: The skin is considered the best sensory organ because it can sense many stimuli.
Question 49: Which nutrient is most essential for nutrition?
A) Carbohydrates B) Protein C) Fats D) Vitamins
Answer
Answer: A) Carbohydrates Explanation: Carbohydrates are the main source of energy and are thus the most essential.
Question 50: What is the name of the plant hormone that regulates growth?
A) Ethylene B) Auxin C) Cytokinin D) Gibberellin
Answer
Answer: B) Auxin Explanation: Auxin controls the growth of plants.
Question 51: Which organ regulates blood pressure?
A) Heart B) Kidneys C) Liver D) Lungs
Answer
Answer: B) Kidneys Explanation: The kidneys play an important role in regulating blood pressure.
Question 52: What is the study of the remains of organisms called?
A) Paleontology B) Genetics C) Ecology D) Microbiology
Answer
Answer: A) Paleontology Explanation: The study of the remains of organisms is called Paleontology.
Question 53: What part is included in the structure of a virus?
A) Nucleus B) Protein coat C) Mitochondria D) Chloroplast
Answer
Answer: B) Protein coat Explanation: The structure of a virus includes a protein coat that protects the genetic material.
Question 54: Which part of the plant absorbs water?
A) Leaves B) Stem C) Roots D) Flowers
Answer
Answer: C) Roots Explanation: Water is primarily absorbed by the roots of plants.
Question 55: What does Maltase digest?
A) Proteins B) Fats C) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins
Answer
Answer: C) Carbohydrates Explanation: The enzyme Maltase digests carbohydrates.
Question 56: In which part of the body does fat digestion occur?
A) Stomach B) Intestine C) Liver D) Kidneys
Answer
Answer: B) Intestine Explanation: Fat digestion primarily occurs in the intestine.
Question 57: Which organ plays a major role in drug absorption?
A) Mouth B) Stomach C) Intestine D) Liver
Answer
Answer: C) Intestine Explanation: Drug absorption primarily takes place in the intestine.
Question 58: Where are RBCs produced in the body?
A) Liver B) Kidneys C) Bone marrow D) Liver
Answer
Answer: C) Bone marrow Explanation: Red blood cells (RBCs) are produced in the bone marrow.
Question 59: What is the most important organ in the process of respiration?
A) Heart B) Lungs C) Liver D) Kidneys
Answer
Answer: B) Lungs Explanation: The lungs are the most important organs in the process of respiration.
Question 59: Who proposed the theory of natural selection?
A) Louis Pasteur B) Charles Darwin C) Gregor Mendel D) Robert Hooke
Answer
Answer: B) Charles Darwin Explanation: The theory of natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin.
Question 60: Which organ is responsible for the production of red blood cells?
A) Bone marrow B) Heart C) Brain D) Lungs
Answer
Answer: A) Bone marrow Explanation: Red blood cells, most white blood cells, and platelets are produced in the bone marrow.
Question 1: What is the biotic component of the environment and ecology?
A) Soil B) Water C) Air D) Vegetation
Answer
Answer: (D) Vegetation Explanation: The biotic component of the environment and ecology refers to living elements, including vegetation, animals, and microorganisms.
Question 2: What is an example of a natural ecosystem?
A) Farmland B) Dam C) Lake D) Park
Answer
Answer: (C) Lake Explanation: Natural ecosystems exist without human intervention, such as lakes, forests, and rivers.
Question 3: What are herbivores called?
A) Producers B) Primary consumers C) Secondary consumers D) Tertiary consumers
Answer
Answer: (B) Primary consumers Explanation: Herbivores that consume plants are called primary consumers.
Question 4: What is the primary source of energy in an ecosystem?
A) Geothermal energy B) Sun C) Greenhouse gases D) Moon
Answer
Answer: (B) Sun Explanation: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is the Sun, which provides energy to plants through photosynthesis.
Question 5: Which plant species is classified as endangered in India?
A) Mango B) Sheesham C) Teak D) Sandalwood
Answer
Answer: (D) Sandalwood Explanation: Due to the high demand for sandalwood and its oil, it has been classified as an endangered plant species.
Question 6: Where is Kaziranga National Park located?
A) Uttarakhand B) Assam C) Arunachal Pradesh D) Nagaland
Answer
Answer: (B) Assam Explanation: Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, famous for its one-horned rhinoceroses.
Question 7: What is the major source of carbon dioxide emissions?
A) Fossil fuel combustion B) Animal respiration C) Volcanic activity D) Marshlands
Answer
Answer: (A) Fossil fuel combustion Explanation: The burning of fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide, which is a major contributor to air pollution and global warming.
Question 8: What is the major impact of deforestation?
A) Soil erosion B) Weed control C) Reduction in sunlight D) Increase in grazing land
Answer
Answer: (A) Soil erosion Explanation: Deforestation leads to increased soil erosion, reducing soil fertility and negatively affecting agriculture.
Question 9: What is a natural source of nitrous oxide gas?
A) Desert soils B) Polar soils C) Temperate soils D) Tropical soils
Answer
Answer: (D) Tropical soils Explanation: Tropical soils naturally emit nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas.
Question 10: How do forests help control drought?
A) Forests prevent soil erosion. B) Forests contribute to rainfall. C) Forests contain many aquatic plants. D) Forests act as water reservoirs.
Answer
Answer: (B) Forests contribute to rainfall. Explanation: Forests influence local climate through evaporation and contribute to rainfall, helping to control drought.
Question 11: Which is the only carbon-neutral country in the world?
A) Sweden B) New Zealand C) Finland D) Canada
Answer
Answer: (A) Sweden Explanation: Sweden is recognized as the only carbon-neutral country due to its green energy sources and measures to reduce carbon emissions.
Question 12: The cause of global warming is:
A) Decrease in carbon dioxide B) Increase in carbon dioxide C) Increase in forests D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (B) Increase in carbon dioxide Explanation: The main cause of global warming is the rising levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
Question 13: Which greenhouse gas is produced by ruminant animals?
A) Carbon dioxide B) Water vapor C) Methane (CH4) D) Nitrous oxide
Answer
Answer: (C) Methane (CH4) Explanation: Ruminant animals produce methane gas during their digestive process, which is a greenhouse gas.
Question 14: Which pollutant gas is emitted by vehicles?
A) Hydrocarbons B) Carbon dioxide C) Carbon monoxide D) Nitrogen oxides
Answer
Answer: (C) Carbon monoxide Explanation: Carbon monoxide is a major pollutant gas emitted by vehicles, which is harmful to health.
Question 15: Air pollution can be reduced by:
A) Sunlight B) Trees C) Restricting loudspeakers D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (B) Trees Explanation: Trees absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen, helping to reduce air pollution.
Question 16: The “Harela Festival” celebrated in Uttarakhand is related to:
A) Water conservation B) Tree plantation C) Ozone protection D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (B) Tree plantation Explanation: The “Harela Festival” is celebrated in Uttarakhand as a symbol of tree plantation and environmental conservation.
Question 17: Which country experiences the most acid rain?
A) Japan B) China C) Norway D) United States of America
Answer
Answer: (C) Norway Explanation: Norway experiences the most acid rain due to high levels of sulfur and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere from industrial activities.
Question 18: The ozone layer absorbs harmful rays known as:
A) Gamma rays B) Ultraviolet rays C) X-rays D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (B) Ultraviolet rays Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet rays, which can be harmful to living organisms.
Question 19: When is Earth Day celebrated?
A) March 22 B) April 22 C) June 5 D) August 15
Answer
Answer: (B) April 22 Explanation: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22 every year to raise awareness about environmental protection.
Question 20: When was the Environmental Protection Act implemented?
A) 1972 B) 1986 C) 1992 D) 2000
Answer
Answer: (B) 1986 Explanation: The Environmental Protection Act was implemented in India in 1986 to provide laws for the protection and improvement of the environment.
Question 21: Which pollutant causes damage to the ozone layer?
A) Carbon dioxide B) Nitrous oxide C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) D) Sulfur dioxide
Answer
Answer: C) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) Explanation: CFCs damage the ozone layer, allowing harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun to reach the Earth.
Question 22: Which gas is not considered a greenhouse gas?
A) Carbon dioxide B) Methane C) Oxygen D) Nitrous oxide
Answer
Answer: C) Oxygen Explanation: Oxygen is not a greenhouse gas because it does not trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere.
Question 23: What is the largest source of plant life?
A) Desert B) Ocean C) Forest D) Grassland
Answer
Answer: C) Forest Explanation: Forests are the largest source of plant life on Earth and they produce a large amount of oxygen.
Question 24: What is natural vegetation?
A) Plants planted by humans B) Naturally growing plants C) Agricultural plants D) Decorative plants
Answer
Answer: B) Naturally growing plants Explanation: Natural vegetation consists of plants that grow naturally without human intervention.
Question 25: What does the Red Data Book provide information about?
A) New species of plants B) Endangered and extinct species C) Medicinal plants D) Food plants
Answer
Answer:B) Endangered and extinct species Explanation: The Red Data Book provides information about endangered and extinct species.
Question 26: Which process is not a part of the water cycle?
A) Evaporation B) Condensation C) Nitrification D) Precipitation
Answer
Answer: C) Nitrification Explanation: Nitrification is part of the nitrogen cycle, not the water cycle.
Question 27: Which instrument is not used for environmental studies?
A) Barometer B) Seismograph C) Hygrometer D) Galvanometer
Answer
Answer: D) Galvanometer Explanation: A galvanometer is used to measure electric current, which is not an environmental study tool.
Question 28: What is the most important role of biodiversity?
A) Energy production B) Ecological balance C) Industrial development D) Urbanization
Answer
Answer: B) Ecological balance Explanation: Biodiversity plays a crucial role in maintaining ecological balance.
Question 29: Which gas is most responsible for the greenhouse effect?
A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon dioxide D) Helium
Answer
Answer: C) Carbon dioxide Explanation: Carbon dioxide is the most prominent greenhouse gas and plays a significant role in the greenhouse effect.
Question 30: By which process does water vapor reach the atmosphere?
A) Condensation B) Evaporation C) Precipitation D) Nitrification
Answer
Answer: B) Evaporation Explanation: Water turns into vapor and reaches the atmosphere through the process of evaporation.
Question 31: Which fuel is less polluting?
A) Coal B) Diesel C) Natural Gas D) Petrol
Answer
Answer: C) Natural Gas Explanation: Natural gas is less polluting compared to coal and diesel.
Question 32: What does the term “carbon footprint” mean?
A) Carbon accumulation B) Carbon production C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization D) Carbon usage
Answer
Answer: C) Total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization Explanation: The carbon footprint refers to the total greenhouse gas emissions produced by an individual or organization.
Question 33: Which element is most essential for life on Earth?
A) Carbon B) Nitrogen C) Water D) Oxygen
Answer
Answer: C) Water Explanation: Water is the most essential element for life on Earth as it is necessary for the survival of all living beings.
Question 34: Which process affects vegetation and drainage?
A) Erosion B) Reforestation C) Degradation D) Afforestation
Answer
Answer: D) Afforestation Explanation: Afforestation promotes the growth of vegetation and affects drainage.
Question 35: Which factor is not involved in natural disasters?
A) Earthquake B) Flood C) Cyclone D) Afforestation
Answer
Answer: D) Afforestation Explanation: Afforestation is not a natural disaster; it is an environmental conservation measure.
Question 36: Which gas is found in the highest amount in the atmosphere?
A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon Dioxide D) Helium
Answer
Answer: B) Nitrogen Explanation: Nitrogen is found in the highest quantity in the atmosphere, about 78%.
Question 37: Which gas is present in the smallest percentage in Earth’s atmosphere?
A) Nitrogen B) Oxygen C) Carbon Dioxide D) Argon
Answer
Answer: C) Carbon Dioxide Explanation: Carbon dioxide is present in the smallest percentage in the atmosphere, about 0.04%.
Question 38: Which environmental pollutant causes acid rain?
A) Carbon Monoxide B) Sulfur Dioxide C) Methane D) Nitrogen
Answer
Answer: B) Sulfur Dioxide Explanation: Sulfur dioxide and nitrous oxide cause acid rain, which harms the environment.
Question 39: Which process helps maintain environmental balance?
A) Urbanization B) Industrialization C) Reforestation D) Afforestation
Answer
Answer: D) Afforestation Explanation: Afforestation helps maintain environmental balance as it increases the number of forests.
Question 40: What is the main cause of climate change?
A) Solar activities B) Natural disasters C) Greenhouse gas emissions D) The position of the moon
Answer
Answer: C) Greenhouse gas emissions Explanation: The main cause of climate change is the emission of greenhouse gases, which increase Earth’s heat.
Question 41: Which process produces oxygen?
A) Respiration B) Evaporation C) Photosynthesis D) Nitrification
Answer
Answer: C) Photosynthesis Explanation: Plants produce oxygen during the process of photosynthesis.
Question 42: Which natural resource is not renewable?
A) Solar energy B) Water energy C) Coal D) Wind energy
Answer
Answer: C) Coal Explanation: Coal is a non-renewable resource because it takes millions of years to regenerate.
Question 43: Which organization works on issues related to climate change?
A) WHO B) IMF C) IPCC D) UNESCO
Answer
Answer: C) IPCC Explanation: The IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) works on issues related to climate change.
Question 44: Which process is not a part of the carbon cycle?
A) Respiration B) Weathering C) Combustion D) Condensation
Answer
Answer: D) Condensation Explanation: Condensation is a part of the water cycle, while respiration, weathering, and combustion are parts of the carbon cycle.
Question 45: Which process causes water pollution?
A) Erosion B) Excessive use of fertilizers C) Condensation D) Afforestation
Answer
Answer: B) Excessive use of fertilizers Explanation: Excessive use of fertilizers pollutes water sources and causes water pollution.
Question 46: Which waste is not recyclable?
A) Plastic B) Paper C) Glass D) Organic waste
Answer
Answer: D) Organic waste Explanation: Organic waste is not recyclable, but it can be decomposed through composting.
Question 47: Which process helps in preventing global warming?
A) Combustion B) Industrialization C) Afforestation D) Urbanization
Answer
Answer: C) Afforestation Explanation: Afforestation helps prevent global warming by reducing the level of carbon dioxide.
Question 48: Which gas causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere?
A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon dioxide D) Helium
Answer
Answer: C) Carbon dioxide Explanation: Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas that causes the greenhouse effect in the atmosphere.
Question 49: Which is a key component of the ecosystem?
A) Water B) Atmosphere C) Soil D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: D) All of the above Explanation: Water, atmosphere, and soil are all key components of the ecosystem.
Question 50: Which process harms the environment?
A) Afforestation B) Reforestation C) Combustion D) Water conservation
Answer
Answer: C) Combustion Explanation: Combustion harms the environment by emitting harmful gases.
Question 51: What is the main cause of climate change?
A) Natural disasters B) Emission of greenhouse gases C) Solar activities D) Moon’s position
Answer
Answer: B) Emission of greenhouse gases Explanation: The emission of greenhouse gases is the primary cause of climate change.
Question 52: Which process helps in purifying the environment?
A) Urbanization B) Industrialization C) Reclamation D) Afforestation
Answer
Answer: D) Afforestation Explanation: Afforestation helps in purifying the environment by increasing the number of forests and purifying the air.
Question 53: What is the primary function of the ozone layer?
A) To heat the Earth B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun C) To promote rainfall D) To cool the atmosphere
Answer
Answer: B) To absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun, ensuring the safety of life on Earth.
Question 54: Which gas damages the ozone layer?
A) Carbon dioxide B) Methane C) Nitrous oxide D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Answer
Answer: D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) Explanation: CFCs damage the ozone layer, allowing ultraviolet rays to reach Earth.
Question 55: What is the full form of CNG?
A) Compound Natural Gas B) Compressed Natural Gas C) Complete Natural Gas D) Natural Gas
Answer
Answer: B) Compressed Natural Gas
Question 56: Where is the National Environmental Research Institute located?
A) Bhopal B) Lucknow C) Nagpur (Maharashtra) D) Delhi
Answer
Answer: C) Nagpur (Maharashtra)
Question 57: In which category do various types of fungi fall?
A) Producers B) Consumers C) Decomposers D) Abiotic
Answer
Answer: C) Decomposers
Question 58: Which country has the highest biodiversity?
A) Germany B) India C) China D) South Africa
Answer
Answer: B) India
Question 59: Which disease has increased due to ozone layer depletion and ozone holes?
A) Malaria B) AIDS C) Cholera D) Skin cancer
Answer
Answer: D) Skin cancer
Question 60: Sound pollution is measured in:
A) Fathom B) Decibels C) Tons D) Kilograms
Answer
Answer: B) Decibels
Question 61: The specific cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called _______.
A) Agriculture B) Horticulture C) Sericulture D) Fish farming
Indian Polity and Constitution GK MCQ questions answers in English for Competitive exams. Important MCQs on Political Science from previous year exam papers of SSC, UPSC examinations.
Indian Polity and Constitution MCQs
Q.1:Which of the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution? (A) B.R. Ambedkar (B) Alladi Krishnaswamy (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Gopalachari Ayyngar
Answer
Answer: (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.2:Constitutional monarchy means: (A) The king writes the constitution (B) The king interprets the constitution (C) The king exercises powers granted by the constitution (D) The king is elected by the people
Answer
Answer: (C) The king exercises powers granted by the constitution
Q.3:When was the first Central Legislative Assembly formed? (A) 1922 (B) 1923 (C) 1921 (D) 1920
Answer
Answer: (D) 1920
Q.4:The Constitution of India describes India as: (A) A federation (B) Semi-federal (C) Unitary (D) Union of States
Answer
Answer: (D) Union of States
Q.5: The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ is a characteristic of the constitutional system of: (A) Britain (B) USA (C) France (D) Switzerland
Answer
Answer: (A) Britain
Q.6:The method of amending the constitution through a popular veto is found in: (A) Britain (B) Switzerland (C) Russia (D) India
Answer
Answer: (B) Switzerland
Q.7:Which of the following is an essential feature of the parliamentary system of government? (A) Flexibility of the constitution (B) Fusion of executive and legislature (C) Judicial supremacy (D) Parliamentary sovereignty
Answer
Answer: (B) Fusion of executive and legislature
Q.8:Grassroots democracy relates to: (A) Devolution of powers (B) Decentralization of powers (C) Panchayati Raj system (D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: (D) All of the above
Q.9:The objective of democratic socialism is to: (A) Bring socialism through peaceful means (B) Bring socialism through both violent and peaceful means (C) Bring socialism through violent means (D) Bring socialism through democratic means
Answer
Answer: (D) Bring socialism through democratic means
Q.10:Which judge declared that ‘secularism’ and ‘federalism’ are basic features of the Indian Constitution? (A) Keshavananda Bharati case (B) S.R. Bommai case (C) Indira Sawhney case (D) Minerva Mills case
Answer
Answer: (B) S.R. Bommai case
Q.11:Universal adult suffrage reflects that India is a country that is: (A) Secular (B) Socialist (C) Democratic (D) Sovereign
Answer
Answer: (C) Democratic
Q.12:The Constitution of India came into force in: (A) 1951 (B) 1956 (C) 1950 (D) 1949
Answer
Answer: (C) 1950
Q.13:The Government of India Act, 1935, was based on: (A) Simon Commission (B) Lord Curzon Commission (C) Dimitrov Thesis (D) Lord Clive’s Report
Answer
Answer: (A) Simon Commission
Q.14:Who called the Government of India Act, 1935, the new charter of bondage? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Rajendra Prasad (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (D) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer
Answer: (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.15:Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution? (A) President of India (B) Chief Justice of India (C) Prime Minister of India (D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Answer
Answer: (B) Chief Justice of India
Q.16: Which of the following is an essential element of the state? (A) Sovereignty (B) Government (C) Territory (D) All of these
Answer
(D) All of these
Q.17:Which is the most important system in a democracy? (A) Social (B) Political (C) Economic (D) Governmental
Answer
(B) Political
Q.18: Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution? (A) Preamble (B) Part III (C) Part IV (D) Part I
Answer
(A) Preamble
Q.19:The phrase ‘equality before law’ in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from: (A) U.S.A. (B) Germany (C) Britain (D) Greece
Answer
(C) Britain
Q.20:The thinking and ideals of the Constitution makers are reflected in: (A) Preamble (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Fundamental Rights (D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer
(A) Preamble
Q.21: Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution? (A) Parliamentary form of government (B) Independence of judiciary (C) Presidential form of government (D) Federal government
Answer
(C) Presidential form of government
Q.22:What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar call the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution? (A) Right to Equality (B) Right against Exploitation (C) Right to Constitutional Remedies (D) Right to Religious Freedom
Answer
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Q.23:The concept of single citizenship in India is adopted from: (A) England (B) U.S.A. (C) Canada (D) France
Answer
(A) England
Q.24: The method of impeachment of the President of India is adopted from: (A) U.S.A. (B) U.K. (C) U.S.S.R. (D) France
Answer
(A) U.S.A.
Q.25: What was the basis for the formation of the Constituent Assembly of India? A) Mountbatten Plan B) Cabinet Mission Plan C) Indian National Congress D) Simla Agreement
Answer
B) Cabinet Mission Plan
Q.26: Which of the following can be called a ‘secular’ state? (A) A state that follows a particular religion (B) A state that is anti-religion (C) A state that does not discriminate between religions (D) A state that accepts all religions as the state religion
Answer
Answer: (C) A state that does not discriminate between religions
Q.27: Initially, how many Fundamental Rights were provided? (A) Six (B) Seven (C) Four (D) Five
Answer
Answer: (B) Seven
Q.28: Which type of equality is not in line with the ideals of a liberal state? (A) Legal equality (B) Political equality (C) Social equality (D) Economic equality
Answer
Answer: (D) Economic equality
Q.29: What does political freedom mean? (A) People’s control over the government (B) Free political activities of the people (C) Cooperation between politics and democracy (D) Voters can form and dismiss their government
Answer
Answer: (B) Free political activities of the people
Q.30: Which of the following is included in the list of fundamental duties of Indian citizens in the Constitution? (A) Practicing secularism (B) Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform (C) Regularly and correctly paying all taxes to the government (D) Not attacking any public servant while performing their duties
Answer
Answer: (B) Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform
Q.31: When were Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution? (A) 1975 (B) 1976 (C) 1977 (D) 1979
Answer
Answer: (B) 1976
Q.32: The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country’s constitution? (A) USA (B) UK (C) USSR (D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (A) USA
Q.33: Which of the following is a political right? (A) Right to work (B) Right to education (C) Right to freedom of expression (D) Right to vote
Answer
Answer: (D) Right to vote
Q.34: The provisions of citizenship in the Indian Constitution came into force in: (A) 1950 (B) 1949 (C) 1951 (D) 1952
Answer
Answer: (A) 1950
Q.35: What does social justice mean? (A) Everyone should have equal economic rights. (B) Everyone should have equal political rights. (C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated. (D) Everyone should be given the right to religious freedom.
Answer
Answer: (C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated.
Q.36: The right to vote falls under which category? (A) Human rights (B) Civil rights (C) Natural rights (D) Political rights
Answer
Answer: (D) Political rights
Q.37: Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of our Constitution? (A) Justice (B) Fraternity (C) Equality of status (D) Adult suffrage
Answer
Answer: (D) Adult suffrage
Q.38: At what age can Indian citizens vote? (A) 18 years (B) 21 years (C) 22 years (D) 25 years
Answer
Answer: (A) 18 years
Q.39: According to the Preamble, ultimate power lies in the hands of: (A) Parliament (B) Constitution (C) President (D) People
Answer
Answer: (D) People
Q.40: Dual citizenship is a key feature of which type of government? (A) Parliamentary (B) Federal (C) Unitary (D) Authoritarian
Answer
Answer: (B) Federal
Q.41: ‘Dual citizenship’ is a feature of: (A) Unitary government (B) Federal government (C) Parliamentary government (D) Presidential government
Answer
Answer: (B) Federal government
Q.42: Which case is related to Fundamental Rights? (A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967) (B) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963) (C) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959) (D) State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)
Answer
Answer: (A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
Q.43: According to the Indian Constitution, the right to property is a: (A) Fundamental right (B) Natural right (C) Legal right (D) Moral right
Answer
Answer: (C) Legal right
Q.44: The success of democracy depends on: (A) Right to criticize (B) Right of association (C) Right to personal liberty (D) Right to property
Answer
Answer: (C) Right to personal liberty
Q.45: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the constitution of: (A) Britain (B) Ireland (C) USA (D) Canada
Answer
Answer: (B) Ireland
Q.46: How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution? (A) 1 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 8
Answer
Answer: (C) 12
Q.47: The Directive Principles of State Policy were adopted from: (A) British Constitution (B) Swiss Constitution (C) American Constitution (D) Irish Constitution
Answer
Answer: (D) Irish Constitution
Q.48: When were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens included in the Constitution? (A) 1952 (B) 1976 (C) 1979 (D) 1981
Answer
Answer: (B) 1976
Q.49: The Directive Principles included in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the constitution of: (A) Australia (B) Ireland (C) USA (D) Canada
Answer
Answer: (B) Ireland
Q.50: During whose rule was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights? (A) Indira Gandhi government (B) Morarji Desai government (C) Narasimha Rao government (D) Vajpayee government
World Geography GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for Competitive Exams. Important questions selected from previous year exam questions papers of SSC, UPSC and other examinations.
World Geography MCQ
Q.1: Which of the following countries has the longest underground tunnel? (A) Germany (B) Switzerland (C) Spain (D) France
Answer
(B) Switzerland
Q.2: Which of the following holds over 50% of the world’s coal reserves? (A) USA, Russia, and China (B) China, India, and Russia (C) India, Russia, and the USA (D) China, India, and the USA
Answer
(A) USA, Russia, and China
Q.3: The Panama Canal was constructed in (A) 1869 AD (B) 1980 AD (C) 1905 AD (D) 1914 AD
Answer
(D) 1914 AD
Q.4: Which is the hottest place on Earth? (A) Death Valley-California (B) El Azizia-Libya (C) Jacobabad-Pakistan (D) Atacama-Peru
Answer
(B) El Azizia-Libya
Q.5: What was the name of the cyclone that caused devastation in Bangladesh? (A) Shary (B) Sidr (C) Wendy (D) Erin
Answer
(B) Sidr
Q.6: What is the longest mountain range on Earth? (A) Andes Mountains (B) Mid-Atlantic Ridge (C) Western Cordillera (D) Himalayan Range
Answer
(A) Andes Mountains
Q.7: The Sunda Trench is located in: (A) Indian Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Gulf of Mexico
Answer
(A) Indian Ocean
Q.8: Which of the following is an abiotic factor? (A) Mites (B) Humidity (C) Insects (D) Rodents
Answer
(B) Humidity
Q.9: The lake created by the Aswan Dam in Africa is: (A) Chad (B) Victoria (C) Nasser (D) Tanganyika
Answer
(C) Nasser
Q.10: The temperate grasslands of North America are called (A) Pampas (B) Downs (C) Steppes (D) Prairies
Answer
(D) Prairies
Q.11: The Panama Canal differs from the Suez Canal as it has: (A) A lock system (B) A shorter route (C) A busier route (D) A less busy route
Answer
(A) A lock system
Q.12: Llanos grasslands are found in: (A) Guiana Highlands (B) Brazilian Highlands (C) Argentina (D) Chile
Answer
(D) Chile
Q.13: Approximately what percentage of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest? (A) 2 percent (B) 7 percent (C) 10 percent (D) 15 percent
Answer
(B) 7 percent
Q.14: Which continent is located in both the Northern-Southern and Eastern-Western hemispheres? (A) Australia (B) Africa (C) Europe (D) South America
Answer
(B) Africa
Q.15: The Sahara is located in which part of Africa? (A) Eastern (B) Western (C) Northern (D) Southern
Answer
(C) Northern
Q.16: The longest river in the world is: (A) Ganges (B) Nile (C) Brahmaputra (D) Amazon
Answer
(B) Nile
Q.17: Which city is the capital of the desert country Mali? (A) Damascus (B) Bamako (C) Adrar (D) Ankara
Answer
(B) Bamako
Q.18: Peshawar is near: (A) Karakoram Pass (B) Zoji La Pass (C) Namika-La Pass (D) Khyber Pass
Q.20: ‘Yosemite’ is: (A) A river (B) A peak (C) A waterfall (D) A dam
Answer
(C) A waterfall
Q.21: Which strait separates Australia and Tasmania? (A) Bass (B) Bab-el-Mandeb (C) Palk (D) Bering
Answer
Answer: (A) Bass
Q.22: The world’s largest coral reef is found off the coast of: (A) Brazil (B) Australia (C) Sri Lanka (D) Cuba
Answer
Answer: (B) Australia
Q.23: The longest river in Europe is: (A) Rhine (B) Rhone (C) Danube (D) Volga
Answer
Answer: (D) Volga
Q.24: Asia and North America are separated by: (A) Bass Strait (B) Dover Strait (C) Bering Strait (D) Cook Strait
Answer
Answer: (C) Bering Strait
Q.25: The Grand Canyon is located on which river? (A) Colorado (B) Columbia (C) Ohio (D) Mississippi
Answer
Answer: (A) Colorado
Q.26: On September 23, when day and night are of equal length worldwide, it is called: (A) Autumnal Equinox (B) Celestial Equinox (C) Winter Equinox (D) Spring Equinox
Answer
Answer: (A) Autumnal Equinox
Q.27: The region famous for various types of wine and champagne is: (A) Eastern Europe (B) Western Europe (C) Mediterranean (D) Grasslands
Answer
Answer: (C) Mediterranean
Q.28: The river with the largest water flow in the world is: (A) Huang-Ho (B) Amazon (C) Zaire (D) Nile
Answer
Answer: (B) Amazon
Q.29: The world’s largest delta is: (A) Sundarbans (B) Amazon Basin (C) Greenland (D) Congo Basin
Answer
Answer: (A) Sundarbans
Q.30: The canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is: (A) Suez (B) Malacca (C) Panama (D) Gibraltar
Answer
Answer: (C) Panama
Q.31: The strait connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea is: (A) Panama Strait (B) Suez Strait (C) Palk Strait (D) Bering Strait
Answer
Answer: (B) Suez Strait
Q.32: The temperate grasslands of South America are called: (A) Prairies (B) Pampas (C) Downs (D) Steppes
Answer
Answer: (B) Pampas
Q.33: Volcanic activity is most common in: (A) Hawaii (B) Japan (C) Columbia (D) New Zealand
Answer
Answer: (A) Hawaii
Q.34: The world’s largest freshwater lake is: (A) Lake Victoria (B) Lake Michigan (C) Lake Balkhash (D) Lake Superior
Answer
Answer: (D) Lake Superior
Q.35: Which of the following volcanoes is located in Mexico? (A) Colima (B) Purace (C) Semeru (D) Etna
Answer
Answer: (A) Colima
Q.36: In July 2007, the highest peak of Halmahera Island, Mount Gamkonora Volcano, erupted in which country? (A) Japan (B) Indonesia (C) Russia (D) France
Answer
Answer: (A) Japan
Q.37: The Black Forest is found in: (A) France (B) Germany (C) Czechoslovakia (D) Romania
Answer
Answer: (B) Germany
Q.38: Greenland, the world’s largest island, is an integral part of: (A) Norway (B) North America (C) Denmark (D) Canada
Answer
Answer: (C) Denmark
Q.39: Kangaroos, platypuses, and koala bears are wildlife native to: (A) Australia (B) South America (C) Europe (D) Africa
Answer
Answer: (A) Australia
Q.40: Which of the following regions has no rainfall at any time of the year? (A) Central Europe (B) Central North America (C) Polar region (D) Sub-Saharan region
Answer
Answer: (C) Polar region
Q.41: The world’s tallest gravity dam is: (A) Beas Dam (B) Nangal Dam (C) Bhakra Dam (D) Hirakud Dam
Answer
Answer: (C) Bhakra Dam
Q.42: “The climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic herders.” This statement is true for which region? (A) African Savannah (B) Central Asian Steppes (C) Siberian Tundra (D) North American Prairies
Answer
Answer: (B) Central Asian Steppes
Q.43: The world’s largest desert is: (A) Arabian (B) Kalahari (C) Sahara (D) Thar
Answer
Answer: (C) Sahara
Q.44: Which two countries are connected by an underwater tunnel? (A) England and Spain (B) Malaysia and Singapore (C) England and Belgium (D) France and England
Answer
Answer: (D) France and England
Q.45: The world’s largest archipelago country is: (A) Philippines (B) Indonesia (C) Sweden (D) Greenland
Answer
Answer: (B) Indonesia
Q.46: Which of the following is a landlocked sea? (A) Timor Sea (B) Arafura Sea (C) Greenland Sea (D) Aral Sea
Answer
Answer: (D) Aral Sea
Q.47: Where is the Normandy beach located? (A) France (B) Netherlands (C) Spain (D) Belgium
Answer
Answer: (A) France
Q.48: ‘Dykes’ are specifically constructed in: (A) Norway (B) Holland (C) France (D) United Kingdom
Answer
Answer: (B) Holland
Q.49: Colorado in America is famous for this landform _______________ (A) Grand Canyon (B) Grand Craters (C) Great Valleys (D) Great Basin
Answer
Answer: (B) Grand Craters
Q.50: The largest island in the world is: (A) New Guinea (B) Madagascar (C) Greenland (D) Iceland
Physics (General Physics science) GK MCQ Questions in English for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs selected from the previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.
Physics GK MCQ Questions in English
Q.1: If the velocity of a moving object increases by 1.5 times, its kinetic energy will: A) Increase by 1.5 times. B) Increase by 3 times. C) Increase by 2.25 times. D) Increase by 6 times.
Answer
Answer: C) Increase by 2.25 times K = 1/2 mv² K ∝ v² When velocity increases by 1.5 times, the kinetic energy will increase by (1.5)² = 2.25 times.
Q.2: Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquakes? A) Richter Scale B) Metric Scale C) Centigrade Scale D) Newton Scale
Answer
Answer: A) Richter Scale
Q.3: When a bottle of scent is opened in a corner of a room, its fragrance spreads to all parts of the room due to? A) Evaporation B) Absorption C) Diffusion D) Sublimation
Answer
Answer: C) Diffusion
Q.4: When a ray of light passes from one medium to another, its? A) Wavelength remains constant B) Frequency remains constant C) Frequency increases D) None of these
Answer
Answer: B) Frequency remains constant
Q.5: The unit of resistance is? A) Ampere B) Coulomb C) Henry D) Ohm
Answer
Answer: D) Ohm
Q.6: What is the unit of a light-year? A) Intensity of light B) Time C) Distance D) Speed of light
Answer
Answer: C) Distance
Q.7: Who invented the telescope? A) Galileo B) Gutenberg C) Edison D) Graham Bell
Answer
Answer: A) Galileo
Q.8: What type of mirror is used by a dentist to examine a patient’s teeth? A) Concave B) Convex C) Plane D) Cylindrical
Answer
Answer: A) Concave
Q.9: Which of the following is not a unit of heat? A) Calorie B) Kilocalorie C) Kilojoule D) Watt
Answer
Answer: D) Watt
Q.10: What is used to correct farsightedness? A) Concave lens B) Convex lens C) Convex mirror D) Concave mirror
Answer
Answer: B) Convex lens
Q.11: Which instrument is used to measure the humidity of the air? A) Hygrometer B) Hydrometer C) Manometer D) Odometer
Answer
Answer: B) Hydrometer
Q.12: Why is red color used as an emergency or danger signal? A) It is an attractive color B) It has the longest wavelength C) It is scattered D) It has the highest energy
Answer
Answer: B It has the longest wavelength
Q.13: What is the velocity of the fastest object? A) Speed of sound B) Speed of light C) Speed of an electron D) Speed of an atom
Answer
Answer: B Speed of light Explanation: The speed of light is the highest speed, which is 3 × 10^8 meters per second in a vacuum.
Q.14: What is the unit of speed? A) Newton B) Watt C) Meter/second D) Joule
Answer
Answer: C Meter/second Explanation: The unit of speed is meter per second (m/s).
Q.15: What is the standard unit of volume? A) Kilogram B) Second C) Liter D) Meter
Answer
Answer: C Liter Explanation: The standard unit of volume is liter (L).
Q.16: What is the difference between displacement and distance? A) Displacement is always greater than distance B) Displacement is a scalar quantity, while distance is a vector quantity C) Displacement is a vector, while distance is a scalar D) Both are the same
Answer
Answer: C Displacement is a vector, while distance is a scalar Explanation: Displacement is a vector quantity as it includes direction, while distance is just a magnitude.
Q.17: Who gave the laws of motion? A) Newton B) Galileo C) Einstein D) Darwin
Answer
Answer: A Newton Explanation: Newton formulated the three laws of motion.
Q.18: What is Newton’s third law of motion? A) An object will maintain its state unless acted upon by an external force B) The direction and magnitude of force are always the same C) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction D) The magnitude of force is proportional to the mass of an object
Answer
Answer: C For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction Explanation: Newton’s third law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Q.19: What form of energy is converted in solar panels? A) Mechanical energy B) Kinetic energy C) Electrical energy D) Thermal energy
Answer
Answer: C Electrical energy Explanation: Solar panels convert the energy from the sun into electrical energy.
Q.20: What does the speed of sound depend on? A) Air pressure B) Air temperature C) Air humidity D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: D All of the above Explanation: The speed of sound depends on air pressure, temperature, and humidity.
Q.21: What causes gravitational force? A) Mass B) Friction C) Reflection D) Motion
Answer
Answer: (A) Mass Explanation: Gravitational force arises due to mass.
Q. 22: What is thermal energy related to? A) Temperature B) Motion C) Velocity D) Force
Answer
Answer: (A) Temperature Explanation: Thermal energy is related to temperature, which is associated with the motion of the molecules of a substance.
Q.23: What is the unit of electric current? A) Watt B) Ohm C) Ampere D) Volt
Answer
Answer: (C) Ampere Explanation: The unit of electric current is Ampere (A).
Q.24: How is electrical resistance calculated? A) Ohm’s Law B) Newton’s Law C) Galileo’s Law D) Hooke’s Law
Answer
Answer: (A) Ohm’s Law Explanation: Electrical resistance is calculated using Ohm’s Law.
Q.25: In which state is the speed of sound the greatest? A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: (A) Solid Explanation: The speed of sound is greatest in solids because the molecules are closely packed and transmit vibrations faster.
Q.26: What is the unit of magnetic force? A) Newton B) Kilogram C) Tesla D) Watt
Answer
Answer: (C) Tesla Explanation: The unit of magnetic force is Tesla (T).
Q.27: What travels at the same speed as light? A) Electron B) Proton C) Neutron D) Photon
Answer
Answer: (D) Photon Explanation: The speed of a photon is equal to the speed of light, which is 3 × 10^8 meters per second.
Q.28: Who gave the principle of induction? A) Michael Faraday B) James Clerk Maxwell C) Luigi Galvani D) Albert Einstein
Answer
Answer: (A) Michael Faraday Explanation: The principle of induction was given by Michael Faraday.
Q.29: What is the unit of energy conversion? A) Joule B) Watt C) Volt D) Meter
Answer
Answer: (A) Joule Explanation: The unit of energy or work conversion is Joule (J).
Q.30: What does ‘molecular motion’ refer to in physics? A) Overall motion of particles B) Intrinsic motion of molecules C) Mechanical motion of an object D) Motion of force
Answer
Answer: (B) Intrinsic motion of molecules Explanation: ‘Molecular motion’ refers to the intrinsic motion of molecules, which depends on temperature.
Q.31: What is the difference between speed and velocity? A) Speed is only magnitude, while velocity has direction. B) Speed and velocity are the same. C) Velocity is only magnitude, while speed has direction. D) Speed has direction, while velocity is only magnitude.
Answer
Answer: A) Speed is only magnitude, while velocity has direction. Explanation: Speed is a scalar quantity that only has magnitude, whereas velocity is a vector quantity that includes direction.
Q.32: What is the unit for measuring mass? A) Kilogram B) Meter C) Joule D) Watt
Answer
Answer: A) Kilogram Explanation: The unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
Q.33: What is the unit of speed? A) Meter/second B) Kilogram/meter C) Newton D) Watt
Answer
Answer: A) Meter/second Explanation: The unit of speed is meter per second (m/s).
Q.34: What is the unit of frequency for sound waves? A) Hertz B) Newton C) Watt D) Joule
Answer
Answer: A) Hertz Explanation: The unit of frequency for sound waves is Hertz (Hz).
Q.35: Which property of light is responsible for polarization? A) Wave nature B) Particle nature C) Motion D) Sound
Answer
Answer: A) Wave nature Explanation: Light can be polarized due to its wave nature.
Q.36: In which state of matter is the speed of sound the greatest? A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: A) Solid Explanation: The speed of sound is greatest in solids because the molecules are closely packed.
Q.37: What is the definition of gravitational force? A) The attractive force between two objects B) The repulsive force between two objects C) The sustainability of an object D) The motion of an object
Answer
Answer: A) The attractive force between two objects Explanation: Gravitational force is the attractive force between two objects.
Q.38: How many laws are there in thermodynamics? A) Three B) Four C) Two D) Five
Answer
Answer: B) Four Explanation: There are four main laws in thermodynamics.
Q.39: What is the formula for electric current? A) Voltage/Resistance B) Voltage × Resistance C) Voltage/Current D) Resistance × Current
Answer
Answer: A) Voltage/Resistance Explanation: Electric current (I) = Voltage (V) / Resistance (R).
Q.40: In which field is resonance used? A) Radio B) Chemistry C) Biology D) Mathematics
Answer
Answer: A) Radio Explanation: Resonance is used in radio and other communication devices.
Q. 41: What is the property of vibration known as? A) Frequency B) Voltage C) Resistance D) Temperature
Answer
Answer: A) Frequency Explanation: The qualitative measure of vibrations is frequency.
Q.42: What is the fundamental principle of the table theory? A) The relationship between the frequency of a wave and its speed B) The relationship between force and motion of an object C) The relationship between electric current and resistance D) The relationship between the speed of sound and temperature
Answer
Answer: A) The relationship between the frequency of a wave and its speed Explanation: Table theory shows the relationship between the frequency and speed of a wave.
Q.43: What are the two main types of mechanical energy? A) Kinetic and Potential B) Thermal and Electrical C) Sound and Light D) Mass and Force
Answer
Answer: A) Kinetic and Potential Explanation: Mechanical energy is primarily kinetic (motion) and potential (position).
Q.44: What is the formula for electrical power? A) Voltage × Current B) Current × Resistance C) Voltage / Current D) Voltage / Resistance
Answer
Answer: A) Voltage × Current Explanation: Electrical Power (P) = Voltage (V) × Current (I)
Q.45: Traditionally, what type of waves are sound waves? A) Three-dimensional B) Two-dimensional C) One-dimensional D) All
Answer
Answer: C) One-dimensional Explanation: Traditional sound waves are one-dimensional, meaning they propagate in one direction.
Q.46: What is the mathematical formula for displacement? A) Final position – Initial position B) Final position + Initial position C) Distance × Time D) Time / Distance
Answer
Answer: A) Final position – Initial position Explanation: Displacement is the difference between the final and initial position.
Q.47: Which type of energy is lost during the cooling process? A) Mechanical energy B) Thermal energy C) Electrical energy D) Chemical energy
Answer
Answer: B) Thermal energy Explanation: In the cooling process, thermal energy is lost.
Q.48: What determines the direction of displacement? A) Direction of motion B) Direction of force C) Initial and final position D) All
Answer
Answer: C) Initial and final position Explanation: The direction of displacement depends on the initial and final position.
Q.49: Which law of thermodynamics states the principle of energy conservation? A) First law B) Second law C) Third law D) Fourth law
Answer
Answer: A) First law Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics is the law of energy conservation, which states that energy cannot be created or destroyed.
Question 50: Who proposed the theory of emission? A) Herschel B) Planck C) Henry D) Newton
Answer
Answer: B) Planck Explanation: The theory of emission was proposed by Planck.
Q.51: What happens when force is applied in the direction of motion? A) Speed increases B) Speed decreases C) Speed remains constant D) No effect
Answer
Answer: A) Speed increases Explanation: Applying force in the direction of motion increases the speed of the object.
Q.52: What is the definition of electrical resistance? A) The ability to resist current B) The ability to conduct current C) Voltage capacity D) Energy capacity
Answer
Answer: A) The ability to resist current Explanation: Electrical resistance measures the ability to resist current.
Q.53: At what frequency do sound waves have the most energy? A) High frequency B) Low frequency C) Medium frequency D) All the same
Answer
Answer: A) High frequency Explanation: Sound waves have the most energy at high frequencies.
Q.54: Which law of Newton is used to calculate motion? A) First law B) Second law C) Third law D) All
Answer
Answer: B) Second law Explanation: Newton’s second law is used to calculate motion.
Q.55: Which law describes the relationship between mass and force? A) Newton’s first law B) Newton’s second law C) Newton’s third law D) Newton’s fourth law
Answer
Answer: B) Newton’s second law Explanation: Newton’s second law describes the relationship between mass and force.
Q.56: What is involved in the maximum displacement of an object? A) Work B) Force C) Energy D) Speed
Answer
Answer: C) Energy Explanation: The maximum displacement of an object involves energy.
Q.57: What does the speed of sound not depend on? A) Type of medium B) Temperature C) Frequency of sound D) Amplitude of sound
Answer
Answer: D) Amplitude of sound Explanation: The speed of sound does not depend on the amplitude of sound, but it depends on the type of medium and temperature.
Q.58: What is the Table Theory related to? A) Properties of waves B) Properties of sound C) Properties of electricity D) Properties of light
Answer
Answer: A) Properties of waves Explanation: The Table Theory is related to the properties and behavior of waves.
Q.59: What type of laws are the laws of motion? A) Static B) Diffraction C) Mechanical D) Electrical
Answer
Answer: C) Mechanical Explanation: The laws of motion are mechanical.
Q.60: What is the unit of sound intensity? A) Decibel B) Hertz C) Watt D) Joule
Answer
Answer: A) Decibel Explanation: The unit of sound intensity is Decibel (dB).
Q.61: What type of energy is electricity? A) Thermal B) Mechanical C) Chemical D) Electrical
Answer
Answer: D) Electrical Explanation: The energy of electricity is in the form of electrical energy.
Indian Economy GK MCQ Question answer for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs on Economics of India from previous year exam question papers for preparation of upcoming exams.
Medium : English
Indian Economy MCQ in English
Q.1: Which Five-Year Plan’s objectives were influenced by the Gadgil Formula in India? (A) Second Five-Year Plan (B) Fourth Five-Year Plan (C) Third Five-Year Plan (D) Seventh Five-Year Plan
Answer
Answer: (B) Fourth Five-Year Plan
Q.2: When was the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) established? (A) 1934 (B) 1935 (C) 1936 (D) 1949
Answer
Answer: (B) 1935
Q.3: Name the Indian state with the highest tax revenue. (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Karnataka (D) Maharashtra
Answer
Answer: (D) Maharashtra
Q.4: Which of the following public sector banks will receive a loan from the BRICS New Development Bank? (A) Canara Bank (B) Punjab National Bank (C) ICICI (D) State Bank of India
Answer
Answer: (A) Canara Bank
Q.5: Which of the following countries recently overtook Thailand as the world’s largest rice exporter in 2015? (A) India (B) Myanmar (C) China (D) Vietnam
Answer
Answer: (A) India
Q.6: The Government of India has recently decided to integrate the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana with: (A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (B) National Rural Livelihood Mission (C) Hariyali (D) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program
Answer
Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
Q.7: The PURA scheme, which envisages the provision of urban amenities in rural areas, was first advocated by: (A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (B) Shri A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (C) Dr. Arvind Subramanian (D) Prof. Dinshaw Mistry
Answer
Answer: (B) Shri A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Q.8: National income can be calculated by all of the following methods except: (A) Sum of all expenditures (B) Sum of all outputs (C) Sum of all savings (D) Sum of all incomes
Answer
Answer: (C) Sum of all savings
Q.9: In a national context, which of the following indicates a macroeconomic perspective? (A) Inflation in India (B) Sales of Bata Shoe Company (C) Mango exports to the UK (D) Income from Railways
Answer
Answer: (C) Mango exports to the UK
Q.10: State Bank of India was previously known by this name: (A) Imperial Bank of India (B) Canara Bank (C) Syndicate Bank (D) Indian Cooperative Bank
Answer
Answer: (A) Imperial Bank of India
Q.11: Whose signature appears on a one-rupee note? (A) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (B) Finance Minister (C) Secretary, Ministry of Finance (D) None of the above
Answer
Answer: (C) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
Q.12: The full form of NABARD is: (A) National Business for Accounting and Review (B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural (C) National Bank for Aeronautics and Radar Development (D) National Bureau for Air and Road Transport
Answer
Answer: (B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Q.13: When was the Reserve Bank of India nationalized? (A) 1949 (B) 1951 (C) 1947 (D) 1935
Answer
Answer: (A) 1949
Q.14: Which of the following indicates a microeconomic perspective in national terms? (A) Per capita income in India (B) Study of TISCO’s sales (C) Inflation in India (D) Educated unemployment in India
Answer
Answer: (B) Study of TISCO’s sales
Q.15: How does agriculture promote industrial development in India? (A) By opening markets for industrial products (B) By providing food and clothing to workers (C) By supplying raw materials (D) All of the above
Answer
Answer: (D) All of the above
Q.16: The Industrial Development Bank of India was established in: (A) July 1968 (B) July 1966 (C) July 1964 (D) July 1962
Answer
Answer: (C) July 1964
Q.17: The slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was included in: (A) Second Plan (B) First Plan (C) Fifth Plan (D) Fourth Plan
Answer
Answer: (C) Fifth Plan
Q.18: Which bank is limited to the needs of agricultural and rural finance? (A) RBI (B) SBI (C) IFC (D) NABARD
Answer
Answer: (D) NABARD
Q.19: The Indian economy is a/an: (A) Free economy (B) Mixed economy (C) Capitalist economy (D) Communist economy
Answer
Answer: (B) Mixed economy
Q.20: The P. Rama Rao Committee is related to: (A) Taxation (B) Defense (C) Industry (D) Agriculture
Answer
Answer: (B) Defense
Q.21: The lender of last resort is: (A) SBI (B) IDBI (C) NABARD (D) RBI
Answer
Answer: (D) RBI
Q.22: The period of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan is: (A) January 1, 2012 to December 31, 2017 (B) April 1, 2011 to March 31, 2016 (C) January 1, 2011 to December 31, 2016 (D) April 1, 2012 to March 31, 2017
Answer
Answer: (D) April 1, 2012 to March 31, 2017
Q.23: In which year was the Imperial Bank established? (A) 1930 (B) 1935 (C) 1955 (D) 1921
Answer
Answer: (D) 1921
Q.24: Which Five-Year Plan had a duration of only four years? (A) Third (B) Fourth (C) Fifth (D) Seventh
Answer
Answer: (C) Fifth
Q.25: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for food grains was introduced in which year? (A) 1944 (B) 1964 (C) 1974 (D) 1954
Answer
Answer: (C) 1974
Q.26: In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all nationalized commercial banks is determined by: (A) Finance Minister of India (B) Central Finance Commission (C) Indian Banks’ Association (D) Reserve Bank of India
Answer
Answer: (D) Reserve Bank of India
Q.27: Which of the following provides long-term loans to private industries in India? (A) Food Corporation of India (B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (C) Primary Credit Society (D) Land Development Bank
Answer
Answer: (D) Land Development Bank
Q.28: “Agriculture should serve as a means of income, livelihood, and opportunities for local communities” – This statement was made by: (A) Dr. Madhavan Nair (B) Dr. Manmohan Singh (C) Dr. Abdul Kalam (D) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
Answer
Answer: (D) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
Q.29: Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs was the focus of the Brundtland Commission. It is called: (A) Sustainable Development (B) Mitigation (C) Disaster Management (D) Capacity Building
Answer
Answer: (A) Sustainable Development
Q.30: SEBI was established in: (A) 1992 (B) 1980 (C) 1984 (D) 1988
Answer
Answer: (D) 1988
Q.31: India exports electricity to: (A) Bangladesh (B) Myanmar (C) Pakistan (D) Bhutan
Answer
Answer: (A) Bangladesh
Q.32: The largest single item of current government expenditure in India is: (A) Defense expenditure (B) Interest payment on loans (C) Subsidy payment (D) Investment in social overheads
Answer
Answer: (B) Interest payment on loans
Q.33: The ‘More Mega Store’ retail chain is related to which Indian industry? (A) Reliance Industries (B) Bharti Enterprises (C) Aditya Birla Group (D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (C) Aditya Birla Group
Q.34: Which spice tops in value as an export commodity of India? (A) Black Pepper (B) Chili (C) Turmeric (D) Cardamom
Answer
Answer: (B) Chili
Q.35: In which year was the nationalization of fourteen major banks in India? (A) 1967 (B) 1968 (C) 1969 (D) 1971
Answer
Answer: (C) 1969
Q.36: One rupee notes are issued by: (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) President of India (D) Government of India
Answer
Answer: (D) Government of India
Q.37: India adopted the decimal currency system in: (A) 1955 (B) 1956 (C) 1957 (D) 1958
Answer
Answer: (C) 1957
Q.38: The number of nationalized banks in India is: (A) 14 (B) 21 (C) 20 (D) 22
Answer
Answer: (C) 20
Q.39: Maruti cars are mainly based on: (A) Japanese technology (B) Korean technology (C) Russian technology (D) German technology
Answer
Answer: (A) Japanese technology
Q.40: Which measure has not been undertaken by the government to curb inflation? (A) Increase in consumption (B) Increase in production (C) Reduction in deficit financing (D) Taxation measures
Answer
Answer: (A) Increase in consumption
Q.41: In the Indian economy, the ‘slack season’ refers to: (A) March-April (B) September-December (C) January-June (D) February-April
Answer
Answer: (C) January-June
Q.42: Which of the following is not a qualitative credit control by a country’s central bank? (A) Rationing of credit (B) Regulation of consumer credit (C) Variation in margin requirements (D) Regulation of margin requirements
Answer
Answer: (C) Variation in margin requirements
Q.43: The market where funds can be borrowed is called: (A) Reserved market (B) Institutional market (C) Money market (D) Exchange market
Answer
Answer: (C) Money market
Q.44: If the marginal return increases at a decreasing rate, then the total return: (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) Becomes income
Answer
Answer: (B) Decreases
Q.45: According to newspaper reports, the government plans to disinvest what percentage of its stake in Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL)? (A) 5% (B) 50% (C) 10% (D) 12%
Answer
Answer: (C) 10%
Q.46: Ownership of RRB (Regional Rural Bank) is held by: (A) Central Government (B) State Government (C) Sponsor Bank (D) Jointly by all of the above
Answer
Answer: (D) Jointly by all of the above
Q.47: Which of the following methods is not used to determine the national income of a country? (A) Income method (B) Output method (C) Input method (D) Investment method
Answer
Answer: (D) Investment method
Q.48: Which scheme of the Government of India makes Indian cities slum-free? (A) Indira Awas Yojana (B) Central Rural Sanitation Program MME (C) Rajiv Awas Yojana (D) Antyodaya
Answer
Answer: (C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
Q.49: The current fiscal deficit percentage in the GDP is: (A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 1
Answer
Answer: (B) 4
Q.50: The term ‘Tragedy of the Commons’ related to the overuse of resources was propounded by: (A) Garrett Hardin (B) Seligman (C) Adolf Wagner (D) A.P. Lemierre
Books and Authors GK MCQ Questions Answers in English for preparation of Competitive exams. Important MCQs from previous year exam question papers.
Books and Authors MCQs in English
Q.1: Who is the author of the novel ‘When the River Sleeps’? (A) Easterine Kire (B) Anuradha Roy (C) Vikram Seth (D) Shobha De
Answer
Answer: (A) Easterine Kire
Q.2: Which of the following books is written by Sachin Tendulkar? (A) Playing It My Way (B) Untold Story (C) Train to Pakistan (D) India of My Dreams
Answer
Answer: (A) Playing It My Way
Q.3: The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ is related to whom? (A) William Wordsworth (B) John Keats (C) Dr. Charles Dickens (D) Dr. Jonathan Swift
Answer
Answer: (B) John Keats
Q.4: Who is the author of the book ‘Zest for Life’? (A) Emile Zola (B) H.G. Wells (C) Virginia Woolf (D) Mark Twain
Answer
Answer: (A) Emile Zola
Q.5: Who wrote the famous novel The Guide? (A) R.K. Narayan (B) Chetan Bhagat (C) Arundhati Roy (D) Satyajit Ray
Answer
Answer: (A) R.K. Narayan
Q.6: Who is the author of the book Magic Seeds? (A) Cyrus Mistry (B) V.S. Naipaul (C) Jhumpa Lahiri (D) Vikram Seth
Answer
Answer: (B) V.S. Naipaul
Q.7: Who is the author of the book Romancing with Life? (A) Kapil Dev (B) Dev Anand (C) Shashi Tharoor (D) Bill Clinton
Answer
Answer: (B) Dev Anand
Q.8: Who is the author of Indica? (A) Megasthenes (B) Fa-Hien (C) Seleucus (D) Hiuen Tsang
Answer
Answer: (A) Megasthenes
Q.9: Who wrote The Discovery of India? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer
Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.10: Who wrote the book The Kingdom of God is Within You? (A) Leo Tolstoy (B) Henry David (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) John Ruskin
Answer
Answer: (A) Leo Tolstoy
Q.11: In which year was the book ‘The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ published? (A) 1930 (B) 1932 (C) 1934 (D) 1936
Answer
Answer: (D) 1936
Q.12: Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom from Fear’? (A) Benazir Bhutto (B) Corazon Aquino (C) Aung San Suu Kyi (D) Nayantara Sahgal
Answer
Answer: (C) Aung San Suu Kyi
Q.13: Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty-Four’? (A) J.M. Barrie (B) Walter Scott (C) George Orwell (D) Thomas Hardy
Answer
Answer: (C) George Orwell
Q.14: Who wrote ‘Mein Kampf’? (A) Hitler (B) Mussolini (C) Bismarck (D) Mazzini
Answer
Answer: (A) Hitler
Q.15: Who is the author of the book ‘The Life Divine’? (A) M.K. Gandhi (B) Rabindranath Tagore (C) S. Radhakrishnan (D) Sri Aurobindo
Answer
Answer: (D) Sri Aurobindo
Q.16: Who wrote ‘Das Kapital’? (A) Asian Drama (B) Emma (C) Das Kapital (D) The Good Earth
Answer
Answer: (C) Das Kapital
Q.17: Who wrote ‘Meghaduta’? (A) Humayun Kabir (B) Khushwant Singh (C) Banabhatta (D) Kalidasa
Answer
Answer: (D) Kalidasa
Q.18: Which of the following is a famous English author? (A) Amrita Pritam (B) Mahadevi Verma (C) Ashapoorna Devi (D) Mulk Raj Anand
Answer
Answer: (D) Mulk Raj Anand
Q.19: Who wrote ‘Indica’? (A) Kautilya (B) Megasthenes (C) Aryabhata (D) Seleucus
Answer
Answer: (B) Megasthenes
Q.20: In which author’s book is the character ‘Rusty’ found? (A) R.K. Narayan (B) Ruskin Bond (C) R.K. Laxman (D) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer
Answer: (B) Ruskin Bond
Q.21: Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’? (A) Lamarck (B) Buffon (C) Darwin (D) Linnaeus
Answer
Answer: (D) Linnaeus
Q.22: Who wrote the book ‘Narendra Modi: A Political Biography’? (A) Andy Marino (B) David Irving (C) Jeffrey Dale (D) Kingsley Amis
Answer
Answer: (A) Andy Marino
Q.23: Who is the author of ‘A Suitable Boy’? (A) Vikram Seth (B) Arundhati Roy (C) Khushwant Singh (D) None of these
Answer
Answer: (A) Vikram Seth
Q.24: Which of the following books was not written by Jawaharlal Nehru? (A) Discovery of India (B) My Experiments with Truth (C) An Autobiography (D) Glimpses of World History
Answer
Answer: (B) My Experiments with Truth
Q.25: Who wrote the book ‘The Hindus: An Alternative History’? (A) Shobhaa De (B) B.R. Ambedkar (C) Wendy Doniger (D) Salman Rushdie
Answer
Answer: (C) Wendy Doniger
Q.26: Who wrote ‘The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian’? (A) R.K. Narayan (B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri (C) R.K. Laxman (D) Rajmohan Gandhi
Answer
Answer: (B) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
Q.27: Who is the author of ‘India of My Dreams’? (A) J.B. Kripalani (B) M.K. Gandhi (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer
Answer: (B) M.K. Gandhi
Q.28: Who is the author of ‘Arthashastra’? (A) Chandragupta (B) Megasthenes (C) Chanakya (D) Seleucus Nicator
Answer
Answer: (C) Chanakya
Q.29: Who wrote the book ‘Beyond the Lines: An Autobiography’? (A) Khushwant Singh (B) General J.J. Singh (C) Kuldip Nayar (D) Ray Bradbury
Answer
Answer: (C) Kuldip Nayar
Q.30: Who is the author of ‘Harsha Charitra’? (A) Banabhatta (B) Amarasimha (C) Kalidasa (D) Harisena
Answer
Answer: (A) Banabhatta
Q.31: Who wrote the book ‘Employment, Interest, and Money’? (A) J.M. Keynes (B) A. Marshall (C) D. Patinkin (D) A. Smith
Answer
Answer: (A) J.M. Keynes
Q.32: Who wrote the famous play ‘Nil Darpan’, depicting the atrocities of British indigo planters? (A) Premchand (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (C) Dinabandhu Mitra (D) Subramania Bharati
Answer
Answer: (C) Dinabandhu Mitra
Q.33: Who wrote ‘One Straw Revolution’? (A) Rachel Carson (B) M.S. Swaminathan (C) Norman Borlaug (D) Masanobu Fukuoka
Answer
Answer: (D) Masanobu Fukuoka
Q.34: Who wrote ‘Natyashastra’? (A) Bharat Muni (B) Narad Muni (C) Jandu Muni (D) Vyas Muni
Answer
Answer: (A) Bharat Muni
Q.35: Who is the author of the book ‘A Cricketing Life’?
(A) Christopher Martin Jenkins (B) Sunil Gavaskar (C) Kapil Dev (D) Tony Greig
Answer
Answer: (A) Christopher Martin Jenkins
Q.36: Which of the following works was Salman Rushdie’s first novel? (A) Shame (B) Midnight’s Children (C) The Satanic Verses (D) The Moor’s Last Sigh
Answer
Answer: (B) Midnight’s Children
Q.37: Which film directed by Satyajit Ray is based on Rabindranath Tagore’s story ‘Nastanirh’? (A) Aparajito (B) Charulata (C) Pather Panchali (D) Apur Sansar
Answer
Answer: (B) Charulata
Q.38: Which of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan? (A) Malgudi Days (B) Swami and Friends (C) The Guide (D) The Gardener
Answer
Answer: (D) The Gardener
Q.39: Which literary work was written by Krishna Devaraya? (A) Kavirajamarga (B) Ushaparinayam (C) Amuktamalyada (D) Kathasaritsagara
Answer
Answer: (C) Amuktamalyada
Q.40: Who is the author of the book ‘The State of the Nation’? (A) Mark Tully (B) Vinod Mehta (C) Kuldip Nayar (D) Fali S. Nariman
Answer
Answer: (D) Fali S. Nariman
Q.41: Who wrote the book ‘Straight from the Heart’? (A) Amrita Pritam (B) Rajmohan Gandhi (C) Kapil Dev (D) R.K. Karanjia
Answer
Answer: (C) Kapil Dev
Q.42: Who is the author of the famous book ‘A Better India: A Better World’? (A) Azim Premji (B) Rajiv Sikri (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy (D) Prema Mahajan
Answer
Answer: (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy
Q.43: Who wrote the book ‘The Satanic Verses’? (A) Agatha Christie (B) Gunnar Myrdal (C) Gabriela Sabatini (D) Salman Rushdie
Answer
Answer: (D) Salman Rushdie
Q.44: Which of the following books was written by Atiq Rahimi? (A) Earth and Ashes (B) This Savage Rite (C) The Red Devil (D) Witness the Night
Answer
Answer: (A) Earth and Ashes
Q.45: ‘Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and His Struggle with India’ was recently in the news and banned in some Indian states including Gujarat. Who is the author of this book? (A) Joseph Lelyveld (B) Michael Ondaatje (C) Jack Welch (D) Duncan Green
Answer
Answer: (A) Joseph Lelyveld
Q.46: Who is the author of the book ‘The Zigzag Way’? (A) Anita Desai (B) Salman Sodhi (C) Jahnavi Barua (D) Lisa Genova
Answer
Answer: (A) Anita Desai
Q.47: Who wrote the book ‘The Indian War of Independence’?
Q.48: Who wrote the Sanskrit grammar? (A) Kalidasa (B) Charaka (C) Panini (D) Aryabhata
Answer
Answer: (C) Panini
Q.49: Which of the following famous books is related to Austin? (A) Lectures on Jurisprudence (B) Leviathan (C) The Social Contract (D) The Problem of Sovereignty
Answer
Answer: (A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
Q.50: Who is the author of the book ‘India Wins Freedom’? (A) Kuldip Nayar (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Indira Gandhi
Important Indian Art and Culture MCQ Questions for competitive exams. General Knowledge MCQs in English for the preparation of UPSC, SSC and all Govt jobs competitive exams.
Art and Culture MCQs
Q.1: Papeti is a festival of which religion? (a) Parsi (b) Jain (c) Sikh (d) Buddhist
Answer
(a) Parsi
Q.2: Which of the following is a famous Assamese festival? (a) Makar Sankranti (b) Yugadi (c) Onam (d) Rongali Bihu
Answer
(d) Rongali Bihu
Q.3: The most popular festival in Tamil Nadu is: (a) Gudi Padwa (b) Onam (c) Bihu (d) Pongal
Answer
(d) Pongal
Q.4: Which of the following languages has been granted the status of a classical language by the Central Government? (a) Gujarati (b) Tamil (c) Marathi (d) Malayalam
Answer
(b) Tamil
Q.5: Who initiated the famous Persian festival Nowruz? (a) Alauddin Khalji (b) Iltutmish (c) Firoz Tughlaq (d) Balban
Answer
(d) Balban
Q.6: Ganesh Chaturthi is celebrated with great enthusiasm in which state? (a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Maharashtra (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer
(c) Maharashtra
Q.7: Where is the ‘Pushkar Fair’ held? (a) Jodhpur (b) Ajmer (c) Jaipur (d) Udaipur
Answer
(b) Ajmer
Q.8: What language is spoken by the people of Lakshadweep? (a) Malayalam (b) Tamil (c) Kannada (d) Telugu
Answer
(a) Malayalam
Q.9: The folk painting style ‘Madhubani’ is popular in which of the following states of India? (a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal
Answer
(a) Bihar
Q.10: The Lalit Kala Akademi is dedicated to promoting: (a) Fine Arts (b) Literature (c) Music (d) Dance and Drama
Answer
(a) Fine Arts
Q.11: Who was the painter of the famous painting ‘Bharat Mata’? (a) Gaganendranath Tagore (b) Abanindranath Tagore (c) Nandalal Bose (d) Jamini Roy
Answer
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
Q.12: The birthplace of the distinguished personality Amrita Sher-Gil is: (a) Hungary (b) India (c) Austria (d) Poland
Answer
(a) Hungary
Q.13: Raja Ravi Varma from Kerala was a distinguished: (a) Dancer (b) Painter (c) Poet (d) Singer
Answer
(b) Painter
Q.14: Jamini Roy made a name for himself in which field? (a) Badminton (b) Painting (c) Theater (d) Sculpture
Answer
(b) Painting
Q.15: Who painted the masterpiece ‘Hamsa Damayanti’? (a) Anjolie Ela Menon (b) Abanindranath Tagore (c) Amrita Sher-Gil (d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer
(d) Raja Ravi Varma
Q.16: In which field did Prodosh Dasgupta distinguish himself? (a) Sculpture (b) Painting (c) Instrumental Music (d) Hindustani Vocal Music
Answer
(a) Sculpture
Q.17: Who was the founder of the Bengal School of Art? (a) Nandalal Bose (b) B.C. Sanyal (c) Jamini Roy (d) Abanindranath Tagore
Answer
(d) Abanindranath Tagore
Q.18: Rajasthani and Pahari art styles are famous for: (a) Music (b) Dance (c) Sculpture (d) Painting
Answer
(d) Painting
Q.19: In which state is the folk painting ‘Madhubani’ popular? (a) West Bengal (b) Odisha (c) Bihar (d) Assam
Answer
(c) Bihar
Q.20: During which period did the Gandhara art develop? (a) Gupta (b) Maurya (c) Satavahana (d) Kushan
Answer
(d) Kushan
Q.21: What do the paintings of Ajanta depict? (a) Ramayana (b) Mahabharata (c) Jataka (d) Panchatantra
Answer
Answer (c) Jataka
Q.22: Where did the miniature painting of Indian heritage develop? (a) Guler (b) Mewar (c) Bundi (d) Kishangarh
Answer
Answer (d) Kishangarh
Q.23: In which field did Jamini Roy earn fame? (a) Sculpture (b) Music (c) Painting (d) Drama
Answer
Answer (c) Painting
Q.24: Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh, was a citizen of which country? (a) Netherlands (b) Portugal (c) UK (d) France
Answer
Answer (d) France
Q.25: Who among the following is famous in the field of painting? (a) Parveen Sultana (b) Prof. T.N. Krishnan (c) Ramkinkar (d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer
Answer (d) Raja Ravi Varma
Q.26: Who among the following is famous in the field of sculpture? (a) Manjit Bawa (b) Saroja Vaidyanathan (c) Ramkinkar (d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer
Answer (c) Ramkinkar
Q.27: Who among the following is a renowned painter? (a) Amrita Sher-Gil (b) N Rajam (c) Kamla Dasgupta (d) U Srinivas
Answer
Answer (a) Amrita Sher-Gil
Q.28: Which of the following Sikh heritage sites is not in India? (a) Nanded (b) Kesgarh Sahib (c) Paonta Sahib (d) Nankana Sahib
Answer
Answer (d) Nankana Sahib
Q.29: The oldest form of Hindustani classical music composition is: (a) Dhrupad (b) Thumri (c) Ghazal (d) None of the above
Answer
Answer (a) Dhrupad
Q.30: Raga Kameshwari was composed by: (a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan (b) None of the above (c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) Uday Shankar
Answer
Answer (c) Pandit Ravi Shankar
Q.31: The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is: (a) Kuchipudi (b) Odissi (c) Bharatanatyam (d) Kathakali
Answer
Answer (a) Kuchipudi
Q.32: Who directed the film based on the bandit queen Phoolan Devi? (a) Abbas-Mustan (b) Shashi Kapoor (c) Shekhar Kapur (d) Anil Kapoor
Answer
Answer (c) Shekhar Kapur
Q.33: Which of the following is a folk dance of India? (a) Mohiniyattam (b) Kathakali (c) Manipuri (d) Garba
Answer
Answer (d) Garba
Q.34: What was the first Indian talkie film? (a) Kisan Kanya (b) Raja Harishchandra (c) Bharat Mata (d) Alam Ara
Answer
Answer (d) Alam Ara
Q.35: Hariprasad Chaurasia is a renowned player of: (a) Shehnai (b) Tabla (c) Sarod (d) Flute
Answer
Answer (d) Flute
Q.36: The Kathakali dance form is associated with which state? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Manipur (d) Kerala
Answer
Answer (d) Kerala
Q.37: The religious text of the Jewish people is: (a) Analects (b) Torah (c) Tripitaka (d) Zend-Avesta
Answer
Answer (b) Torah
Q.38: Shiv Kumar Sharma is famous for playing which instrument? (a) Santoor (b) Sitar (c) Sarod (d) Flute
Answer
Answer (a) Santoor
Q.39: The great Indian maestro Ustad Bismillah Khan is associated with: (a) Shehnai (b) Tabla (c) Sarod (d) Flute
Answer
Answer (a) Shehnai
Q.40: What is the name of the famous folk theatre of the Bhils? (a) Gawarl (b) Swang (c) Tamasha (d) Rammat
Answer
Answer (a) Gawarl
Q.41: Sanjukta Panigrahi was famous for which dance? (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kathak (c) Manipuri (d) Odissi
Answer
Answer: (a) Bharatanatyam
Q.42: Kathakali classical dance originated from: (a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
Answer
Answer: (c) Kerala
Q.43: ‘Bhangra’ is a dance form of: (a) Haryana (b) Rajasthan (c) Delhi (d) Punjab
Answer
Answer: (d) Punjab
Q.44: ‘Dandiya’ is a popular dance of: (a) Gujarat (b) Assam (c) Jharkhand (d) Maharashtra
Answer
Answer: (a) Gujarat
Q.45: ‘Sattriya Dance’ was recognized as a classical dance of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi only in 2000. It originated from: (a) Assam (b) Karnataka (c) Gujarat (d) Tripura
Answer
Answer: (a) Assam
Q.46: In which of the following films did Pran act as a character artist instead of a villain? (a) Ram Aur Shyam (b) Zanjeer (c) Madhumati (d) Himalay Ki God Mein
Answer
Answer: (b) Zanjeer
Q.47: Which of the following films was not directed by Satyajit Ray?
History of Modern India MCQ questions for Competitive Exams. Important MCQs from the previous year exam question paper of SSC, UPSSSC and other govt jobs examinations.
Modern Indian History MCQs
European Companies
Q.1 What is the name of the fort built by the British in Calcutta? a) Fort St. David b) Fort St. Andrew c) Fort William d) Fort Victoria
Answer
Answer: c) Fort William
Q.2 Which was the first trading center established by the British? a) Calcutta b) Surat c) Madras d) Bombay
Answer
Answer: b) Surat
Q.3 Which of the following is not a French settlement in India? a) Pondicherry b) Mahe c) Goa d) Chandernagore
Answer
Answer: c) Goa
Q.4 In 1651, where did the Mughal rulers allow the East India Company to trade and build a factory in Bengal? a) Calcutta b) Kasim Bazar c) Singur d) Bardhaman
Answer
Answer: b) Kasim Bazar
Q.5 Who introduced the cultivation of potatoes in India? a) The British b) The Dutch c) The Portuguese d) The French
Answer
Answer: c) The Portuguese
Q.6 Which of the following was the main headquarters of the Portuguese in India? a) Cochin b) Goa c) Calicut d) Kannur
Answer
Answer: b) Goa
Q.7 When was the French East India Company founded? a) 1600 AD b) 1620 AD c) 1664 AD d) 1604 AD
Answer
Answer: c) 1664 AD
Q.8 Which European nation was the first to establish and influence trade in India? a) British b) French c) Dutch d) Portuguese
Answer
Answer: d) Portuguese
Q.9 Who discovered the sea route to India via the Cape of Good Hope? a) Vasco da Gama b) Amundsen c) Christopher Columbus d) John Cabot
Answer
Answer: a) Vasco da Gama
Q.10 Who was the greatest Portuguese governor who laid the real foundation of Portuguese power in India? a) Almeida b) Francis Drake c) Albuquerque d) Vasco da Gama
Answer
Answer: c) Albuquerque
Regional State
Q.11 Which of the following treaties did Tipu Sultan sign with the British to end the Third Anglo-Mysore War? a) Treaty of Mangalore b) Treaty of Srirangapatnam c) Treaty of Mysore d) Treaty of Bidnur
Answer
b) Treaty of Srirangapatnam
Q.12 Who founded the ‘Khalsa’? a) Guru Gobind Singh b) Guru Ramdas c) Guru Nanak d) Arjun Dev
Answer
a) Guru Gobind Singh
Q.13 The Baisakhi festival of 1999 holds special historical significance for Punjab because – a) It marks the 300th anniversary of the founding of the Khalsa b) It is the last festival of the 20th century c) A large number of non-resident Indians are participating d) None of the above
Answer
a) It marks the 300th anniversary of the founding of the Khalsa
Q.14 Who initiated the military sect of Sikhs known as ‘Khalsa’? a) Har Rai b) Har Kishan c) Gobind Singh d) Tegh Bahadur
Answer
c) Gobind Singh
Q.15 Where was Guru Nanak born? a) Gurdaspur b) Amritsar c) Lahore d) Talwandi
Answer
d) Talwandi
Q.16 Lahore was Ranjit Singh’s political capital. Which city was known as his religious capital? a) Amritsar b) Anandpur Sahib c) Gujranwala d) Peshawar
Answer
a) Amritsar
Q.17 Which Governor-General greeted Ranjit Singh with great honor at Ropar? a) Minto I b) William Bentinck c) Hastings d) Auckland
Answer
b) William Bentinck
Q.18 Which Mughal emperor among the following overthrew the Sayyid Brothers? a) Bahadur Shah I b) Rafi-ud-Daulah c) Shah Jahan II d) Muhammad Shah
Answer
d) Muhammad Shah
Q.19 In which of the following battles did Nadir Shah defeat Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah? a) Delhi b) Karnal c) Panipat d) Kanpur
Answer
b) Karnal
Q.20 Which Governor fought against Tipu Sultan in the Third Mysore War? a) Lord Wellesley b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord Cornwallis d) Lord Wellington
Answer
c) Lord Cornwallis
Q.21 In which year did the British annex Punjab? a) 1828 b) 1831 c) 1849 d) 1856
Answer
c) 1849
Q.22 Who among the following was the Portuguese who captured Goa? a) Francisco de Almeida b) Afonso de Albuquerque c) Vasco da Gama d) Roberto de Nobili
Answer
b) Afonso de Albuquerque
Q.23 Which of the following countries was Indonesia a colony of? a) Dutch b) Spain c) Portugal d) Belgium
Answer
a) Dutch
Q.24 In which of the following battles did the British completely defeat the French? a) Battle of Wandiwash b) Battle of Buxar c) Battle of Plassey d) Battle of Adyar
Answer
a) Battle of Wandiwash
Cultural and Social Reform Movements
Q.25 Arya Samaj is against which of the following? a) The existence of God b) Religious rituals and idol worship c) Hinduism d) Islam
Answer
Answer: b) Religious rituals and idol worship
Q.26 Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission? a) Vivekananda b) Ramakrishna c) M.G. Ranade d) Keshavchandra Sen
Answer
Answer: a) Vivekananda
Q.27 Who was the first to propose the concept of Basic Education? a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer
Answer: c) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.28 Who founded the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh? a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah b) Muhammad Ali c) Shaukat Ali d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Answer
Answer: d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Q.29 Who is called the ‘Prophet of New India’? a) Dayanand Saraswati b) Sri Ramakrishna c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Swami Vivekananda
Answer
Answer: c) Raja Rammohan Roy
Q.30 Who among the following was a pioneer in social reform movements in 19th century India? a) Aurobindo Ghosh b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Devendranath Tagore d) Keshavchandra Sen
Answer
Answer: b) Raja Rammohan Roy
Q.31 Who was the founder of ‘Prarthana Samaj’? a) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa b) Swami Vivekananda c) Atmaram Pandurang d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer
Answer: c) Atmaram Pandurang
Q.32 Whose main efforts led to the abolition of the Sati practice? a) British Viceroy b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Religious preachers d) Maharshi Karve
Answer
Answer: b) Raja Rammohan Roy
Q.33 Raja Rammohan Roy organized a historic movement against which of the following? a) Caste system b) The evil practice of Sati c) The degrading status of women in society d) Following unnecessary religious rituals
Answer
Answer: b) The evil practice of Sati
Q.34 Why did Gandhi oppose the Communal Award, and what was the reason behind it? a) Communal bias b) It would create differences within Hindu society c) Economic deterioration of India d) Destruction of handicrafts
Answer
Answer: b) It would create differences within Hindu society
Q.35 Which among the following was the first commission to focus on primary and secondary education in India? a) Macaulay Commission b) Charles Commission c) Hunter Commission d) Bentinck Commission
Answer
Answer: b) Charles Commission
Q.36 ‘Sarvodaya’ means: a) Complete revolution b) Non-cooperation c) Upliftment of all d) Non-violence
Answer
Answer: c) Upliftment of all
Q.37 Who was the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal (established in 1784)? a) Warren Hastings b) Sir William Jones c) Sir James Mackintosh d) James Prinsep
Answer
Answer: b) Sir William Jones
Q.38 The 19th-century Indian Renaissance was limited to which of the following classes? a) Royal class b) Upper middle class c) Wealthy farmers d) Urban landlords (landowners)
Answer
Answer: b) Upper middle class
Q.39 The Indian Universities Act of 1904 was passed under the dominion of which Viceroy? a) Lord Lytton b) Lord Curzon c) Lord Ripon d) Lord Hardinge-I
Answer
Answer: b) Lord Curzon
Nicknames, Statements, and Books
Q.40 Who composed Gandhiji’s favorite song “Vaishnav Jan To…”? a) Narsi Mehta b) Premanand c) Chunilal d) Dharmik Lal
Answer
Answer: a) Narsi Mehta
Q.41 Who is the author of the book “The Indian War of Independence”? a) Krishna Varma b) Madal Kamma c) B.G. Tilak d) V.D. Savarkar
Answer
Answer: d) V.D. Savarkar
Q.42 Who developed the idea that “means justify the ends”? a) Kautilya b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer
Answer: d) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.43 Who is referred to as the ‘Nightingale of India’? a) Vijayalakshmi Pandit b) Sarojini Naidu c) Aruna Asaf Ali d) Sucheta Kriplani
Answer
Answer: b) Sarojini Naidu
Q.44 Who is known as the ‘Bismarck of India’? a) Vallabhbhai Patel b) Subhas Chandra Bose c) Bhagat Singh d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer
Answer: a) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.45 Who first estimated the national income of India? a) Mahalanobis b) Dadabhai Naoroji c) V.K.R.V. Rao d) Sardar Patel
Answer
Answer: b) Dadabhai Naoroji
Q.46 Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons? a) Lord Sinha b) S.N. Tagore c) W.C. Banerjee d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer
Answer: d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Q.47 Who propounded the theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ from India to Britain? a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale b) Dadabhai Naoroji c) Surendranath Banerjee d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer
Answer: b) Dadabhai Naoroji
Q.48 Gandhi is considered as – a) Philosophical Anarchist b) Original Anarchist c) Marxist d) Fabian
Answer
Answer: a) Philosophical Anarchist
Q.49 Who is the author of the book ‘Anandmath’? a) Rabindranath Tagore b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay c) Sarojini Naidu d) Sri Aurobindo
Answer
Answer: b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Q.50 Who referred to Mahatma Gandhi as the “Half-naked Fakir”? a) Winston Churchill b) Lord Mountbatten c) Lord Wavell d) Lord Linlithgow
Answer
Answer: a) Winston Churchill
Q.51 During which movement did Gandhi give the slogan “Do or Die” to the nation? a) Rowlatt Satyagraha b) Salt Satyagraha c) Quit India Movement d) Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer
Answer: c) Quit India Movement
Q.52 Who gave the famous slogan “Do or Die”? a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Vallabhbhai Patel c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer
Answer: a) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.53 Who called for a return to the Vedas? a) Swami Vivekananda b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati c) Aurobindo Ghosh d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer
Answer: b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Q.54 Who was the first European to translate the Bhagavad Gita into English? a) Sir Alexander Cunningham b) William Jones c) Charles Wilkins d) James Prinsep
Answer
Answer: c) Charles Wilkins
Q.55 Who compiled the holy book of the Sikhs, the ‘Adi Granth’? a) Guru Tegh Bahadur b) Guru Nanak c) Guru Arjun Dev d) Guru Angad
Answer
Answer: c) Guru Arjun Dev
Q.56 What was the main goal of Jyotiba Phule’s ‘Satyashodhak Samaj’ in the last century? a) To protect lower castes from the exploitative Brahmins and their opportunistic religious texts b) To attack the caste system c) To lead the anti-landlord and anti-moneylender rebellion in Satara d) To demand separate representation for untouchables
Answer
Answer: a) To protect lower castes from exploitative Brahmins
Q.57 After the Urdu weekly ‘Al-Hilal’ started by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad in 1912 was banned by the government, when did he establish ‘Al-Balagh’? a) In 1913 b) In 1914 c) In 1915 d) In 1916
Answer
Answer: a) In 1913
Q.58 Who is associated with the title ‘Deshbandhu’? a) B.R. Ambedkar b) C.R. Das c) V.C. Pal d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer
Answer: b) C.R. Das
Q.59 Whose famous statement is “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it”? a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Bhagat Singh c) Lokmanya Tilak d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer
Answer: c) Lokmanya Tilak
Q.60 Who was the editor of ‘Young India’ and ‘Harijan’? a) Nehru b) Ambedkar c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer
Answer: c) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.61 Who composed the famous national song ‘Vande Mataram’? a) Rabindranath Tagore b) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay d) Surendranath Bandopadhyay
Answer
Answer: c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Q.62 Who is associated with the title “Frontier Gandhi”? a) Mohandas K. Gandhi b) Abdul Wali Khan c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer
Answer: c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Q.63 Who is famously known as the “Lady with the Lamp”? a) Sarojini Naidu b) Florence Nightingale c) Indira Gandhi d) Mayawati
Answer
Answer: b) Florence Nightingale
Q.64 Who wrote the patriotic song “Sare Jahan Se Achha”? a) Mohammad Iqbal b) Bahadur Shah Zafar c) Amir Khusro d) Mirza Ghalib
Answer
Answer: a) Mohammad Iqbal
Q.65 Which of the following works is not associated with Mahatma Gandhi? a) My Experiments with Truth b) Harijan c) The Holy Family d) Hind Swaraj
Answer
Answer: c) The Holy Family
Q.66 What was the name of the first newspaper published in India? a) The Calcutta Chronicle b) The Calcutta Gazette c) The Oriental Magazine of Calcutta d) The Bengal Gazette
Answer
Answer: d) The Bengal Gazette
Q.67 Who said, “Give me blood, and I will give you freedom”? a) Subhas Chandra Bose b) Lala Lajpat Rai c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer
Answer: a) Subhas Chandra Bose
Q.68 Match the following:
(A) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
1. Mahatma
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
2. Frontier Gandhi
(C) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
3. Grand Old Man of India
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
4. Gurudev
a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Answer
b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Q.69 Under what name was the song ‘Jana Gana Mana,’ written by Rabindranath Tagore, first published in January 1912? a) Rashtra Jagriti b) Tatva Bodhini c) Bharat Bhagya Vidhata d) None of the above
Answer
Answer: c) Bharat Bhagya Vidhata
Revolutionary Activities: History of Modern India MCQ
Q.70 Which of the following revolutionaries was sentenced to death by the British? a) Jatin Das b) Chandrashekhar Azad c) Rajguru d) Kalpana Dutt
Answer
Answer:c) Rajguru
Q.71 Who was the author of the play ‘Neel Darpan,’ which depicted the revolt of indigo farmers? a) Dinabandhu Mitra b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee c) Rabindranath Tagore d) Nabin Chandra Sen
Answer
Answer:a) Dinabandhu Mitra
Q.72 Which of the following novels became a source of inspiration for Indian freedom fighters? a) Pariksha Guru b) Anandamath c) Rangbhoomi d) Padmarag
Answer
Answer: b) Anandamath
Q.73 Who was the leader of the armed attack on the Chittagong government armory in 1930? a) Chandrashekhar Azad b) Bhagat Singh c) Surya Sen d) Sukhdev
Answer
Answer: c) Surya Sen
Q.74 Which of the following British personalities acknowledged that the revolt of 1857 was a national uprising? a) Lord Dalhousie b) Lord Canning c) Lord Ellenborough d) Disraeli
Answer
Answer: d) Disraeli
Q.75 Where is ‘India House’ located? a) New Delhi b) Kolkata c) London d) New York
Answer
Answer: c) London
Q.76 Against whom was the Lahore Conspiracy Case registered? a) V.D. Savarkar b) Bhagat Singh c) Chandrashekhar Azad d) Aurobindo Ghosh
Answer
Answer: b) Bhagat Singh
Q.77 Who was a prominent leader of the Ghadar Party? a) P. Mitra b) Lala Har Dayal c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak d) Bipin Chandra Pal
Answer
Answer: b) Lala Har Dayal
Q.78 Har Dayal, a great intellectual, was associated with: a) Home Rule Movement b) Ghadar Movement c) Swadeshi Movement d) Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer
Answer: b) Ghadar Movement
Q.79 Who founded the Indian National Party in Berlin in 1914? a) Subhash Chandra Bose b) W.C. Bonnerjee c) Surendranath Banerjee d) Champakaraman Pillai
Answer
Answer: d) Champakaraman Pillai
Q.80 In which region was Birsa Munda’s movement against the British taking place? a) Punjab b) Chota Nagpur c) Terai d) Manipur
Answer
Answer: b) Chota Nagpur
1857 Revolution
Q.81 Who among the following leaders was the first to sacrifice his life in 1857? a) Kunwar Singh b) Tatya Tope c) Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi d) Mangal Pandey
Answer
d) Mangal Pandey
Q.82 When did the British government start directly ruling India? a) After the Battle of Plassey b) After the Battle of Panipat c) After the Mysore Wars d) After the Sepoy Mutiny
Answer
d) After the Sepoy Mutiny
Q.83 The administrative outcome of the 1857 rebellion was the transfer of power from: a) East India Company to the British Crown b) British Crown to the East India Company c) East India Company to the Governor-General d) British Crown to the Board of Directors
Answer
a) East India Company to the British Crown
Q.84 Who was the Governor-General of India during the 1857 rebellion? a) Lord Dalhousie b) Lord Canning c) Lord Mayo d) Lord Ripon
Answer
b) Lord Canning
Q.85 Arrange the following places where the 1857 rebellion took place in the correct order: 1)Jhansi 2)Meerut 3)Delhi 4)Barrackpore a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 4, 3 c) 2, 3, 4, 1 d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer
d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Q.86 Who among the following advocated reconciliation between the British and Muslims while analyzing the causes of the 1857 revolt? a) Syed Ahmad Barelvi b) Shah Waliullah c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan d) Syed Amir Ali
Answer
c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
Q.87 Who led the 1857 rebellion in Lucknow? a) Kunwar Singh b) Tatya Tope c) Rani Lakshmibai d) Hazrat Mahal
Answer
d) Hazrat Mahal
Q.88 Where was the royal court held on 1st November 1858 to issue the Queen’s Proclamation? a) Lucknow b) Kanpur c) Delhi d) Allahabad
Answer
d) Allahabad
Q.89 What was Nana Sahib’s second name? a) Ramchandra Panduranga b) Dhondu Pant c) Tatya Tope d) Kunwar Singh
Answer
b) Dhondu Pant
Q.90 Which of the following events inspired the British monarch to take control of Indian administration? a) Battle of Plassey b) Battle of Buxar c) Violent War d) Sepoy Mutiny
Answer
d) Sepoy Mutiny
Governor General
Q.91 Who attended the Imperial Durbar of 1877 wearing hand-spun Khadi clothes? a) M.K. Gandhi b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak c) Bipin Chandra Pal d) G.V. Joshi
Answer
d) G.V. Joshi
Q.92 Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal? a) Clive b) Hastings c) Wellesley d) Cornwallis
Answer
d) Cornwallis
Q.93 Who introduced the ‘Ryotwari System’ in the then Madras Presidency during British rule? a) Macartney b) Elphinstone c) Thomas Munro d) John Lawrence
Answer
c) Thomas Munro
Q.94 Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal? a) Lord Clive b) Warren Hastings c) Lord John Shore d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer
b) Warren Hastings
Q.95 Why did the British introduce railways in India? a) To promote heavy industries in India b) To facilitate British commerce and administrative control c) To transport food grains during famines d) So that Indians could travel freely within the country
Answer
b) To facilitate British commerce and administrative control
Q.96 In which year was the first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra opened? a) 1852 b) 1853 c) 1854 d) 1855
Answer
b) 1853
Q.97 Which Indian state was not annexed by the “Doctrine of Lapse”? a) Satara b) Nagpur c) Jhansi d) Punjab
Answer
d) Punjab
Q.98 Who was the first Indian selected for the Indian Civil Service? a) Satyendranath Tagore b) Sarojini Naidu c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) C.R. Das
Answer
a) Satyendranath Tagore
Q.99 Which Governor introduced civil services in India for the first time? a) Lord Cornwallis b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord Wellesley d) Lord Hastings
Answer
a) Lord Cornwallis
Q.100 Match the following:
(A) Lord Clive
1. Subsidiary Alliance
(B) Lord Wellesley
2. Indian Universities Act
(C) Lord Dalhousie
3. Doctrine of Lapse
(D) Lord Curzon
4. Dual Government in Bengal
A B C D a) 2 3 4 1 b) 4 1 3 2 c) 4 3 2 1 d) 1 4 2 3
Answer
b) 4 1 3 2
Q.101 Who was the first Viceroy of India? a) Lord Cornwallis b) Pitt c) Lord Canning d) Robert Clive
”Answer”
Q.102 Who implemented the “Doctrine of Lapse”? a) Lord Canning b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord Hastings d) Lord Ripon
[su_spoiler class=”my-custom-spoiler” su_spoiler title=”Answer” style=”fancy”Answer: b) Lord Dalhousie
Q.103 Who was the last Viceroy of India? a) Lord Linlithgow b) Lord Mountbatten c) Lord Wavell d) Clement Attlee
Answer
Answer: b) Lord Mountbatten
Q.104 Who was the first Governor-General of independent India? a) Lord Attlee b) Lord Mountbatten c) C. Rajagopalachari d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer
Answer: b) Lord Mountbatten
Q.105 Who was the first Governor-General of independent India? a) C. Rajagopalachari b) S. Radhakrishnan c) Lord Mountbatten d) Lord Wavell
Answer
Answer: c) Lord Mountbatten
Q.106 During which Governor-General’s tenure was the Indian National Congress formed? a) Lord Ripon b) William Bentinck c) Lord Dufferin d) Lord Curzon
Answer
Answer: c) Lord Dufferin
Q.107 Which of the following can be considered Lord Curzon’s most useful and important reform, especially concerning the people of undivided Punjab province? a) Educational reforms b) Police reforms c) Industrial reforms d) Agricultural reforms
Answer
Answer: d) Agricultural reforms
Q.108 Which British Viceroy is associated with the partition of Bengal? a) Lord Canning b) Lord Curzon c) Lord Hardinge d) Lord Wellesley
Answer
Answer: b) Lord Curzon
Q.109 During Lord Curzon’s viceroyalty, which of the following events did not occur? a) Partition of Bengal b) Establishment of the Archaeological Department c) Second Delhi Durbar d) Formation of the Indian National Congress
Answer
Answer: d) Formation of the Indian National Congress
Q.110 Who is referred to as the “Father of Local Self-Government” in India? a) Lord Ripon b) Lord Hardinge c) Lord Dalhousie d) Lord Lytton
Answer
Answer: a) Lord Ripon
Constitutional Development
Q.111 Under the ‘Pitt’s India Act,’ which of the following was established? a) Foreigners’ Court b) Board of Control c) Board of Revenue d) Permanent Council
Answer
Answer: b) Board of Control
Q.112 Which Charter Act ended the East India Company’s trade monopoly with China? a) Charter Act, 1793 b) Charter Act, 1813 c) Charter Act, 1833 d) Charter Act, 1853
Answer
Answer: c) Charter Act, 1833
Q.113 In India, who introduced the system of communal electorates? a) Indian Councils Act of 1892 b) Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909 c) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer
Answer: b) Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909
Q.114 The popular name of the Indian Councils Act of 1909 is: a) Parliament Act b) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms c) Minto-Morley Reforms d) Judiciary Act
Answer
Answer: c) Minto-Morley Reforms
Q.115 Which Act’s important feature was provincial autonomy? a) 1935 b) 1919 c) 1909 d) 1858
Answer
Answer: a) 1935
Q.116 Who introduced the concept of ‘Dyarchy’ in the 1919 Act? a) Montagu b) Tej Bahadur Sapru c) Lionel Curtis d) Chelmsford
Answer
Answer: a) Montagu
Q.117 Who inaugurated the Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal) in 1921? a) Lord Curzon b) Lord Wellesley c) Duke of Connaught d) Duke of Wellington
Answer
Answer: c) Duke of Connaught
Q.118 During whose tenure was the Rowlatt Act of 1919 implemented? a) Lord Chelmsford b) Lord William c) Lord Minto d) Lord Bentinck
Answer
Answer: a) Lord Chelmsford
Q.119 The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on: a) Simon Commission b) Lord Curzon Commission c) Dimitrov Thesis d) Lord Clive’s Report
Answer
Answer: a) Simon Commission
Economic Condition
Q.120 Who was the President of the Indian National Congress during 1940-46? a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) Maulana Azad
Answer
Answer: d) Maulana Azad
Q.121 Which system relates to the Ryotwari system of land tenure? a) The ryot is the landowner who pays land revenue directly to the government for the land he occupies. b) The ryot is a tenant farmer who pays land revenue to the landlord. c) The person cultivates the land leased by the landlord and pays rent to the landlord. d) The land is collectively owned and cultivated on a cooperative basis.
Answer
Answer: a) The ryot is the landowner who pays land revenue directly to the government for the land he occupies.
Q.122 Who benefitted the most from the British land revenue system in India? a) Sharecroppers b) Farmers c) Zamindars d) Agricultural laborers
Answer
Answer: c) Zamindars
National Movement : History of Modern India MCQs
Q.123 What was the aim of Gandhiji’s movement to boycott foreign goods? a) Complete independence b) To create anti-British sentiment c) To promote a welfare state d) To encourage cottage industries
Answer
d) To encourage cottage industries
Q.124 What was meant by ‘Secretary of State for India’ during British rule? a) The officer who worked like the secretary of the Viceroy of India b) A secretary-level officer appointed for each presidency region of India c) A British minister under whose control the Government of India worked d) A senior officer appointed by the Viceroy to oversee the internal administration of India
Answer
c) A British minister under whose control the Government of India worked
Q.125 Which of the following are the most important teachings of Gandhiji? 1. Truth 2. Non-violence 3. Religion 4. Satyagraha a) Only 1 and 3 b) Only 2 and 4 c) Only 1 and 2 d) Only 1, 2, and 3
Answer
c) केवल 1 और 2
Q.126 Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party? 1. Motilal Nehru 2. Sardar Patel 3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale a) 1 and 2 b) Only 1 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer
b) Only 1
Q.127 C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ after- a) The Swadeshi Movement b) The Non-cooperation Movement c) The Civil Disobedience Movement d) The Quit India Movement
Answer
b) The Non-cooperation Movement
Q.128 In which zodiac sign was Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru born? a) Leo b) Capricorn c) Taurus d) Scorpio
Answer
d) Scorpio
Q.129 Who represented the Indian National Congress at the Congress of Oppressed Nationalities in Brussels in 1927? a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Mahatma Gandhi c) Dr. Ansari d) Motilal Nehru
Answer
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.130 Who was the first woman president of the Indian National Congress? a) Sarojini Naidu b) Bhikaiji Cama c) Annie Besant d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
Medieval History of India GK MCQ questions for Competitive Exams in English. Important General Knowledge MCQs from previous year exam question papers.
Medieval History of India MCQs
Early Medieval Period
Q.1: Which of the following Tomar rulers is credited with establishing the city of Delhi? a) Anangpal b) Wazat c) Rudane d) Devaraj
Answer
Answer: a) Anangpal
Q.2: In which of the following years did Muhammad-bin-Qasim conquer Sindh? a) 712 CE b) 812 CE c) 912 CE d) 1012 CE
Answer
Answer: a) 712 CE
Q.3: Which of the following famous temples did Mahmud of Ghazni attack? a) Belur b) Halebid c) Somnath d) Konark
Answer
Answer: c) Somnath
Q.4: Who defeated Prithviraj in the second battle of Tarain? a) Mahmud of Ghazni b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak c) Muhammad Ghori d) Alauddin Khilji
Answer
Answer: c) Muhammad Ghori
Q.5: Whom did Muhammad Ghori leave behind to take care of the conquered territories? a) Nasiruddin b) Iltutmish c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak d) Malik Kafur
Answer
Answer: c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
Q.6: Which of the following Rajput kings defeated Muhammad Ghori for the first time? a) Prithviraj III b) Baghel Bhim c) Jaychandra d) Kumarpal
Answer
Answer: b) Baghel Bhim
Q.7: Arrange the following events in chronological order: (A) Birth of Prophet Muhammad (B) Rise of the Gupta dynasty in India (C) Completion of the Roman Colosseum (D) Peter the Great becomes Tsar of Russia a) (C), (B), (A), (D) b) (A), (C), (D), (B) c) (B), (D), (C), (A) d) (D), (A), (C), (B)
Answer
Answer: a) (C), (B), (A), (D)
Sultanate Period: Medieval History MCQs
Q.8: Who among the following built the ‘Quwwat-ul-Islam’ Mosque (Delhi)? a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak b) Alauddin Khilji c) Iltutmish d) Muhammad Adil Shah
Answer
Answer: a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
Q.9: Which Sultan of Delhi died while playing polo? a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak b) Alauddin Khilji c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Answer
Answer: a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
Q.10: Before becoming the Sultan of Delhi, Balban was the Prime Minister of which Sultan? a) Nasiruddin b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak c) Bahram Shah d) Aram Shah
Answer
Answer: a) Nasiruddin
Q.11: During whose reign did Genghis Khan attack the borders of India while chasing Jalaluddin? a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak b) Iltutmish c) Balban d) Nasiruddin Khusrau
Answer
Answer: b) Iltutmish
Q.12: Who introduced the famous Persian festival of Nowruz? a) Alauddin Khilji b) Iltutmish c) Firoz Tughlaq d) Balban
Answer
Answer: d) Balban
Q.13: Who was the only queen among the following to rule over Delhi? a) Razia Sultan b) Chand Bibi c) Mehrunnisa d) Hazrat Mahal
Answer
Answer: a) Razia Sultan
Q.14: Which were the two dynasties that ruled immediately before and after the Khilji rulers? a) Slave and Lodi b) Sayyid and Lodi c) Slave and Tughlaq d) Tughlaq and Lodi
Answer
Answer: c) Slave and Tughlaq
Q.15: Which Sultan of Delhi established a department of employment, a charity department, and a philanthropic hospital? a) Firoz Tughlaq b) Muhammad Tughlaq c) Alauddin Khilji d) Balban
Answer
Answer: a) Firoz Tughlaq
Q.16: During whose reign did the Mongols invade the most? a) Balban b) Alauddin Khilji c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq d) Firoz Tughlaq
Answer
Answer: b) Alauddin Khilji
Q.17: Malik Kafur was a general of a) Sikandar Lodi b) Qutb-ud-din Aibak c) Alauddin Khilji d) Humayun
Answer
Answer: c) Alauddin Khilji
Q.18: Which Khilji ruler killed his father-in-law to ascend the throne of Delhi? a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak b) Jalaluddin Khilji c) Ghiyasuddin d) Alauddin Khilji
Answer
Answer: d) Alauddin Khilji
Q.19: The market regulation system was initiated by: a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq b) Iltutmish c) Alauddin Khilji d) Ghiyasuddin
Answer
Answer: c) Alauddin Khilji
Q.20: Which Sultan of Delhi has been described by historians as a “mixture of contradictions”? a) Balban b) Ibrahim Lodi c) Alauddin Khilji d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Answer
Answer: d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Q.21: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq excelled in – a) Art b) Music c) Calligraphy d) Philosophy
Answer
Answer: d) Philosophy
Q.22: The Qutub Minar, as we see it today, was ultimately rebuilt by? a) Balban b) Alauddin Khilji c) Sikandar Lodi d) Firoz Tughlaq
Answer
Answer: d) Firoz Tughlaq
Q.23: Arrange the dynasties of the Sultans of Delhi in chronological order: 1.Khilji 2.Tughlaq 3.Sayyid 4.Slave (a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Answer
Answer: (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Q.24: During whose reign did Ibn Battuta visit India? a) Iltutmish b) Alauddin Khilji c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq d) Balban
Answer
Answer: c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Q.25: Who was the last ruler of the Lodi dynasty? a) Bahlul Lodi b) Ibrahim Lodi c) Daulat Khan Lodi d) Sikandar Lodi
Answer
Answer: b) Ibrahim Lodi
Q.26: Who founded the Lodi dynasty? a) Ibrahim Lodi b) Sikandar Lodi c) Bahlul Lodi d) Khizr Khan
Answer
Answer: c) Bahlul Lodi
Sufi and Bhakti Movement: Medieval History MCQs
Q.27: Who established the Chishti order in India? a) Nizamuddin Auliya b) Salim Chishti c) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti d) Hamiduddin Nagori
Answer
Answer: c) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti
Q.28: Who organized the first Bhakti movement? a) Nanak b) Meera c) Ramdas d) Ramanujacharya
Answer
Answer: d) Ramanujacharya
Q.29: Which of the following Sufi saints believed that devotional music is the path to reaching God? a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti b) Baba Farid c) Sayyid Muhammad d) Shah Alam Bukhari
Answer
Answer: a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chishti
Q.30: The contribution of the saints of the Bhakti and Sufi movements was in a) Religious harmony b) National unity c) Unity between Hindus and Muslims d) Social harmony
Answer
Answer: a) Religious harmony
Q.31: Match the founders (List-I) with the Bhakti sects (List-II) and choose the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I
List-II
(A) Shankaradev
1. Mahanubhav Panth
(B) Jagjivan
2. Alakhnami
(C) Lalgin or Lalbeg
3. Satnami
(D) Govind Prabhu
4. Ek-Sharan-Dharma
Medieval History MCQ in English
A B C D a) 4 3 2 1 b) 4 2 1 3 c) 1 4 3 2 d) 1 2 4 3
Answer
a) 4 3 2 1
Q.32: The Alvar saints originated from which of the following modern states? a) Tamil Nadu b) Kerala c) Karnataka d) Maharashtra
Answer
Answer: a) Tamil Nadu
Q.33: Bhakti preacher Shankaradev popularized which regional language through his teachings? a) Assamese b) Bengali c) Braj Bhasha d) Awadhi
Answer
Answer: a) Assamese
Q.34: Who among the following is considered the creator of the sitar? a) Miyan Tansen b) Baiju Bawra c) Amir Khusro d) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan
Answer
Answer: c) Amir Khusro
Medieval Regional States: Medieval History MCQ
Q.35: Who founded the ‘Vijayanagar Kingdom’? a) Tuluva dynasty b) Sangama dynasty c) Saluva dynasty d) Devaraya dynasty
Answer
Answer: b) Sangama dynasty
Q.36: The rulers of Vijayanagar encouraged – a) Hindi, Marathi, and Sanskrit b) Malayalam, Tamil, and Sanskrit c) Tamil, Telugu, and Sanskrit d) Telugu, Urdu, and Sanskrit
Answer
Answer: c) Tamil, Telugu, and Sanskrit
Q.37: Which book was written by Krishnadevaraya? a) Mitakshara b) Rajatarangini c) Karpur Manjari d) Amuktamalyada
Answer
Answer: d) Amuktamalyada
Q.38: ‘Amuktamalyada’ is the work of a) Allasani Peddana b) Krishnadevaraya c) Vaccharaja d) Kharavela
Answer
Answer: b) Krishnadevaraya
Q.39: The medieval city of Vijayanagar is known today as – a) Chandragiri b) Halebidu c) Hampi d) Kondavidu
Answer
Answer: c) Hampi
Q.40: Who constructed the ‘Raya Gopurams’ in front of the temples in Hampi, Tiruvannamalai, Chidambaram, Srirangam, Tirupati, etc.? a) Vidyaranya b) Krishnadevaraya c) Harihara d) Rajaraja
Answer
Answer: b) Krishnadevaraya
Q.41: When was the famous Battle of Talikota fought? a) 1565 CE b) 1575 CE c) 1585 CE d) 1570 CE
Answer
Answer: a) 1565 CE
Q.42: Who built the ‘Gol Gumbaz’ in Bijapur, the second-largest dome in the world, famous for its whispering gallery? a) Mahmud Gawan b) Yusuf Adil Shah c) Ismail Adil Shah d) Muhammad Adil Shah
Answer
Answer: d) Muhammad Adil Shah
Q.43: Where is the Gol Gumbaz located? a) Konark b) Hyderabad c) Puri d) Bijapur
Answer
Answer: d) Bijapur
Q.44: Who built the ‘Kirti Stambh’ of Chittor? a) Rana Pratap b) Rana Kumbha c) Rana Sanga d) Bappa Rawal
Answer
Answer: b) Rana Kumbha
Q.45: The capital of the Bahmani rulers was – a) Gulbarga b) Bijapur c) Belgaum d) Raichur
Answer
Answer: a) Gulbarga
Q.46: The famous Muslim ruler Chand Bibi belonged to which state? a) Bijapur b) Golconda c) Ahmadnagar d) Berar
Answer
Answer: c) Ahmadnagar
Q.47: The famous Kohinoor diamond was mined from which mine? a) Odisha b) Chota Nagpur c) Bojapur d) Golconda
Answer
Answer: d) Golconda
Mughal Period
Q.48: From which of the following battles was the foundation of the Mughal Empire laid in India? a) Battle of Plassey b) Battle of Talikota c) First Battle of Panipat d) Battle of Haldighati
Answer
Answer: c) First Battle of Panipat
Q.49: After which battle was the Mughal rule established in India? a) First Battle of Tarain b) Second Battle of Tarain c) First Battle of Panipat d) Second Battle of Panipat
Answer
Answer: c) First Battle of Panipat
Q.50: Which Mughal ruler gave a detailed description of Indian flora, fauna, seasons, and fruits in his daily diary? a) Akbar b) Jahangir c) Babur d) Aurangzeb
Answer
Answer: c) Babur
Q.51: The Rajput king defeated by Babur in the Battle of Khanwa was – a) Rana Sanga b) Rudra Dev c) Uday Singh d) Rana Pratap Singh
Answer
Answer: a) Rana Sanga
Q.52: Who wrote the “Humayun Nama”? a) Humayun b) Akbar c) Abul Fazl d) Gulbadan Begum
Answer
Answer: d) Gulbadan Begum
Q.53: After losing which battle did Humayun have to flee from India? a) Khanwa b) Kannauj c) Panipat d) Ghaghra
Answer
Answer: b) Kannauj
Q.54: Which Mughal emperor discouraged the practice of Sati? a) Babur b) Humayun c) Akbar d) Jahangir
Answer
Answer: c) Akbar
Q.55: “Razmnama” is the Persian translation of which of the following? a) Mahabharata b) Ramayana c) Panchatantra d) Kathasaritsagara
Answer
Answer: a) Mahabharata
Q.56: Where did Akbar build the Panch Mahal, known for its pillars? a) Lahore b) Fatehpur Sikri c) Agra d) Sikandra
Answer
Answer: b) Fatehpur Sikri
Q.57: Famous musicians Tansen and Baiju Bawra were renowned during whose reign? a) Jahangir b) Bahadur Shah Zafar c) Akbar d) Shah Jahan
Answer
Answer: c) Akbar
Q.58: Who was the famous Jain scholar highly respected by Akbar? a) Hemchandra b) Harivijaya c) Vastupal d) Bhadrabahu
Answer
Answer: b) Harivijaya
Q.59: Who is the author of the book “Ain-i-Akbari”? a) Akbar b) Abul Fazl c) Firdausi d) Jahangir
Answer
Answer: b) Abul Fazl
Q.60: The Battle of Haldighati was fought between whom? a) Akbar and Rana Sangram Singh b) Akbar and Medini Rai c) Akbar and Rana Pratap Singh d) Akbar and Uday Singh
Answer
Answer: c) Akbar and Rana Pratap Singh
Q.61: The Buland Darwaza was constructed to commemorate Akbar’s victory over which region? a) Malwa b) Deccan c) Bengal d) Gujarat
Answer
Answer: d) Gujarat
Q.62: Who initiated the “Mansabdari System”? a) Akbar b) Shah Jahan c) Jahangir d) Babur
Answer
Answer: a) Akbar
Q.63: Which of the following is not located in Fatehpur Sikri? a) Panch Mahal b) Moti Masjid c) Tomb of Salim Chishti d) Mariam Palace
Answer
Answer: b) Moti Masjid
Q.64: Who renamed the city of Prayag as Allahabad, meaning “City of Allah”? a) Aurangzeb b) Akbar c) Shah Jahan d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer
Answer: b) Akbar
Q.65: Who was responsible for land revenue reforms during Akbar’s reign? a) Birbal b) Todar Mal c) Jai Singh d) Bihari Mal
Answer
Answer: b) Todar Mal
Q.66: Under the “Zabt System,” what portion of actual production was fixed as the state’s demand? a) One-fourth b) One-third c) Half d) One-fifth
Answer
Answer: b) One-third
Q.67: Who initiated the new religion “Din-i-Ilahi”? a) Humayun b) Jahangir c) Akbar d) Shah Jahan
Answer
Answer: c) Akbar
Q.68: Which of the following was illiterate? a) Jahangir b) Shah Jahan c) Akbar d) Aurangzeb
Answer
Answer: c) Akbar
Q.69: Which Mughal emperor is credited with composing Hindi songs? a) Babur b) Akbar c) Jahangir d) Shah Jahan
Answer
Answer: b) Akbar
Q.70: Which of the following was not a reform measure adopted by Akbar? a) Dagh b) Mansabdari System c) Iqta System d) Zabt
Answer
Answer: c) Iqta System
Q.71: What is the meaning of “Jahangir”? a) Lord of the Nation b) Supreme Lord c) World Conqueror d) Hero of a Hundred Battles
Answer
Answer: c) World Conqueror
Q.72: Painting reached its peak during whose reign? a) Akbar b) Aurangzeb c) Jahangir d) Shah Jahan
Answer
Answer: c) Jahangir
Q.73: Which of the following was sent to the royal court of Jahangir as an ambassador by the then King of England, James I? a) John Hawkins b) William Todd c) Sir Thomas Roe d) Sir Walter Raleigh
Answer
Answer: a) John Hawkins
Q.74: In which of the following Mughal buildings was the world-famous ‘Takht-e-Taus’ placed? a) Diwan-e-Khas at Fatehpur Sikri b) Agra’s new fort c) Rang Mahal of Red Fort in Delhi d) Diwan-e-Aam of Red Fort in Delhi
Answer
Answer: d) Diwan-e-Aam of Red Fort in Delhi
Q.75: In which of the following cities did Shah Jahan build the Moti Masjid? a) Delhi b) Jaipur c) Agra d) Amarkot
Answer
Answer: c) Agra
Q.76: Who among the following succeeded Aurangzeb? a) Azam b) Kam Bakhsh c) Akbar II d) Muazzam
Answer
Answer: d) Muazzam
Q.77: The ‘Mir Bakshi’ of Mughal emperors headed which department? a) Intelligence (Secret Information) b) Foreign Affairs c) Military Organization d) Finance
Answer
Answer: c) Military Organization
Q.78: To whom was ‘Inam land’ given? a) Scholars and religious persons b) Hereditary revenue collectors c) Mansabdars d) Nobles
Answer
Answer: a) Scholars and religious persons
Q.79: Which of the following Mughal buildings is said to be exactly equal in length and width? a) Agra Fort b) Red Fort c) Taj Mahal d) Buland Darwaza
Answer
Answer: c) Taj Mahal
Q.80: Which of the following facts about the Taj Mahal is not true? a) It is a grand mausoleum. b) It was built by Shah Jahan. c) It is located outside Agra Fort. d) The names of the artisans who built it are engraved on it.
Answer
Answer: d) The names of the artisans who built it are engraved on it.
Sher Shah
Q.81: During the reign of which of the following rulers was the 1 Rupee coin minted in India? a) Babur b) Sher Shah Suri c) Akbar d) Aurangzeb
Answer
b) Sher Shah Suri
Q.82: What symbolizes the greatness of Sher Shah? a) His campaign of victory against Humayun b) Excellent military leadership c) Administrative reforms d) Religious tolerance
Answer
c) Administrative reforms
Q.83: The Grand Trunk Road built by Sher Shah connected Punjab with which of the following? a) Lahore b) Multan c) Agra d) Eastern Bengal
Answer
d) Eastern Bengal
Marathas: GK MCQs
Q.84: In Shiva ji’ s administration, the ‘Peshwa’ was referred to as a) Minister of Religious Affairs b) Defense Minister c) Prime Minister d) Minister of Justice
Answer
c) Prime Minister
Q.85: Who was the guru (spiritual teacher) of Shiva ji? a) Namdev b) Ramdas c) Eknath d) Tukaram
Answer
b) Ramdas
Q.86: Who did Aurangzeb send to defeat Chhatrapati Shiva ji? a) Raja Jaswant Singh b) Raja Man Singh c) Raja Bhagwan Das d) Raja Jai Singh
Answer
d) Raja Jai Singh
Q.87: Through which treaty did Shiva ji transfer forts to the Mughals? a) Chittor b) Pune c) Purandar d) Torna
Answer
c) Purandar
Q.88: Shiva ji’s coronation took place in- a) 1627 AD b) 1674 AD c) 1680 AD d) 1670 AD
Answer
b) 1674 AD
Q.89: Where was the capital of Shivaji’s kingdom? a) Pune b) Karwar c) Purandar d) Raigad
Answer
d) Raigad
Q.90: Arrange the following treaties in chronological order: (1) Treaty of Amritsar (2) Treaty of Bassein (3) Treaty of Srirangapatnam (4) Treaty of Salbai a) 1, 3, 2, 4 b) 4, 3, 1, 2 c) 4, 3, 2, 1 d) 2, 1, 4, 3
Answer
c) 4, 3, 2, 1
Q.91: Which of the following European powers provided cannons to Shivaji? a) Portuguese b) Dutch c) English d) French
Important Ancient History of India GK MCQ questions for Competitive Exams. Topic wise practice set in English from previous year exam question papers of SSC, UPSSSC and other government jobs exams.
Prehistoric Era and Harappan Civilization
Q.1: The social system of the Harappan people was ……………? a) Fairly egalitarian b) Slave-labor based c) Caste-based d) Varna-based
Answer
Answer:a) Fairly egalitarian
Q.2: The houses in the Indus Valley were made of? a) Bricks b) Bamboo c) Stone d) Wood
Answer
Answer: a) Bricks
Q.3: The inhabitants of Harappa were- a) Rural b) Urban c) Nomadic d) Tribal
Answer
Answer: b) Urban
Q.4: The Harappan people were the first to produce which of the following? a) Coins b) Bronze tools c) Cotton d) Barley
Answer
Answer:c) Cotton
Q.5: The Harappan civilization belonged to which age? a) Bronze Age b) Neolithic Age c) Paleolithic Age d) Iron Age
Answer
Answer: a) Bronze Age
Q.6: What was the script of the Indus Valley Civilization? a) Tamil b) Kharosthi c) Unknown d) Brahmi
Answer
Answer: c) Unknown
Q.7: The first ancient city discovered in India was? a) Harappa b) Punjab c) Mohenjo-daro d) Sing
Answer
Answer: a) Harappa
Q.8: Epigraphy refers to a) Study of coins b) Study of inscriptions c) Study of epics d) Study of geography
Answer
Answer: b) Study of inscriptions
Q.9: The discovery of measuring scales proved that the Indus Valley people were familiar with measurement and weighing. Where was this discovery made? a) Kalibangan b) Harappa c) Chanhudaro d) Lothal
Answer
Answer: d) Lothal
Q.10: One of the most significant sculptures of the Indus Valley Civilization was? a) Nataraja b) Dancing girl c) Buddha d) Narasimha
Answer
Answer: b) Dancing girl
Q.11: Who among the following is NOT associated with the study of Harappan culture? a) Charles Masson b) Cunningham c) M. Wheeler d) P. S. Vats
Answer
Answer: d) P. S. Vats
Q.12: Who was the first to discover the Harappan Civilization? a) Sir John Marshall b) R. D. Banerjee c) A. Cunningham d) Daya Ram Sahni
Answer
Answer: d) Daya Ram Sahni
Q.13: Which of the following was the port city of the Indus Valley Civilization? a) Kalibangan b) Lothal c) Ropar d) Mohenjo-daro
Answer
Answer: b) Lothal
Q.14: Which of the following domesticated animals was NOT present in the terracotta figurines of the Indus Valley Civilization? a) Buffalo b) Sheep c) Cow d) Pig
Answer
Answer: c) Cow
Vedic Civilization: Ancient History GK MCQ
Q.15: Which of the following Vedas provides information about the civilization of the ancient Vedic era?
a) Rigveda b) Yajurveda c) Atharvaveda d) Samaveda
Answer
a) Rigveda
Q.16: The primary food of the Vedic Aryans was?
a) Barley and Rice b) Milk and its products c) Rice and Pulses d) Vegetables and Fruits
Answer
b) Milk and its products
Q.17: Which metal was first used by the Vedic people?
a) Silver b) Gold c) Iron d) Copper
Answer
d) Copper
Q.18: The Aryans were successful in their conflicts with pre-Aryans because –
a) They used elephants on a large scale b) They were taller and stronger c) They belonged to an advanced urban culture d) They used chariots driven by horses
Answer
d) They used chariots driven by horses
Q.19: In the Aryan civilization, the stages of life, in ascending order, were –
a) Brahmacharya-Grihastha-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa b) Grihastha-Brahmacharya-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa c) Brahmacharya-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa-Grihastha d) Grihastha-Sannyasa-Vanaprastha-Brahmacharya
Answer
a) Brahmacharya-Grihastha-Vanaprastha-Sannyasa
Q.20: In the early Vedic period, the Varna system was based on –
a) Education b) Birth c) Profession d) Talent
Answer
c) Profession
Q.21: Who was the first European to call ‘Aryans’ a race?
a) Sir William Jones b) H. H. Wilson c) Max Muller d) General Cunningham
Answer
c) Max Muller
Q.22: From where is the famous ‘Gayatri Mantra’ taken?
a) Yajurveda b) Atharvaveda c) Rigveda d) Samaveda
Answer
c) Rigveda
Q.23: Which of the following crafts was not practiced by the Aryans?
a) Pottery b) Jewelry c) Carpentry d) Blacksmithing
Answer
d) Blacksmithing
Q.24: Which of the following learned women challenged the invincible Yajnavalkya in a debate?
a) Ghosha b) Apala c) Maitreyi d) Gargi
Answer
d) Gargi
Buddhism and Jainism
Q.25: Where was Gautam Buddha born?
a) Kushinagar b) Sarnath c) Bodh Gaya d) Lumbini
Answer
d) Lumbini
Q.26: To which clan did Buddha belong?
a) Jnatrika b) Maurya c) Shakya d) Kuru
Answer
c) Shakya
Q.27: Where was the First Buddhist Council held?
a) Vaishali b) Kashmir c) Rajgriha d) Pataliputra
Answer
c) Rajgriha
Q.28: What is the meaning of ‘Buddha’?
a) Enlightened b) Preacher of religion c) Talented d) Powerful
Answer
a) Enlightened
Q.29: Identify the Buddhist literature from the following:
a) Tripitaka b) Upanishads c) Anga d) Aranyakas
Answer
a) Tripitaka
Q.30: Buddhism made a significant impact by connecting two sections of society. These sections were:
a) Merchants and Priests b) Moneylenders and Slaves c) Warriors and Traders d) Women and Shudras
Answer
d) Women and Shudras
Q.31: Where did Buddha deliver his first sermon?
a) Gaya b) Sarnath c) Pataliputra d) Vaishali
Answer
b) Sarnath
Q.32: The Gandhara art style of painting was initiated by which tradition?
a) Hinayana Sect b) Mahayana Sect c) Vaishnavism d) Shaivism
Answer
b) Mahayana Sect
Q.33: Metal coins first appeared during:
a) Harappan Civilization b) Later Vedic Period c) Buddha’s time d) Mauryan Period
Answer
c) Buddha’s time
Q.34: Early Buddhist literature was composed in which language?
a) Pali b) Sanskrit c) Aramaic d) Prakrit
Answer
a) Pali
Q.35: During whose reign was the engraving work in the famous Ajanta caves started?
a) Kadamba b) Satavahana c) Rashtrakuta d) Maratha
Answer
b) Satavahana
Q.36: In Buddhism, the ‘Bull’ is associated with which event of Buddha’s life?
a) Birth b) Great Renunciation c) Enlightenment d) Mahaparinirvana
Answer
a) Birth
Q.37: Where did Buddha attain Mahaparinirvana?
a) Kushinagar b) Kapilavastu c) Pava d) Kundagrama
Answer
a) Kushinagar
Q.38: Where did Buddha attain enlightenment?
a) Sarnath b) Bodh Gaya c) Kapilavastu d) Rajgriha
Answer
b) Bodh Gaya
Q.39: Which religion preaches that “Desire is the root cause of all suffering”?
a) Buddhism b) Jainism c) Sikhism d) Hinduism
Answer
a) Buddhism
Q.40: The Tamil literary masterpiece ‘Jivaka Chintamani’ is associated with which religion?
a) Jain b) Buddh c) Hindu d) Christian
Answer
a) Jainism
Q.41: Who was Mahavira?
a) 21st Tirthankara b) 24th Tirthankara c) 23rd Tirthankara d) 22nd Tirthankara
Answer
b) 24th Tirthankara
Q.42: Who was the mother of Mahavira? a) Yashoda b) Anojja c) Trishala d) Devnandi
Answer
c) Trishala
Q.43: In which Kshatriya clan was Mahavira born? a) Shakya b) Jnatrika c) Mallas d) Licchavi
Answer
b) Jnatrika
Q.44: Who was the famous ruler of ancient India who adopted Jainism in his later years? a) Samudragupta b) Bindusara c) Chandragupta d) Ashoka
Answer
c) Chandragupta
Q.45: Which type of pottery is considered a symbol of the beginning of the second urbanization in India?
a) Painted Grey Ware b) Northern Black Polished Ware c) Ochre-colored Pottery d) Black and Red Ware
Answer
Answer: b) Northern Black Polished Ware
Q.46: Which was the first ruler responsible for the rise of Magadha?
a) Bindusara b) Ajatashatru c) Bimbisara d) Vasudeva
Answer
Answer: c) Bimbisara
Q.47: Who was the teacher of Alexander the Great?
a) Darius b) Cyrus c) Socrates d) Aristotle
Answer
Answer: d) Aristotle
Q.48: Alexander the Great died in 323 BCE in –
a) Persia b) Babylon c) Macedonia d) Taxila
Answer
Answer: b) Babylon
Q.49: In ancient times, which language was used to write source materials?
a) Sanskrit b) Pali c) Brahmi d) Kharosthi
Answer
Answer: a) Sanskrit
Q.50: Which of the following ancient Indian cities was home to the three learned sages Kapila, Gargi, and Maitreya?
a) Kashi b) Mithila c) Ujjayini d) Pataliputra
Answer
Answer: b) Mithila
Q.51: The ‘Mahabhashya’ was written by
a) Gargi b) Manu c) Bana d) Patanjali
Answer
Answer: d) Patanjali
Maurya Period
Q.52: Who succeeded Chandragupta Maurya on the Mauryan throne? a) Bimbisara b) Ashoka c) Bindusara d) Vishnugupta
Answer
Answer: c) Bindusara
Q.53: Which of the following would best describe the Mauryan monarchy under Ashoka?
a) Enlightened despotism b) Centralized autocracy c) Oriental despotism d) Guided democracy
Answer
Answer: b) Centralized autocracy
Q.54: Which of the following was not a part of the Maurya dynasty?
a) Ajatashatru b) Bindusara c) Chandragupta Maurya d) None of the above
Answer
Answer: a) Ajatashatru
Q.55: Who among the following was also known as ‘Devanam Priyadarshi’?
a) Maurya King Ashoka b) Maurya King Chandragupta Maurya c) Gautama Buddha d) Lord Mahavira
Answer
Answer: a) Maurya King Ashoka
Q.56: Which foreign traveler visited India first among the following?
a) Xuanzang (Hieun Tsang) b) Megasthenes c) I-Tsing d) Fa-Hien
Answer
Answer: b) Megasthenes
Q.57: Who wrote ‘Indica’?
a) I-Tsing b) Megasthenes c) Fa-Hien d) Xuanzang (Hieun Tsang)
Answer
Answer: b) Megasthenes
Q.58: Ashoka embraced Buddhism after being influenced by which Buddhist monk?
a) Vishnugupta b) Upagupta c) Brahmagupta d) Brihadratha
Answer
Answer: b) Upagupta
Q.59: Chandragupta Maurya’s famous teacher, Chanakya, was associated with which educational center?
a) Taxila b) Nalanda c) Vikramshila d) Vaishali
Answer
Answer: a) Taxila
Q.60: The impact of the Kalinga War on Ashoka is most evident in
a) Edicts engraved on pillars b) The 13th rock edict c) Inscriptions d) None of the above
Answer
Answer: b) The 13th rock edict
Q.61: In all of his inscriptions, Ashoka consistently used which Prakrit language?
a) Ardha-Magadhi b) Shuraseni c) Magadhi d) Angika
Answer
Answer: a) Ardha-Magadhi
Q.62: Who was the first person to decipher Ashoka’s inscriptions, and when?
a) 1810 – Harry Smith b) 1787 – John Tower c) 1825 – Charles Metcalfe d) 1837 – James Prinsep
Answer
Answer: d) 1837 – James Prinsep
Q.63: Who provided patronage to the Third Buddhist Council?
a) Kanishka b) Ashoka c) Mahakasyapa Upali d) Sabakarni
Answer
Answer: b) Ashoka
Q.64: Which dynasty ruled Magadha after the Maurya dynasty?
a) Satavahana b) Shunga c) Nanda d) Kanva
Answer
Answer: b) Shunga
Post-Mauryan Period
Q.65: Who started the Shaka era, which is used by the Government of India?
a) Kanishka b) Vikramaditya c) Samudragupta d) Ashoka
Answer
a) Kanishka
Q.66: Who initiated the famous ‘Silk Route’ for Indians?
a) Kanishka b) Ashoka c) Harsha d) Fa-Hien
Answer
a) Kanishka
Q.67: Who introduced the ‘Yavanika’ (curtain) in Indian theatre?
a) Shakas b) Parthians c) Greeks d) Kushans
Answer
c) Greeks
Q.68: Charaka was the royal physician of which ruler?
a) Harsha b) Chandragupta Maurya c) Ashoka d) Kanishka
Answer
d) Kanishka
Q.69: The school of art developed by the fusion of Indian and Greek styles during the Kushan period is known by which name?
a) Kushan Art b) Persian Art c) Gandhara Art d) Mughal Art
Answer
c) Gandhara Art
Q.70: In which year did Kanishka ascend the throne?
a) 108 AD b) 78 AD c) 58 AD d) 128 AD
Answer
b) 78 AD
Q.71: Which field saw the greatest development during the Kushan period?
a) Religion b) Art c) Literature d) Architecture
Answer
b) Art
Q.72: Which of the following pairs of authors and books is incorrect?
Author
Book
(a) Vishakhadatta
Mudrarakshasa
(b) Kautilya
Arthashastra
(c) Megasthenes
Indica
(d) Nagarjuna
Dhruvaswamini
Ancient History GK Questions in English
Answer
(d) Nagarjuna, Dhruvaswamini
Q.73: In which museum is the collection of Kushan sculptures most prominently displayed? a) Mathura Museum b) Bombay Museum c) Madras Museum d) Delhi Museum
Answer
a) Mathura Museum
Q.74: Match the following:
(a) Vikram Samvat
1. 248 A.D.
(b) Shaka Samvat
2. 320 A.D.
(c) Kalachuri Samvat
3. 58 B.C.
(d) Gupta Samvat
4. 78 A.D.
a) A1, B2, C3, D4 b) A3, B4, C1, D2 c) A4, B3, C2, D1 d) A2, B1, C4, D3
Answer
b) A3, B4, C1, D2
Q.75: Who discovered the art of paper making in the 2nd century B.C.?
a) The Chinese b) The Romans c) The Greeks d) The Mongols
Answer
a) The Chinese
Q.76: The Gandhara style of sculpture during the Kushan period is a mixture of which of the following? a) Indian-Islamic style b) Indian-Persian style c) Indian-Chinese style d) Indian-Greek (Hellenistic) style
Answer
d) Indian-Greek (Hellenistic) style
Q.77: What is the name of the art style that combines characteristics of Indian and Greek art? a) Shikhar b) Varn c) Nagan d) Gandhara
Answer
d) Gandhara
Q.78: The literary figures during Kanishka’s reign were a) Nagarjuna and Ashvaghosha b) Vasumitra and Ashvaghosha c) Charaka and Sushruta d) Ashvaghosha and Kalidasa
Answer
a) Nagarjuna and Ashvaghosha
Gupta Period
Q.79: Who was the first known Gupta ruler? a) Shri Gupta b) Chandragupta I c) Ghatotkacha d) Kumaragupta I
Answer
a) Shri Gupta
Q.80: Who was the founder of the Gupta era? a) Ghatotkacha b) Shri Gupta c) Chandragupta d) Samudragupta
Answer
c) Chandragupta
Q.81: Which ‘Gupta’ king assumed the title of ‘Vikramaditya’? a) Skandagupta b) Samudragupta c) Chandragupta II d) Kumaragupta
Answer
c) Chandragupta II
Q.82: Which Gupta king stopped the Huns from invading India? a) Kumaragupta b) Samudragupta c) Skandagupta d) Chandragupta
Answer
c) Skandagupta
Q.83: Harishena was the court poet of which of the following kings? a) Ashoka b) Samudragupta c) Chandragupta d) Harshavardhan
Answer
b) Samudragupta
Q.84: India’s trade with the Roman Empire ended with the attack on Rome by whom? a) Arabs b) Hungarians c) Huns d) Turks
Answer
c) Huns
Q.85: Who among the following is called the Napoleon of India due to his conquests? a) Skandagupta b) Chandragupta c) Brahmagupta d) Samudragupta
Answer
d) Samudragupta
Q.86: Which metal coins were issued the most during the Gupta period? a) Gold b) Silver c) Copper d) Iron
Answer
a) Gold
Q.87: Who was the court poet of Kalidasa? a) Chandragupta Maurya b) Samudragupta c) Chandragupta Vikramaditya d) Harsh
Answer
c) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
Q.88: Who among the following was a great astronomer and mathematician during the Gupta rule? a) Bhanugupta b) Vagbhata c) Aryabhata d) Varahamihira
Answer
c) Aryabhata
Q.89: Which of the following literary works is related to classical Sanskrit literature? a) ‘Dhammapada’ b) ‘Vedas’ c) ‘Meghadutam’ d) ‘Dighanikaya’
Answer
c) ‘Meghadutam’
Q.90: Which of the following is not a physician? a) Sushruta b) Charaka c) Charvaka d) Dhanvantari
Answer
c) Charvaka
Q.91: Who discovered the concept of zero? a) Varahamihira b) Aryabhata c) Bhaskara d) None of the above
Answer
b) Aryabhata
South India
Q.92: The Sangam era is associated with the history of which region? a) Banaras b) Allahabad c) Tamil Nadu d) Khajuraho
Answer
c) Tamil Nadu
Q.93: Which Chera king, known as the ‘Lal Chera,’ built the temple of Kannagi? a) Elara b) Karikala c) Senguttuvan d) Nedunjeral Adan
Answer
c) Senguttuvan
Q.94: Where did the Chalukyas establish their empire? a) Far South b) Malwa c) South d) Gujarat
Answer
c) South
Q.95: The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora represent which religions? a) Only Buddhists b) Buddhists and Jains c) Hindus and Jains d) Hindus, Buddhists, and Jains
Answer
d) Hindus, Buddhists, and Jains
Q.96: Which Chola king carried the Ganges from North to South? a) Rajaraja Chola b) Mahendra c) Rajendra Chola d) Parantaka
Answer
c) Rajendra Chola
Q.97: Who constructed the Virupaksha Temple? a) Chalukyas b) Pallavas c) Vakatakas d) Satavahanas
Answer
a) Chalukyas
Q.98: The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are of which religions? a) Hindu and Buddhist b) Buddhist and Jain c) Hindu and Jain d) Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain
Answer
d) Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain
Q.99: Which religion did the Chola kings patronize? a) Jainism b) Buddhism c) Shaivism d) Vaishnavism
Answer
c) Shaivism
Q.100: Which of the following great composers was a ruler of a state? a) Tyagaraja b) Syama Sastri c) Muthuswami Dikshitar d) Swathi Thirunal
Answer
d) Swathi Thirunal
Q.101: Which ancient Indian empire is incorrectly paired with its capital? a) Maurya – Pataliputra b) Pandya – Madurai c) Pallava – Vellore d) Kakatiya – Warangal
Answer
c) Pallava – Vellore
Q.102: Pulakeshin II was the greatest ruler of which dynasty? a) Chalukyas of Kalyani b) Pallavas of Kanchi c) Cholas of Tamil Nadu d) Chalukyas of Vatapi
Answer
d) Chalukyas of Vatapi
Q.103: Which inscription is associated with the Chalukya emperor Pulakeshin II? a) Maski b) Hathigumpha c) Aihole d) Nasik
Answer
c) Aihole
Q.104: The Rath Temples at Mahabalipuram were built during the reign of which Pallava ruler? a) Mahendravarman I b) Narasimhavarman I c) Parameswaravarman I d) Nandivarman I
Answer
b) Narasimhavarman I
Q.105: Which Chola king was the first to conquer Lanka (Sri Lanka)? a) Aditya I b) Rajaraja I c) Rajendra d) Vijayalaya
Answer
b) Rajaraja I
Q.106: The most powerful Chola king to conquer Sri Lanka was- a) Rajaraja I b) Rajendra II c) Rajendra Chola d) Gangai Kondachola
Answer
c) Rajendra Chola
Post-Gupta Era: Ancient Indian History GK MCQ
Q.107: Which university became famous in the Post-Gupta period?
a) Kanchi b) Taxila c) Nalanda d) Vallabhi
Answer
Answer: c) Nalanda
Q.108: Who among the following wrote ‘Harshacharita’?
a) Kalidasa b) Banabhatta c) Valmiki d) Vyasa
Answer
Answer: b) Banabhatta
Q.109: Who was the author of the great romantic drama ‘Kadambari’?
a) Banabhatta b) Harshavardhana c) Bhaskaravardhana d) Bindusara
Answer
Answer: a) Banabhatta
Q.110: Who wrote ‘Prithviraj Raso’ among the following?
a) Bhavabhuti b) Jayadeva c) Chand Bardai d) Banabhatta
Answer
Answer: c) Chand Bardai
Q.111: Which of the following rulers established the famous Vikramashila University for Buddhists?
a) Mahipal b) Devpal c) Gopal d) Dharmapal
Answer
Answer: d) Dharmapal
Q.112: Who among the following was the last Buddhist king, also known as a great scholar and writer of Sanskrit?
a) Kanishka b) Ashoka c) Bimbisara d) Harshavardhana
Answer
Answer: d) Harshavardhana
Q.113: Who built the Khajuraho temples?
a) Holkar b) Scindia c) Bundela Rajputs d) Chandel Rajputs
Answer
Answer: d) Chandel Rajputs
Q.114: Which Rajput ruler among the following founded the city of Bhopal?
a) Prithviraj Chauhan b) Dharmapal c) Raja Bhoj d) Jaychand
Answer
Answer: c) Raja Bhoj
Q.115: During whose reign did Xuanzang visit India?
a) Chandragupta I b) Chandragupta II c) Harshavardhana d) Rudradaman
Answer
Answer: c) Harshavardhana
Q.116: Who was given the title ‘Prince of Pilgrims’?
a) Fa Hien b) I-tsing c) Xuanzang d) Megasthenes
Answer
Answer: c) Xuanzang
Q.117: The two greatest Indian artists, Bitpal and Dhiman, belonged to which period?
a) Pala period b) Gupta period c) Maurya period d) Pathan period
Answer
Answer: a) Pala period
Q.118: In which Indian state is Nalanda University located?
a) Bengal b) Bihar c) Odisha d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer
Answer: b) Bihar
Q.119: Who was the main proponent of the Advaita philosophy? a) Madhvacharya b) Shankaracharya c) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa d) Ramanujacharya
Answer
Answer: b) Shankaracharya
Q.120: Who defeated Harshavardhana?
a) Prabhakar Vardhan b) Pulakeshin II c) Narasimhavarman Pallava d) Shashanka
Answer
Answer: b) Pulakeshin II
Q.121: Who defeated the Arabs in 738 AD?
a) Pratiharas b) Rashtrakutas c) Palas d) Chalukyas
Answer
a) Pratiharas
Q.122: Which of the following was not a center of learning in ancient India? a) Takshashila b) Vikramshila c) Nalanda d) Kaushambi
Answer
d) Kaushambi
Q.123: The Great Stupa of Sanchi is located in a) Uttar Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Arunachal Pradesh d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer
b) Madhya Pradesh
Q.124: The Kalinga king Kharavela patronized which religion? a) Hinduism (Vaishnavism) b) Shaivism c) Buddhism d) Jainism
Topic Wise GK MCQ Questions in Hindi and English. History, Geography, Indian Polity and Constitution, Indian Economy, Art and Culture, General Science, Sports, Book and Miscellany Questions from the previous year exam paper.
GK MCQ in Hindi (Topic wise)
The MCQs from following General Knowledge categories for online practice:
GK MCQ questions on Vijaynagara and Bahmani Kingdoms for preparation of competitive exams. Question Answer from previous year exam question paper of UPSC, SSC, Bank, UPSSSC.
Qns 1 : Which among the following was the first dynasty of Vijayanagara? (a) Hoysala dynasty (b) Sangama dynasty (c) Suluva dynasty (d) Tuluva dynasty
Answer
(b) Sangama dynasty
Qns 2 : Which among the following title was adopted by Deva Raya-II? (a) Gajabetegara (b) Andhara Bhoja (c) Dakshinapati (d) Abhinav Bhoja
Answer
(a) Gajabetegara
Qns 3 : Which among the following Vijayanagara ruler patronised the Madhwa saint Sripadaraya and Kannada poet Kavi Linga? (a) Saluva Narasimha (b) Immadi Narasimha (c) Deva Raya II (d) Krishnadeva Raya
Answer
(a) Saluva Narasimha
Qns 4 : Who was the founder of Tuluva dynasty? (a) Narasu Nayak (b) Immadi Narasimha (c) Vira Narasimha (d) None of the above
Answer
(c) Vira Narasimha
Qns 5 : Which city was founded by Krishnadeva Raya? (a) Warangal (b) Nagalapur (c) Udayagiri (d) Khandragiri
Answer
(b) Nagalapur
Qns 6 : Who got the monumental Rayagopurams in front of the temples at Hampi, Tiruvannamalai, Chidambaram, Sri Rangam, Tirupati etc constructed? (a) Vidyaranya (b) Krishnadeva Raya (c) Harihara (d) Rajaraja
Answer
(b) Krishnadeva Raya
Qns 7 : Who among the ruler of Vijayanagar empire after successful campaign against Bahmani kingdom adopted the title “establisher of the Yavana Kingdom”? (a) Krishnadeva Raya (b) Saluva Narasimha (c) Deva Raya II (d) Achyuta Raya
Answer
(a) Krishnadeva Raya
Qns 8 : Krishnadeva raya’s Amuktamalyada is a work on (a) his political ideas. (b) public administration. (c) administration of justice and foreign affairs. (d) All of the above
Answer
(d) All of the above
Qns 9 : Which of the following are true about Krishnadeva Raya? (a) He was known as Andhra Bhoja. (b) He authored ‘Amuktamalyada’ book on polity in Telugu and also a Sanskrit drama called ‘Jambavati Kalyanam’. (c) His court has adorned by eight celebrated poets called ‘ashtadiggajas’ (d) All of the above
Answer
(d) All of the above
Qns 10 : The Vijayanagara Empire received its death blow at the battle of (a) Talikota in 1565 (b) Panipat in 1661 (c) Talikota in 1665 (d) Raichur in 1510
Answer
(a) Talikota in 1565
Qns 11 : The Battle of Talikota was fought between (a) Akbar and Sultan of Malwa. (b) Vijayanagara and the Bahmani Kingdom (c) Vijayanagara and combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar and Golconda. (d) Sher Shah and Humayun.
Answer
(c) Vijayanagara and combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar and Golconda.
Qns 12 : Who among the following was the last dynasty of Vijayanagara Empire? (a) Saluva dynasty (b) Tuluva dynasty (c) Aravidu dynasty (d) Sangama dynasty
Answer
(c) Aravidu dynasty
Qns 13 : Who among the following travellers was from Italy and visited Vijayanagar Kingdom in the fifteenth century? (a) Nikitin (b) Fa-Hien (c) Bernier (d) Nicolo Conti
Answer
(d) Nicolo Conti
Qns 14 : Which one of the following pairs of travellers and their nationality is not correctly matched? [NDA 2019] (a) Ibn Battuta – Moroccan (b) Duarte Barbosa – Protuguese (c) Jean Baptiste Tavernier – Dutch (d) Niccolao Manucci – Venetian
Qns 15 : The ruins of Vijayanagara (Hampi) were brought to public light in the year 1800 by the following surveyor and engineer. (a) James Prinsep (b) Colin Mackenzie (c) James Rennell (d) Charles Metcalf
Answer
(b) Colin Mackenzie
Qns 16 : The rulers of Vijaynagar promoted (a) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit (b) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit (c) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit (d) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit
Answer
(d) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit
Qns 17 : Which of the following temples is an example of wall inscription on which stories of Ramayana and Mahabharat are inscribed? (a) Tadapatri (b) Varadraja (c) Parvati (d) Vithalswami
Answer
(d) Vithalswami
Qns 18 : The term ‘Amaram’ in the Vijayanagar Empire stood for (a) Grants given to the Brahamanas (b) Military grants (c) Grants given to scholar and poets (d) Grants given to the widows and the poor
Answer
(b) Military grants
Qns 19 : Consider the following statements about Vijayanagar Empire. I. Vijaynagar was noted for its markets dealing in spices, textiles and precious stones. II. Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was characterised by the strain within the imperial structure. III. The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to be governed by the Rayas. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only III (b) I and II (c) I and III (d) All of these
Answer
(c) I and III
Qns 20 : Which of the following was the first capital of the Bahmani Kingdom? (a) Bidar (b) Gulbarga (c) Daultabad (d) Hussainabad
Answer
(b) Gulbarga
Qns 21 : In how many provinces did Bahmani kingdom under Alaudin Hasan was divided? (a) Four (b) Five (c) Eight (d) Two
Answer
(b) Five
Qns 22 : Who was the ruler of Golconda when Aurangzeb seized the fort of Golconda in 1687? (a) Abul Hasan Qutb Shah (b) Sikandar Adil Shah (c) Ali Adil Shah II (d) Shayasta Khan
Answer
(a) Abul Hasan Qutb Shah
Qns 23 : The famous Gol Gumbaz of Bijapur was built by which among the following Deccan Sultan? (a) Mohammad Adil Shah (b) Mahmud Gawan (c) Yusuf Adil Shah (d) Ismail Adil Shah
Answer
(a) Mohammad Adil Shah
Qns 24 : The world famous Koh-i-Noor diamond was excavated from the mines of (a) Odisha (b) Chota nagpur (c) Bijapur (d) Golconda
Answer
(d) Golconda
Qns 25 : The Bahmani architecture in the Deccan is marked by its distinct originality and independent style. Which of the following statements about Bahmani architecture are correct? I. It derived its elements from the architectural styles of the Delhi Sultanate and that of distant Persia. II. The forts built by the Bahmanis were undoubtedly the greatest monuments far exceeding any of the same period in Europe. III. Bahmani architecture did reflect harmonious blend of both Hindi and Islamic styles. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) I, II and III (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I and II
Ancient India History GK Questions in English for the preparation of competitive exams. MCQ includes from the Historical Sources and Pre-Historic Period, Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation, Vedic Era and Mahajanapadas, Religious Movements of 6th Century, Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Period, Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period, Early Medieval Period (800-1200 CE) and Sangam Period topics.
Important one liners of Ancient India History
Which ancient Indian text is considered the oldest surviving literature in the world? (Answer: Rigveda)
The Great Bath, an impressive structure from ancient India, was discovered in which civilization? (Answer: Indus Valley Civilization)
Which ruler is known for his rock-cut architecture and the construction of the famous Kailasa Temple in Ellora? (Answer: King Krishna I of the Rashtrakuta dynasty)
Who authored the famous treatise on statecraft known as the Arthashastra? (Answer: Chanakya or Kautilya)
What is the sacred river mentioned in ancient Indian texts, often referred to as the “Ganga” of the South? (Answer: Godavari River)
The Battle of Kalinga, a turning point in Indian history, was fought by which ancient Indian emperor? (Answer: Emperor Ashoka)
Which ancient Indian kingdom was known for its expertise in maritime trade and shipbuilding? (Answer: Chola Empire)
The rock-cut caves of Ajanta and Ellora are located in which Indian state? (Answer: Maharashtra)
Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire, one of the largest empires in ancient Indian history? (Answer: Chandragupta Maurya)
The ancient university of Nalanda, renowned for its excellence in education, was located in which present-day country? (Answer: India)
Which ancient Indian ruler is credited with the construction of the world-famous temple complex at Khajuraho? (Answer: King Chandel of the Chandela dynasty)
Who composed the epic Sanskrit poem, the Ramayana? (Answer: Valmiki)
The famous Iron Pillar, known for its rust-resistant composition, is located in which ancient Indian city? (Answer: Delhi)
Which ancient Indian kingdom is associated with the famous rock-cut caves of Elephanta? (Answer: Rashtrakuta dynasty)
Who is considered the father of Indian surgery and authored the Sushruta Samhita, an ancient medical treatise? (Answer: Sushruta)
The Ajanta Caves primarily showcase the artistic influence of which religion in ancient India? (Answer: Buddhism)
The ancient city of Pataliputra, present-day Patna, served as the capital of which ancient Indian dynasty? (Answer: Maurya Empire)
Who is considered the greatest ruler of the Gupta Empire, known for his patronage of art, literature, and science? (Answer: Chandragupta II, also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya)
The ancient Indian numeral system, including the concept of zero, was developed during the reign of which dynasty? (Answer: Gupta Empire)
Ancient Indian History MCQ in English
The topic wise Ancient India History GK MCQ Questions in English button with link are given below for online practice.
Sangam Age / Period History GK MCQ in for the practice of UPSC, SSC competitive exams. The objective questioned in English are sourced from the previous year exam question paper of various entrance and government jobs examinations.
Sangam Period MCQ
Qns 1 : The word ‘Sangam’ is associated in Tamil history with (a) The literature produced during the reign of the great Pallava Dynasty of Kanchi. (b) The poems written in praise of the Pandyan kings of the early Christian Era. (c) The court poetry of China kings who were famous for patronising artists. (d) A college or Assembly (literary academy) of Tamil scholar held under the royal patronage of Pandyan king at Madurai.
Answer
(d) A college or Assembly (literary academy) of Tamil scholar held under the royal patronage of Pandyan king at Madurai.
Qns 2 : The most popular God of the Tamil during the Sangam age was (a) Indra (b) Murugan (c) Varuna (d) Tirumal
Answer
(b) Murugan
Qns 3 : In the context of South India, Cave script means
(a) Undeciphered graffiti marks (b) Tamil Brahmi (c) Tamil Grantha (d) Pallava Grantha
Qns 5 : Who among the following was the author of the Tamil Ramayanam or Ramavataram?
(a) Kamban (b) Kuttan (c) Nannaya (d) Tikkana
Answer
(a) Kamban
Qns 6 : In Sangam literature ‘Tolkapiyyam’ is a text of
(a) Tamil Poetry (b) Tamil Grammar (c) Tamil Architecture (d) Tamil Polity
Answer
(b) Tamil Grammar
Qns 7 : Who among the following are known for their Telugu translation of the Mahabharata? I. Kamban II. Kuttan III. Nannayya IV. Tikkana Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) IV and I
Answer
(c) III and IV
Qns 8 : Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?
Qns 10 : Which of the following are the characters of the epic ‘Manimekalai’? I. Udayakumara II. Sudhamati III. Kural IV. Adikal Codes (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) II, III and IV (d) I, III and IV
Answer
(d) I, III and IV
Qns 11 : Where was the capital of Sangam period Chola located?
Qns 12 : The protracted Civil War between two Chola chieftains Nalankili and Nedunkilli, were mentioned by which poet?
(a) Kamban (b) Kuttan (c) Nannay (d) Kovur Kilar
Answer
(d) Kovur Kilar
Qns 13 : “In a space in which an elephant could lie, one can produce enough grain to feed seven”. This was stated in Sangam poems for which of the following Kingdom?
Qns 16 : Consider the following statements. I. Senguttuvan, the son of Imayavaramban was the contemporary of Yajna Sri Satkarni. II. The Silappadikaram gives a detailed account of the exploits of Senguttuvan. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
Answer
(a) Only I
Qns 17 : Ginger and cinnamon were produced in large quantities in the Pandya country is mentioned by (a) Megasthenes (b) Ptolemy (c) Ibn Saud (d) Marco Polo
Answer
(d) Marco Polo
Qns 18 : According to Sangam texts, the terms Kon, Ko and Mannan were attributed to which of the following?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Revenue Minister (c) Commander of the Army (d) King
Answer
(d) King
Qns 19 : Match the following.
List I (Officer)
List II (Function)
A. Amaichhar
1. Purohits
B. Anthanar
2. Ministers
C. Senaptiyar
3. Spies
D. Orar
4. Senapati
Codes A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
Answer
(b) 2 1 4 3
Qns 20 : Who were ‘Umanar’ in the Sangam Age?
(a) The retailers in salt (b) Military commanders (c) Shopkeepers (d) Agriculturists
Answer
(a) The retailers in salt
Qns 21 : Which one of the following document gives evidence of a temple of Augustus at Muziris in South India?
(a) Periplus of the Erythraean Sea (b) Nearchus (c) Genealogical tables (d) Sangam literature
Answer
(a) Periplus of the Erythraean Sea
Qns 22 : The term ‘Yavanpriya’ mentioned in ancient Sanskrit text denoted
(a) a fine variety of Indian Muslim (b) irory (c) Damsels sent to the Greek Court for dance performance (d) pepper
Answer
(d) pepper
Qns 23 : From the excavations of which ancient site, information has been gathered regarding brisk trade relations between India and Rome, during the early centuries of Christian era.
(a) Madurai (b) Tamralipti (c) Tondi (d) Arikamedu
Answer
(d) Arikamedu
Qns 24 : Which one of the following ports was known as Poduke to the author of the ‘Periplus of the Erythraean Sea.’
(a) perforated jar (b) tall double handle jar (c) painted grey jar (d) black and red ware jar
Answer
(b) tall double handle jar
Qns 26 : Consider the following statements. I. In the Sangam age, the exchange was based on a kind of barter system. II. There were certain fixed points of exchange called ‘avanam’. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) Only I (b) Both I and II (c) Only II (d) Neither I nor II
Answer
(a) Only I
Qns 27 : Match the following.
List I (Port)
List II (Location)
A. Barygaza
1. Malabar Coast
B. Muziris
2. Present Day Mumbai Coast
C. Sopara
3. The Eastern Coast of India
D. Suvamabhumi
4. At the North of the Narmada River
Sangam Period MCQ
Codes
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Answer
(d) 4 1 2 3
Qns 28 : Which one of the following objects of Roman manufacture has been most abundantly found in India?
(a) Pot sherds (b) Bronze icons (c) Lamps (d) Coins
Answer
(d) Coins
Qns 29 : Which of the following Tamil text has been called ‘Laghuveda’?
Qns 7 : ‘Rajatarangini’ written by Kalhana is associated with which of the following?
(a) Chandragupta’s reign (b) Anthology of Lyrics (c) History of Kashmir (d) Reign of Krishna Deva Raya
Answer
(c) History of Kashmir
Qns 8 : One consistent feature found in the history of Southern India was the growth of small regional kingdoms rather than large empires because of
(a) The absence of minerals like iron. (b) Too many divisions in the social structure. (c) The absence of vast areas of fertile land. (d) The scarcity of manpower.
Answer
(b) Too many divisions in the social structure.
Qns 9 : Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta Empire. I. It was founded by Dantidurga by overthrowing the Chalukyas of Vatapi (Badami) and the capital was fixed at Manyakheta. II. The Rashtrakuta kings, Dhruva, Govinda III and Indra III invaded North India. III. The king Amoghvarsha, wrote ‘Kavirajamaraga’, the earliest Kannada book on poetics. IV. The king Krishna I, built the Kailash (Shiva) temple at Ellora. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) All of these
Answer
(d) All of these
Qns 10 : The Sanskrit poet and dramatist Kalidasa finds a mention in
(a) Aihole inscription of Pulkeshin II. (b) Gwalior inscription of Mihir Bhoja. (c) Karmadanda Sivalinga inscription of Kumaragupta I. (d) Mathura Pillar inscription of Chandragupta II
Answer
(a) Aihole inscription of Pulkeshin II.
Qns 11 : Who was the founder of Chalukyas of Vengi?
(a) Bhanuvardhan (b) Vishnuvardhan (c) Vijayaditya I (d) Pulkeshin IV
Answer
(b) Vishnuvardhan
Qns 12 : The Chola Era was famous for
(a) Religious development (b) Village assemblies (c) Warfare with Rashtrakutas (d) Trade from Sri Lanka
Answer
(b) village assemblies
Qns 13 : Who assumed the title of ‘Gangaikondachola’?
(a) Rajendra I (b) Rajaraja I (c) Rajadhiraja I (d) Kulotunga I
Answer
(a) Rajendra I
Qns 14 : What was the occasion for the building of a new capital near the mouth of the Cauveri called Gangaikonda Cholapuram by Rajendra I ?
(a) His victory over the Western Gangas. (b) Successful conclusion of his campaign against the Eastern Gangas of Odisha. (c) The performance of an Ashvamedha yajna after his all round victories. (d) The successful campaign of his armies in North India.
Answer
(d) The successful campaign of his armies in North India.
Qns 15 : Which one of the following is a special feature of the Chola Polity?
(a) Autonomous village panchayats. (b) Division of kingdom into the mandalas. (c) Monarchical system. (d) Enlightened Council of Ministers.
Answer
(a) Autonomous village panchayats.
Qns 16 : What was the administrative innovation introduced by Rajaraja?
(a) He abolished tolls, control and local taxes on merchandise. (b) He made it a practice to send only the members of the royal household as viceroys of the provinces. (c) He introduced the system of associating the yuvaraja with the administration of the country. (d) He abolished the Council of Ministers and replaced it with a body consisting of representatives of village assemblies.
Answer
(c) He introduced the system of associating the yuvaraja with the administration of the country.
Qns 17 : Consider the following statements about Rajaraja. I. The economic motive behind his conquest of Cheras, Pandyas and Sri Lanka was to bring the trade with South-East Asian countries under his control and open the sea routes to China. II. His greatest historical contribution was that he introduced the tradition of beginning the Chola epigraphs with historical introductions. III. In the field of agrarian and fiscal administration, he introduced the system of auditing of the accounts of the village assemblies and other local bodies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) All of these
Answer
(d) All of these
Qns 18 : The Pala, Pratiharas and the Rashtrakutas fought for control over which city?
Qns 19 : Which of the following was not one of the feudal obligations of the feudatories to the overlord?
(a) Attendance at court and payment of tribute to the overlord. (b) For smaller feudatories, permission from the king for any changes in the administration of their property. (c) Maintenance of a specified number of troops and payment of tribute of the king. (d) Permission of the king for matrimonial alliances.
Answer
(d) Permission of the king for matrimonial alliances.
Qns 20 : Consider the following statements : I. Bhukti was one of the administrative unit during early medieval period. II. Vishyas were the topmost administrative unit in hierarchy. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
Answer
(a) Only I
Qns 21 : Which one of the following is not true about the Varna/Caste situation during the early medieval India?
(a) The number of castes increased manifold. (b) The guilds of artisans were gradually hardened into castes for lack of mobility post Gupta times. (c) The absorption of the tribal people added to the variety of the Shudras and so called mixed castes. (d) The distance between the Vaishyas and Shudras increased during this period.
Answer
(d) The distance between the Vaishyas and Shudras increased during this period
Qns 22 : Match the following.
List I (Types of Tax)
List II (Description of Tax)
A. Hiranya
1. King’s share of produce
B. Bhaga
2. Tax on special produce taken in cash
C. Pratya
3. Toll tax
D. Uparnik
4. Tax taken from border areas
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer
(b) 2 1 3 4
Qns 23 : Which of the following did not form a part of the donations made to the temple?
(a) Money (b) Slaves (c) Livestock (d) Hand
Answer
(b) Slaves
Qns 24 : Which of the following statements is true in the early medieval period?
(a) There was expansion of Buddhism. (b) There was a revival and expansion of Hinduism. (c) Islam made major inroads. (d) Jainism disappeared completely.
Answer
(b) There was a revival and expansion of Hinduism.
Qns 25 :Assertion (A) Jainism in early medieval India received a setback. Reason (R) The decline of internal trade in early medieval India hit the trading community hard. Codes (a) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer
(b) A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Qns 26 : Where is the famous Virupakasha temple located?
(a) Bhadrachalam (b) Chidambaram (c) Hampi (d) Srikalahasi
Answer
(c) Hampi
Qns 27 : The tallest among all early medieval temple of India is
(a) Nataraja temple at Chidambaram. (b) Brihadeswara temple at Tanjore. (c) Vithalswamy temple at Hampi. (d) The great temple at Sriangam.
Answer
(b) Brihadeswara temple at Tanjore.
Qns 28 : Sun temple is situated at
(a) Puri (b) Khajuraho (c) Konark (d) Gaya
Answer
(c) Konark
Qns 29 : Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval India? I. Vijnanesvara II. Hemadri III. Rajhasekhara IV. Jimutavahana
Select the correct answer from the codes given below. (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) I and IV
Answer
(c) I, II and IV
Qns 30 : Match the following.
List I
List II
A. Gahadavalas
1. Bundelkhand
B. Chauhanas
2. Gujarat
C. Chalukyas
3. Kannauj
D. Chandelas
4. Ajmer
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
The Gupta and the Post-Gupta Period Empire MCQ for Competitive exams. The Gupta Age objective question answer in English are selected from the previous year exam question paper of UPSC, SSC CGL, CHSL and UPSSSC PET.
Gupta Empire MCQ
Qns 1 : Ajanta caves were built during period of
(a) Gupta (b) Kushana (c) Maurya (d) Chalukya
Answer
(a) Gupta
Qns 2 : Who is called the Napoleon of Ancient India?
Qns 7 : The ancient Indian Play Mudrarakshasa of Vishakhadatta has its subject on
(a) A conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient Hindu lore. (b) A romantic story of an aryan prince and a tribal woman. (c) The story of the power struggle between two Aryan tribes. (d) The court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya.
Answer
(d) The court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya.
Qns 8 : Which of the following drama was not written by Kalidas?
Qns 10 : Which of the following classical works of literature were written during the Gupta era? I. Amarkosh II. Kamasutra III. Meghadutta IV. Madrarakshasa Select the correct answer from the codes given below. (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I, II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV
Answer
(d) I, II, III and IV
Qns 11 : Among the four works mentioned below which one is encyclopedic in nature?
Qns 12 : Which of the following clearly define ‘Mitaksara”?
(a) A work on astronomy. (b) A treatise on ancient Hindu law of inheritance. (c) A text on agriculture. (d) A compendium of medicine.
Answer
(b) A treatise on ancient Hindu law of inheritance.
Qns 13 : With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It was considered a source of income for the state, a sort of tax paid by the people. (b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire. (c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages. (d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Answer
(a) It was considered a source of income for the state, a sort of tax paid by the people.
Qns 14 : Centres located in Gujarat, Bengal, Deccan and Tamil country during the Gupta period were associated with which of the following?
Qns 23 : The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang), who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery. II. As regards punishment for offences ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person. III. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) All of these
Answer
(c) II and III
Qns 24 : Which of the following was the most powerful ruler of Maitraka dynasty?
Qns 25 : Generally, which one of the following, had the first right over ‘stridhan’, in case of succession?
(a) Husband (b) Son (c) Daughters (d) Daughter-in-law
Answer
(c) Daughters
Qns 26 : During post Gupta period, main business centre was
(a) Kannauj (b) Ujjain (c) Dhar (d) Devgiri
Answer
(a) Kannauj
Qns 27 : Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?
(a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates. (b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts. (c) A bill of exchange (d) An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates.
Answer
(c) A bill of exchange
Qns 28 : Human sacrifice was prevalent in which of the following sect?
(a) Pasupat (b) Kapalik (c) Aghori (d) Lingayat
Answer
(b) Kapalik
Qns 29 : The rulers of which of the following dynasty have been called as ‘Shriparvatiya’ in Puranas?
Religious Movements of 6th Century BCE MCQ Questions from the previous year exam question paper. This practice set of objective question answer is very useful for the preparation of upcoming UPSC, SSC, UPSSSC competitive exams.
Qns 22 : Which of the following statements is/are correct about Lord Buddha? I. He was born in Kapilvastu. II. He attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya. III. He discarded the Vedic religion. IV. He preached noble truths. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) II and III (b) I and III (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
Answer
Ans : (d) I, II, III and IV
Qns 23 : Match the following.
List IList II
(Event Related to Buddha) (Place)
A. Birth of Buddha 1. Bodh Gaya
B. Enlightenment 2. Lumbini
C. First Sermon 3. Kushinagar(Kasia)
D. Death of Buddha 4. Sarnath
5. Rajgriha
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 5
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 2 5 3
Answer
Ans : (c) 2 1 4 3
Qns 24 : Why was Nalanda-University famous in the world?
(a) Medical Science (b) Philosophy (c) Buddhist Religious Philosophy (d) Chemical Science
Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Period History MCQs from the previous year exam question papers. The objective question answer is very helpful for the preparation of upcoming UPSC, SSC, UPSSSC PET Competitive exams.
Mauryan and Post-Mauryan Period Questions
Qns 1 : Which among the following is India’s oldest dynasty?
Qns 29 : The following persons came to India at one time or another. I. Fa-Hien II. I-Tsing III. Megasthenes IV. Hieun-Tsang The correct chronological sequence of their visits are
(a) III, I, II and IV (b) III, I, IV, II (c) I, III, II and IV (d) I, III, IV and II
Answer
Ans : (b) III, I, IV, II
Qns 30 : Who started the Shaka era and when?
(a) Kadphises in 58 BC [WBCS 2008] (b) Vikramaditya in 58 BC (c) Rudradaman I in AD 78 (d) Kanishka in AD 78
Answer
Ans : (d) Kanishka in AD 78
Qns 31 : Which of the following dynasty empire was expanded even outside of India?
(a) Gupta dynasty (b) Maurya dynasty (c) Kushan dynasty (d) None of these
Answer
Ans : (c) Kushan dynasty
Qns 32 : Art of Ganghara style flourished during the reign of
(a) Kushans (b) Guptas (c) Akbar (d) Mauryas
Answer
Ans : (a) Kushans
Qns 33 : Who among the following was the ruler of Kushan dynasty?
(a) Vikramaditya (b) Danti Durga (c) Khadphises I (d) Pushyamitra
Answer
Ans : (c) Khadphises I
Qns 34 : The capital of the Satavahanas was located at
(a) Amravati (b) Nanded (c) Naldurg (d) Durg
Answer
Ans : (a) Amravati
Qns 35 : When was Vikram Samvat started?
(a) 78 AD (b) 57 BC (c) 72 BC (d) 56 BC
Answer
Ans : (b) 57 BC
Qns 36 : The art style which combines Indian and Greek feature is called
(a) Sikhar (b) Vera (c) Gandhara (d) Nagara
Answer
Ans : (c) Gandhara
Qns 37 : With reference to the invaders in ancient India, which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(a) Greeks, Shakas and Kushans (b) Greeks, Kushans and Shakas (c) Shakas, Greeks and Kushans (d) Shakas, Kushans and Greeks
Answer
Ans : (d) Shakas, Kushans and Greeks
Qns 38 : Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India?
(a) Ashoka, Kanishka and Milinda (b) Milinda, Ashoka and Kanishka (c) Ashoka, Milinda and Kanishka (d) Milinda, Kanishka and Ashoka
Answer
Ans : (c) Ashoka, Milinda and Kanishka
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